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Animal Body 2 > Bacteriology > Flashcards

Bacteriology Flashcards

1
Q

What two shapes are common major pathogens

A

Coccus and rod/bacilli

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2
Q

Name 2 examples of cocci pathogens

A

Streptococcus and staphylococcus

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3
Q

Name 2 examples of rod/bacilli pathogens

A

E. coli and Mycobacterium

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4
Q

Name 2 examples of spiral pathogens

A

Borrelia and campylobacter

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5
Q

What are the 3 major functions of the cytoplasmic membrane

A

Permeability barrier, protein anchor and energy conservation

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6
Q

List the steps of a gram stain

A

Crystal violet dye
Iodine as a fixative
Alcohol to de-stain
Fuchsin or safranin stain to counter

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7
Q

Describe the difference between a gram-positive and gram-negative cell

A

Gram positive has a thicker peptidoglycan layer with LTA and TA and gram negative has an outer membrane with LPS
Gram positive is physically stronger and a bit more permeable

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8
Q

What is the role of LPS in gram-negative bacterial infections

A

LPS protects the bacteria from phagocytosis and the lipid A part stuck in the outer membrane is a pro-inflammatory endotoxin

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9
Q

What type of cell wall is mycobacteria’s cell wall

A

Acid fast

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10
Q

How do you stain an acid fast cell wall and what part of the cell wall gets stained

A

Using a Ziehl-Nielsen stain
The mycolic acid retains the pink carbol fuschin stain

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11
Q

What are the 3 different flagellar arrangements

A

Peritrichous, polar and lophotrichous

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12
Q

What can happen to a bacterium that can cause its flagellum to mutate and reduce virulence

A

Failing to reach its desired niche, failing to attach, and failing to spread

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13
Q

What is an endospore

A

A highly differentiated cell resistant to heat, chemicals and radiation
It is a dormant stage some gram POSITIVE bacterial life cycles

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14
Q

TLR2 recognizes bacterial….

A

Lipoprotein and peptidoglycan

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15
Q

TLR4 recognizes bacterial…

A

LPS and LTA

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16
Q

TLR5 recognizes bacterial…

A

Flagellin

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17
Q

E. coli: Gram

A

Negative

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18
Q

Where is E. coli commonly found

A

In the intestines of warm-blooded animals

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19
Q

What are the 4 antigens of E. coli

A

O (LPS), K (Capsule), H (Flagella) and F (Fimbriae)

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20
Q

Which pathotype of E. coli is shown to cause diarrhea in new born animals (calves, lambs and piglets)

A

Enterotoxigenic e. coli

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21
Q

Which pathotype of E. coli is shown to cause diarrhea in older animals

A

Enteropathogenic e. coli and some verotoxigenic e. coli

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22
Q

Which pathotype of E. coli is shown to cause urinary tract infections

A

Uropathogenic e. coli

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23
Q

Which e. coli pathotype can progress to systemic colibacillosis

A

enterotoxigenic e. coli

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24
Q

What are the 2 key enterotoxins of ETEC to cause severe diarrhea

A

Heat-labile toxin (LT) and heat-stable toxin (ST)

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25
Q

What is different about how LT and ST toxin of e. coli cause diarrhea

A

LT activates adenylate cyclase activity, ST activates guanylate cyclase activity

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26
Q

How do bacterial cells multiply

A

By binary fission (cell elongation, septum formation, formation and separation of cell walls)

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27
Q

Define exponential growth

A

Growth in which cell numbers double at a constant time interval

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28
Q

Why do microscopic cell counts always reveal more cells than the plate method

A

Microscopic measure both alive and dead cells, and the growth medium of a plate cannot support the growth of every bacteria in a sample

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29
Q

Define VBNC

A

A state of low metabolic activity where cells do not divide, but can become culturable if resuscitated under the right conditions

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30
Q

List 3 methods used to measure bacterial growth

A

Microscopic counts, viable cell counts and turbidimetric methods

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31
Q

Optimal growth temperature: psychrophile

A

4C

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32
Q

Optimal growth temperature: mesophile

A

39C (e. coli)

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33
Q

Optimal growth temperature: thermophile

A

60C

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34
Q

Optimal growth temperature: hyperthermophile

A

88C-106C

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35
Q

Neutrophile: pH

A

6-8

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36
Q

Acidophiles: pH

A

Less than 6

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37
Q

Alkaliphiles: pH

A

More than 9

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38
Q

Obligate aerobes

A

Need oxygen

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39
Q

Microaerophiles

A

Need oxygen but at reduced levels from what is in atmosphere

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40
Q

Facultative anaerobes

A

Can live with or without oxygen

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41
Q

Aerotolerant anaerobes

A

Can tolerate oxygen but cannot use it

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42
Q

Obligate anaerobes

A

Do not need oxygen and are killed by exposure

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43
Q

Selective media

A

Contains compounds that selectively inhibit growth

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44
Q

Differential media

A

Contains indicator (dye) that detect specific chemical reactions

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45
Q

Enrichment cultures

A

Selected for desired organisms, encourages growth and recovery

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46
Q

What is a bacterial plasmid

A

Closed circular DNA structures (like mini-chromosome) that are sometimes present in multiple copies

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47
Q

What are some characteristics associated with bacterial plasmids

A

Antibiotic resistance, toxins, adhesins, growth condition requirements

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48
Q

Core genome

A

Present in all strains

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49
Q

Accessory genome

A

Present in a subset of strains

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50
Q

Pangenome

A

Gene pool of a species

51
Q

Briefly define transformation

A

Uptake of naked extracellular DNA

52
Q

Briefly define transduction

A

Bacterial genome is transferred via bacteriophages

53
Q

Briefly describe conjugation

A

Transfer of genetic material through cell to cell contact (expression of F sex pilus)

54
Q

List 4 mechanisms responsible for antibiotic resistance in bacteria

A
  1. drug inactivation
  2. target modification
  3. drug efflux
  4. reduced drug uptake
55
Q

List 3 ways bacteria can respond to environmental change at the gene expression level

A
  1. Activation/repression of gene expression
  2. 2 component signal transduction systems
  3. quorum sensing
56
Q

Define infection

A

Presence of a micro-organism in/on host tissue

57
Q

Define disease

A

Pathological and clinical consequence of infection

58
Q

Define opportunistic pathogen

A

Usually commensal or environmental

59
Q

Define a true pathogen

A

Initiate disease as a consequence of their presence on/in tissue

60
Q

Define pathogenesis

A

The mechanisms by which an agent induce symptoms or pathology

61
Q

What are koch’s postulates used for?

A

To define the capacity of an organism to cause disease (NOT used in routine diagnosis)

62
Q

What is the function of molecular koch’s postulates?

A

Examination of specific virulence factors or genes in disease

63
Q

What is an endogenous source of infection

A

Infection originating from within the animal

64
Q

What is epizootic/epidemic

A

Disease spreading within a short time span to a large number of animals

65
Q

What is enzootic/endemic

A

The habitual presence in a certain geographical area

66
Q

Horizontal transmission

A

Transmission of an infection from another animal or the environment

67
Q

Vertical transmission

A

Transmission of an infection from parent to offspring via germ-line, in utero or milk

68
Q

What is Iatrogenic transmission

A

Infections transmitted from human interference

69
Q

What is nosocomial transmission

A

Infections acquired during hospitalization

70
Q

What is the challenge dose

A

The number of micro-organisms that is inoculated

71
Q

What is the infective dose

A

The number of micro-organisms required to produce disease

72
Q

List three sites of bacterial entry

A

Inhalation, uro-genital, mucous membranes

73
Q

List five functions of cell-wall associated proteins in bacterial pathogenesis

A
  1. Adhere to matrix proteins (like fibrinogen)
  2. Help with biofilm formation
  3. Evasion of host immune defenses
  4. Nutrient acquisition
  5. Invasion
74
Q

What is acquired/induced tolerance

A

Where tolerance to external antigens can be created by manipulation of the immune system

75
Q

Give one example of low-antigenicity

A

Pasteurella - have a thick layer of HA on their capsule so the host won’t recognize it

76
Q

Give one example of inhibition of phagocytosis

A

Long O antigen on gram-negative bacteria - when phagocyte binds its really far away from the cell surface

77
Q

Give one example of inhibition of inflammation

A

IL-10 secreted by mycobacterial infected macrophage
Immunosuppressive cytokine that inhibits further macrophage activation

78
Q

Give one example of inhibition of chemotaxis

A

CHIPS - produced by staphylococcus
Blocks action of C5a

79
Q

Give one example of phagocyte killing

A

Salmonella (using SPI1) induces programmed cell death

80
Q

Give one example of intracellular survival

A

M. tuberculosis prevents phagolysosome fusion by release bacterial cell wall components to modify the lysosomal membrane

81
Q

Give one exampleof concealment

A

Staph and strep bind IgG the wrong way so that phagocytes cannot bind

82
Q

Give one example of antigenic variation

A

Salmonella switches its surface antigens (especially the flagellin, H antigen)

83
Q

Give one example of extracellular products for immune evasion

A

Secreted antigens - staphylococcal teichoic acid bind opsonin’s so that it prevents their interaction with the actual bacteria

84
Q

List 3 forms of direct damage

A

Metabolic, cytolytic, extracellular enzymes

85
Q

List 2 subclasses of exotoxins

A

Membrane damaging and cellular modifying

86
Q

List 2 examples of cellular modifying exotoxins (AB toxin)

A

E. coli LT toxin and C. diphtheria

87
Q

How does LPS act as an endotoxin

A

A lysed gram negative cell will release LPS which will bind to LPS binding protein, this complex will bind to a macrophage which causes it to release inflammatory cytokines and initiating blood clotting factors

88
Q

What function does the mycolic acid in mycobacteria cell wall provide for pathogenicity

A

Resists phagocytic digestion

89
Q

What is a key feature of mycobacteria pathogenesis

A

They can survive inside macrophages and dendritic cells

90
Q

How does IFN-gamma participate in granuloma formation to mycobacteria

A

It helps activated macrophages and stimulates phagolysosome fusion so it kills the bacterial cells - this causes caseous necrosis inside the granuloma

91
Q

Define sensitivity

A

The probability that a truly infected animal will test positive

92
Q

Define specificity

A

The probability that an uninfected animal will test negative

93
Q

Which strep bacteria is a causative agent of summer mastitis

A

Strep dysgalactiae

94
Q

Which strep bacteria is a causative agent of environmental mastitis

A

Strep uberis

95
Q

Define the three forms of haemolysis seen by strep species

A

Alpha - incomplete, green zone
Beta - complete clear zone
Gamma - no haemolysis

96
Q

Classification of strep species is generally based on what?

A

Haemolysis, cell wall antigens and sugar fermentation

97
Q

Which virulence factor is likely responsible for antigenic variation in S. equi supsp equi

A

M protein

98
Q

Which streptolysin is oxygen stable?

A

SLS

99
Q

Which streptococcal virulence factor is a superantigen

A

Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxin

100
Q

What is a major clinical sign of later infection with strangles

A

Lymphadenopathy

101
Q

What is an elementary body

A

Extracellular infective stage of Chlamyidae

102
Q

What is a reticulate body

A

Non-infective intracellular replicative stage of Chlamydiae

103
Q

What does the T3SS of chlyamdia do

A

Injects the effector protein TARP to induce host cell actin remodeling and get inside the cell

104
Q

List 2 chlamyidae species with proven zoonotic transmission

A

C. abortus and C. psittaci

105
Q

Is chlamydia intracellular or extracellular?

A

Intracellular

106
Q

What are two major clinical presentations of chlamydia infection

A

Pneumonia and conjunctivitis (ocular infection)

107
Q

What is the most common chlamydial infection in sheep/which species is associated with koalas

A

Chlamydia pecorum

108
Q

What is protective immunity

A

Host immune response stops the disease from occurring but the infectious agent is still there

109
Q

What is sterile immunity

A

The host immune system eradicates the pathogen from the body

110
Q

Name three species of clostridia to cause histiotoxic infections and the name of their disease

A
  1. C. novyi - black’s disease of sheep
  2. C. chauvoei - black leg
  3. C. perfringens - gangrene
111
Q

Name two species of clostridia to cause enteropathogenic disease

A
  1. C. botulinum
  2. C. perfringens
112
Q

What is characteristic of C. tetani spores

A

Drumstick shape

113
Q

What are two major groups of histotoxic clostridia toxins

A

Lecithinase and necrotising

114
Q

What is different about C. tetani infection and C. botulinum infection (in terms of clinical presentation)

A

C. tetani prevents the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters so there is an overstimulation of the motor neurons in the CNS
C. botulinum prevents the fusion of synapse vesicles at the neuromuscular junction preventing the release of ACh so there is a lack of stimulation

115
Q

Which type of C. perfringens causes enterotoxaemia

A

Type D

116
Q

Which type of C. perfringens causes dysentery

A

Type B/C

117
Q

Which type(s) of C. botulinum primarily affects animals

A

Types C and D

118
Q

Salmonella: LF or NLF

A

Non-lactose fermenting

119
Q

What do salmonella use as their TEA

A

Tetrathionate

120
Q

What are two non-host adapted strains of salmonella

A

S. typhimurium and S. enteriditis

121
Q

What is the most common salmonella serovar isolated from pigs

A

S. typhimurium

122
Q

What is are primary functions of the T3SSs of salmonella

A

T3SS-1 : inject effectors to induce cytoskeletal rearrangement
T3SS-2 : secretes proteins to prevent assembly of the phagolysosome

123
Q

Name 3 disease syndromes causes by salmonella

A

Enteritis, septicemia, abortion

Animal Body 2 (6 decks)

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