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Bacteriology - Gram Negative Bacteria Flashcards

1
Q

Ferments Maltose and Glucose

A

N. meningitidis

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2
Q

Ferments Glucose only

A

N. gonorrhoeae

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3
Q

MCC of meningitis among 2-18yo

A

N. meningitidis (recall: BEL for neonates; NHS for infants)

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4
Q

fever, shock, purpura, DIC, thrombocytopenia, ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY

A

Waterhouse Frriderichsen Syndrome (most severe form of meningococcemia)

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5
Q

DOC for meningococcemia (N meningitidis)

A

Pen G

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6
Q

Strains included in capsular polysaccharide vaccine for meningococcemia

A

A, C, Y, W-135

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7
Q

Chemoprophylaxis for close contacts of meningococcemia

A

Rifampin

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8
Q

MCC of urethritis

A

N. gonorrhoeae

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9
Q

MCC of PID

A

N. gonorrhoeae

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10
Q

Violin string adhesions (perihepatitis)

A

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome

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11
Q

MCC of septic arthritis in sexually active adults

A

N. gonorrhoeae

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12
Q

DOC for gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone + doxycycline (due to frequent co-infection with chlamydia)

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13
Q

HACEK organisms causinf culture negative subacute bacterial endocarditis

A

Haemophilus aphrophilus; Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans; Cardiobacterium hominis; Eikenella corrodens; Kingella kingae

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14
Q

Satellite phenomenon around s. aureus colonies

A

haemophilus influenzae

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15
Q

Factors added to chocolate agar for H influenzae cultures

A

Factors 5(NAD) and 10 (hemin)

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16
Q

Cherry red epiglottis, Thumb sign

A

Epiglottitis

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17
Q

MCC of epiglotittis

A

haemophilus influenzae

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18
Q

DOC for haemophilus

A

ceftriaxone

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19
Q

Cause of laryngotracheobronchitis

A

parainfluenza 1 and 2

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20
Q

Steeple Sign

A

laryngotracheobronchitis

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21
Q

Tx for laryngotracheobronchitis

A

racemic epinephrine

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22
Q

DOC for pertussis

A

erythromycin

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23
Q

Silver stain, charcoal yeast extract agar (iron and cysteine)

A

Legionella

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24
Q

Phases of pertussis

A

Incubation; Catarrhal (Mucuos membrane - highest bacterial load); Paroxysmal (whooping); Convalescent

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25
Q

Cause of Pontiac fever (mild, flulike illness)

A

Legionella

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26
Q

DOC for legionella

A

azithromycin or erythromycin

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27
Q

lactose fermenter, characteristic “green sheen” on EMB Agar

A

escherichia coli

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28
Q

urease positive, ESBL

A

klebsiella pneumoniae

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29
Q

comma shaped, motile, oxidase positive

A

Vibrio (other comma - helicobacter, campylobacter and corynebacterium)

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30
Q

Non-lactose fermenters gram negative rods (4)

A

Salmonella, Shigella, Proteus, Pseudomonas

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31
Q

H2S producer, Nonlactose fermenter

A

Salmonella (shigella = no H2s)

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32
Q

Swarming motiity

A

Proteus mirabilis

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33
Q

Lactose fermenter (SEEK laCtose)

A

Serratia, Escherichia, Enterobacter, Klebsiella, Citrobacter)

34
Q

MCC of community acquired UTI

35
Q

E coli: Watery diarrhea

36
Q

E coli: Pedia, Philippines (developing), Prolonged

37
Q

E coli: Bloody diarrhea, Hemorrhagic colitis, HUS

38
Q

E coli: Bloody diarrhea

39
Q

E coli: HIV, persistent diarrhea

40
Q

Typhoid fever is due to _____ antigen

A

Vi capsular antigen

41
Q

Culture source for salmonella for all 5 weeks

A

Bone marrow!

42
Q

Preferred culture sources for first 3 weeks

A

B-U-S: 1-Blood; 2-Urine; 3-Stool

43
Q

DOC for typhoid fever in the Phils

A

Amoxicillin, Cotrimoxazole; Chloramphenicol

44
Q

Preferred site invasion of shigella

A

distal ileum and colon

45
Q

MCC of bacillary dysentery

A

Shigella sonnei/Dural’s bacillus

46
Q

MCC of epidemic dysentery

A

Shigella dysenteriae 1/Shiga bacillus

47
Q

Most severe form of bacillary dysentery

A

Shigella dysenteriae 1/Shiga bacillus

48
Q

DOC for shigella

A

ciprofloxacin

49
Q

shooting star motility

A

vibrio cholerae

50
Q

strain of cholera causing pandemics

A

Cholera El Tor (Vibrio cholerae O1 biotype El Tor)

51
Q

DOC for shortening duration of cholera

A

azithromycin or tetracycline

52
Q

MCC of bacterial gastroenteritis

A

campylobacter jejuni

53
Q

uncooked chicken = (no, it’s not salmonella)

A

campylobacter jejuni

54
Q

Antigenic cross reactivity between oligosaccharide in campylobacter capsule and glycosphingolipids of neural tissues

A

Guillan-Barre Syndrome

55
Q

Urethritis, Uveitis, and Arthritis

A

Reiter’s Syndrome (reactive with campylobacter jejuni)

56
Q

DOC for SEVERE campylobacter infection (otherwise, supportive measures only)

A

erythromycin

57
Q

Test used to document cure of H. pylori

A

Urease breath test

58
Q

Triple therapy

A

Bismuth+Metro+Tetracycline; Omep+Metro/amox+clarithromycin; Ranitidine+Tetracycline+clarith/metronidazole

59
Q

Quadruple therapy

A

Omep+bismuth+tertacycline+Metronidazole

60
Q

MCC of pneumonia in alcoholics

A

klebsiella pneumoniae

61
Q

Currant jelly sputum

A

klebsiella pneumoniae

62
Q

DOC for kleb pneumonia

A

cephalosporin +/- aminoglycoside

63
Q

Struvite stones =

A

Proteus mirabilis (alkalinizes urine)

64
Q

composition of struvite stones

A

Magnesium–Ammonium–Phosphate

65
Q

DOC for proteus

A

TMP-SMX or ampicillin

66
Q

Sweet grape like odor

A

Pseudomonas

67
Q

hot tub folliculitis

A

Pseudomonas

68
Q

MCC of otitis externa

A

Pseudomonas

69
Q

MCC of malignant otitis externa in diabetics

A

Pseudomonas

70
Q

MCC of CSOM

A

Pseudomonas

71
Q

Pneumonia in patients with bronchiectasis and cystic fibrosis, think of…

A

Pseudomonas

72
Q

Third most common cause of NOSOCOMIAL UTIs

A

Pseudomonas

73
Q

Hemorrhagic lesions (oval)

A

Pseudomonas - Eccthyma h=gangrenosum

74
Q

Antipseudomonal penicillins (2)

A

Ticarcillin and piperacillin

75
Q

Cephalosporin with antipseudomonal activity

A

Ceftazidime (3rd) and Cefepime (4th)

76
Q

Monobactam with antipseudomonal activity

77
Q

Carbapenems with antipseudomonal activity

A

Imipenem, meropenem, doripenem, ertapenem

78
Q

Fluoroquinolone with antipseudomonal activity

A

ciprofloxacin

79
Q

Predominant anaerobe of human colon

A

bacteroides fragilis

80
Q

DOC for bacteroides

A

metronidazole, clindamycin, or cefoxitin

Mikrobyo (10 decks)

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