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461 - Foundations Exam 2 > Bacterial, Viral, Fungal, and Parasitic Infections - ATI Chapter 56 > Flashcards

Bacterial, Viral, Fungal, and Parasitic Infections - ATI Chapter 56 Flashcards

1
Q

______ are the micro-organisms or microbes that cause infections.

A

Pathogens

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2
Q

_____ is the ability of a pathogen to invade the host and cause disease.

A

Virulence

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3
Q

_____ is a common viral infection that erupts years after exposure to chickenpox and invades a specific nerve tract.

A

Herpes zoster i

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4
Q

_______ is the most common type of pathogen (Staphylococcus aureus, Escherichia coli, Mycobacterium tuberculosis)

A

bacteria

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5
Q

______ are organisms that use the host’s genetic machinery to reproduce (rhinovirus, HIV, hepatitis, herpes zoster, herpes simplex)

A

viruses

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6
Q

____ are molds and yeasts (Candida albicans, Aspergillus)

A

fungi

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7
Q

_____ are protein particles that have the ability to cause infections (Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease).

A

prions

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8
Q

____ are organisms that live on and often cause harm to a host organism.

A

parasites

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9
Q

Malaria and toxoplasmosis are examples of

A

protozoa

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10
Q

Worms: flatworms, roundworms are examples of

A

Helminths

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11
Q

Schistosomes are examples of

A

Flukes

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12
Q

Lice, mites, ticks are examples of

A

Arthropods

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13
Q

The infection process (________) includes the following.

A

chain of infection

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14
Q

______ of infections include bacteria, viruses, fungus, prion and parasites.

A

causative agent

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15
Q

Examples of ______ of infection include humans, animals, food, water, soil, insects, and fomites.

A

reservoir

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16
Q

Portals of exit from (means leaving) the host

A 
respiratory tract
gastrointestinal tract
genitourinary tract
skin/mucous membranes
blood/body fluids
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17
Q

HIV and hepatitis B and C exit the body (portal of exit) via ______.

A

blood/body fluids

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18
Q

Herpes simplex virus and varicella exit the body (portal of exit) via ______.

A

skin/mucous membranes

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19
Q

Escherichia coli, herpes simplex virus (type 1), HIV exit the body (portal of exit) via _______.

A

genitourinary tract

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20
Q

Shigella, Salmonella enteritidis, Salmonella typhi, hepatitis A, C. diff exit the body (portal of exit) via ______.

A

gastrointestinal tract

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21
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Parainfluenza virus exit the body (portal of exit) via ______.

A

respiratory tract

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22
Q

Modes of transmissions

A

contact
droplet
airborne
vector-borne

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23
Q

Contact modes of transmission

A

direct physical contact
indirect contact with a vehicle of transmission
fecal-oral transmission

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24
Q

Person to person transmission is known as _____ contact.

A

direct physical

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25
Q

Inanimate objects, water, food, and blood are modes of transmission known as _______.

A

indirect contact with a vehicle of transmission

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26
Q

Handling food after using a restroom and failing to wash hands result in the _______.

A

fecal-oral transmission

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27
Q

_____ transmission is when large droplets travel through the air up to 3 to 6 feet (sneezing, coughing, and talking).

A

droplet

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28
Q

_____ transmission is when small droplets remain int he air and can travel extended distances depending on airflow (sneezing and coughing)

A

airborne

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29
Q

_____ transmission occurs when animals or insects as intermediaries (ticks transmit Lyme disease; mosquitoes transmit West Nile virus and malaria).

A

vector-borne

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30
Q

The portal of ______ to the host is often the same as the portal of exit.

A

entry

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31
Q

A _______ has compromised defense mechanisms (immunosuppression, breaks in skin) leave the host more susceptible to infections.

A

susceptible host

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32
Q

______ allows the body to restrict entry or immediately respond to a foreign organisms (antigen) through the activation of phagocytic cells, complement and inflammation.

A

nonspecific innate - native immunity

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33
Q

______ immunity provides temporary immunity but does not have memory of past exposures.

A

nonspecific innate-native

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34
Q

Intact skin is the body’s _____ of defense against microbial invasion.

A

first line

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35
Q

The skin, mucous membranes, secretions, enzymes, phagocytic cells, and _______ work in concert to prevent infections.

A

protective proteins

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36
Q

Phagocyic cells (neutrophils, eosinophils, macrophages), the complement system, and ______ are involved in the inflammatory response.

A

interferons

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37
Q

An ________ localizes the area of microbial invasion and prevents its spread.

A

inflammatory response

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38
Q

_______ allows the body to make antibodies in response to a foreign organism (antigen).

A

specific adaptive immunity

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39
Q

Specific adaptive immunity requires time to react to _____.

A

antigens

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40
Q

_____ immunity provides permanent immunity due to memory of past exposures.

A

specific adaptive

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41
Q

______ immunity involves B and T lymphocytes.

A

specific adaptive

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42
Q

Specific adaptive immunity produces specific ______ against specific antigens (immunoglobulins: IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM)

A

antibodies

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43
Q

The 5 immunoglobulins produced via specific adaptive immunity

A 
IgA
IgD
IgE
IgG
IgM
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44
Q

Environmental Risk Factors

A

excessive alcohol consumption
nicotine use: smoking, smokeless tobacco
malnutrition

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45
Q

Medication therapy (immunosuppressive agents) Risk Factors

A

glucocorticosteroids

antineoplastics

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46
Q

Chronic disease Risk factors

A 
Diabetes mellitus
Cancer
HIV, AIDS
Peripheral vascular disease
Chronic pulmonary disease
Heart failure
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47
Q

Older adults are at increased risk for _______.

A

infection

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48
Q

Older adults are at increased risk for infection because of the slowed response to ______.

A

antibiotic therapy

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49
Q

Older adults are at increased risk for infection because of the slowed ______: indicators of infection are more difficult to identify, resulting in possible delays in diagnosis and treatment.

A

immune response

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50
Q

Older adults are at increased risk for infection because of the loss of _______ and thinning of the skin.

A

subcutaneous tissue

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51
Q

Older adults are at increased risk for infection because of the decreased vascularity and slowed ______.

A

wound healing

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52
Q

Older adults are at increased risk for infection because of the decreased cough and ____ reflexes.

A

gag

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53
Q

Older adults are at increased risk for infection because of the ________ such as diabetes mellitus, COPD, neurological or musculoskeletal impairments)

A

chronic illnesses

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54
Q

Older adults are at increased risk for infection because of the decreased _____ acid production.

A

gastric

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55
Q

Older adults are at increased risk for infection because of the _____ mobility.

A

decreased

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56
Q

Older adults are at increased risk for infection because of the bowel/bladder ______.

A

incontinence

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57
Q

Older adults are at increased risk for infection because of _______.

A

dementia

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58
Q

Older adults are at increased risk for infection because of the greater incidence of _____ devices (urinary catheters, feeding tubes, tracheostomies, intravenous lines)

A

invasive

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59
Q

Common indications of _____ are not always present in the older adult client. Altered mental status, agitation, or incontinence can be present instead.

A

infection

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60
Q

Expected findings with infections

A

chills

sore throat

fatigue and malaise

change in level of consciousness, nuchal rigidity, photophobia, headache

nausea, vomiting, anorexia, abdominal cramping and diarrhea

localized pain or discomfort

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61
Q

Physical assessment findings with an infection

A

Fever

Increased pulse and respiratory rate, decreased blood pressure

localized redness and edema

enlarged lymph nodes

dyspnea, cough, purulent sputum, and crackles in lung fields.

dysuria, urinary frequency, hematuria, and pyuria

rash, skin lesions, purulent wound drainage, and erythema

dysphagia, hyperemia, and enlarged tonsils

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62
Q

Lab tests for infection

A

white blood cell (WBC) count with differential

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Immunoglobulin electrophoresis

Antibody screening tests

Antibody screening tests

Auto-antibody screening tests

Antigen tests

Stool for ova and parasites

Culture and Sensitivity

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63
Q

An elevated _____ is an indicator of infection (expected reference range is 5k to 10k /mm^3).

A

white blood cell (WBC) count

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64
Q

The differential with a WBC identifies specific types of WBC’s that can assist in diagnosis of the ______ of infection or the specific type of pathogen.

A

severity

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65
Q

The rate at which ______ settle out of plasma is determined by the Erythocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).

A

red blood cells

66
Q

An elevated ______ is an indicator of an active inflammatory process or infection (expected reference range is 15 to 20 mm/hr)

A

ESR

67
Q

An increase indicates in ESR indicates an ______ inflammatory process or infection.

A

active

68
Q

The immunoglobulin electrophoresis determines the presence and quantity of specific ________.

A

immunoglobulins (IgG, IgA, IgM)

69
Q

_______ is used to detect hypersensitivity disorders, autoimmune disorders, chronic viral infections, immunodeficiency, multiple myeloma, and intrauterine infections.

A

immunoglobulin electrophoresis

70
Q

______ tests detect the presence of antibodies against specific causative agents (bacteria, fungi, viruses, parasites).

A

antibody screening tests

71
Q

A _______ antibody screening test indicates that the client has been exposed to and developed antibodies to a specific pathogen, but it does not provide information about whether or not the client is currently infected (HIV antibodies)

A

positive

72
Q

_____ detect the presence of antibodies against a person’s own DNA (self-cells).

A

auto-antibody screening tests

73
Q

Auto-antibody screening tests detect the presence of antibodies against ______ is associated with autoimmune conditions (systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis).

A

self cells

74
Q

______ detect the presence of a specific pathogen (HIV).

A

antigen tests

75
Q

Antigen tests are used to identify certain infections or _____.

A

disorders.

76
Q

_______ detects presence of ova and parasites, such as hookworm ova in stool.

A

stool for ova and parasites test

77
Q

_____ separate stool specimens usually are collected for stool for ova and parasites test.

A

three

78
Q

Each specimen must be transported to the lab while it is still _____ for the stool for ova and parasites test.

A

warm

79
Q

A _____ is a microscopic exam to identify an infecting organism.

A

culture

80
Q

Cultures can be obtained from blood, sputum, urine, wound and _____.

A

soft tissue

81
Q

Cultures should be obtained before any _____ is initiated.

A

antibiotic

82
Q

The sensitivity report indicates which antibiotics are _____ against the identified organism.

A

effective

83
Q

X-rays, computed tomography (CT) scan, ______ , and biopsies are used to determine the presence of infection, abscesses, and lesions.

A

magnetic resonance imagining (MRI)

84
Q

A _____ is a nuclear scan that uses a radioactive substance to identify hot spots of WBC’s within the client’s body.

A

Gallium scan

85
Q

Radioactive gallium citrate is injected intravenously and accumulates in areas where _____ is present.

A

inflammation

86
Q

Patient centered care involves assessing the presence of risk factors for ____.

A

infection

87
Q

Patient centered care involves assessing recent _____ or exposure to an infectious disease.

A

travel

88
Q

Patient centered care involves assessing _____ that can put the client at increased risk.

A

behaviors

89
Q

Patient centered care involves assessing increased temp, heart and respiratory rate, thirst, and _____.

A

anorexia

90
Q

Patient centered care involves assessing the presence of _____, which occur when temperature is rising, and diaphoresis, which occurs when temperature is decreasing.

A

chills

91
Q

Patient centered care involves assessing the presence of _______ (greater than 105.8F) which can cause brain and organ damage.

A

hyperpyrexia

92
Q

Patient centered care involves implementing infection control measures which include performing frequent ______ to prevent transmission of infection to other clients.

A

hand hygiene

93
Q

Patient centered care involves implementing infection control measures which include maintaining a clean _____.

A

environment

94
Q

Patient centered care involves implementing infection control measures which include performing wound care measures, such as ______.

A

sterile dressing changes

95
Q

Patient centered care involves implementing infection control measures which include the use of _______ (gloves, masks, gowns, goggles)

A

personall protective equipment/barriers

96
Q

Patient centered care involves implementing infection control measures which include encouraging recommended ______.

A

immunizations

97
Q

Patient centered care involves implementing infection control measures which include the implementation of _______ as needed.

A

protective precautions

98
Q

Patient centered care involves implementing infection control measures which include encouraging adequate rest and _____.

A

nutrition

99
Q

Patient centered care involves implementing infection control measures which include providing _____ activities if needed.

A

diversional

100
Q

Patient centered care involves implementing infection control measures which encourageme of ____ intake or maintaining intravenous fluid replacement to prevent dehydration.

A

increased fluid

101
Q

Patient centered care involves implementing infection control measures which protect and maintain the client’s _____ (skin, mucous membranes)

A

protective barriers

102
Q

____ protective precautions that are implemented for all clients.

A

standard

103
Q

You need to use ____ precautions for C diff, herpes simplex virus, impetigo, MRSA, and VRSA.

A

contact

104
Q

You need ____ precautions for Haemophilus influenzae type B (Hib), pertussis, mumps, rubella, plague, streptococcal pneumonia, and meningoccoccal pneumonia.

A

droplet

105
Q

You need _____ precautions for measles, varicella, and tuberculosis.

A

airborne

106
Q

Acetaminophen and aspirin are used for fever and discomfort as prescribed and known as _____.

A

antipyretics

107
Q

When using antipyretics monitor fever to determine effectiveness of _____.

A

medications

108
Q

When using antipyretics document temperature ______ on the medical record for trending.

A

fluctuations

109
Q

______ meds kill pathogens or prevent their growth.

A

antimicrobial therapy

110
Q

____ are given for worm infestations.

A

anthelmintics

111
Q

There are currently no treatments for _____.

A

prions

112
Q

Administer anitmicrobial therapy as ____.

A

prescribed

113
Q

When using antimicrobial meds monitor for medication ______ (reduced fever, increased level of comfort, decreasing WBC count)

A

effectiveness

114
Q

Maintain a medication ______ with antimicrobial therapy to assure consistent therapeutic blood levels of the antibiotic.

A

schedule

115
Q

Patient education in regards to infection should include (3)

A

any infection control measures needed at home

self-administration of medication therapy

complications that need to be reported immediately

116
Q

______ should receive the H. influenzae type b (Hib) vaccine.

A

infants

117
Q

Adults and _______ at risk should receive the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV).

A

older adults

118
Q

____ should receive the meningococcal vaccine on schedule and prior to living in a residential or communal setting.

A

adolescents

119
Q

_____ are becoming less effective for some strains of pathogens, due to the pathogen’s ability to adapt and become resistant to previously sensitive antibiotics. This significantly _____ the number of antibiotics that are effective against the pathogen.

A

antimicrobials

limit

120
Q

Use of antibiotics, especially _______ antibiotics, has significantly decreased to prevent new strains from evolving.

A

broad-spectrum

121
Q

____ is a strain of S. aureus that is resistant to all antibiotics, except vancomycin.

A

MRSA

122
Q

____ is a strain of S. aureus that is resistant to vancomycin but so far is sensitive to other antibiotics specific to the strain.

A

VRSA

123
Q

Monitor antimicrobial levels and ensure that therapeutic levels are ____.

A

maintained.

124
Q

Implement precautions to prevent the spread of _____, in particular with medication-resistant infections.

A

infection

125
Q

Patient education about medication-resistant infections should include making sure they know to _____ the full course of antimicrobial therapy.

A

complete

126
Q

Patient education about medication-resistant infections should include making sure they know to avoid the _____ of antimicrobials.

A

overuse

127
Q

______ is a systemic inflammatory response syndrome resulting from the body’s response to a serious infection, usually bacterial (peritonitis, meningitis, pneumonia, wound infections and UTIs)

A

sepsi

128
Q

Sepsis is a potentially _____ complication that can lead to widespread inflammation, blood clotting, organ failure, and shock.

A

life-threatening

129
Q

Blood cultures definitively diagnose _____.

A

sepsis

130
Q

Systemic _____ are prescribed accordingly for sepsis.

A

antimicrobials

131
Q

Vasopressors and ______ may be prescribed for shock and blood clotting manifestations with sepsis.

A

anticoagulants

132
Q

Mechanical ventilation, dialysis, and other interventions can be needed for treatment of ________ with sepsis.

A

specific organ failure

133
Q

Risk Factors for Sepsis

A

Very young age
Very old age
Weakened Immune system
sever injuries (trauma)

134
Q

Herpes zoster is a ____ infection.

A

viral

135
Q

Herpes zoster initially produces chickenpox, after which the virus lies dormant int he ______ of the sensory cranial and spinal nerves. It is reactivated as shingles later in life.

A

dorsal root ganglia

136
Q

____ is usually preceded by a prodromal period of several days, during which pain, itching, tingling, or burning can occur along the involved dermatome.

A

shingles

137
Q

Shingles can be very painful and _____.

A

debilitating

138
Q

Risk factors for Herpes zoster (Shingles)

A 
concurrent illness
stress
compromise to the immune system
fatigue
poor nutritional status
139
Q

Possible _________ makes older adult clients more susceptible to herpes zoster infection. Assess the client carefully for typical and atypical indications of infections.

A

immunocompromise

140
Q

Expected finding with Herpes zoster (Shingles)

A

paresthesia (tingling, prickling)

pain that is unilateral and extends horizontally along a dematome

141
Q

With ______ during a physical assessment you might find vesicular, unilateral rash (the rash and lesions occur on the skin area innervated by the infected nerve)

A

Herpes zoster (Shingles)

142
Q

With ______ during a physical assessment you might find if the eye is infected there are changes or a loss of vision.

A

Herpes zoster (Shingles)

143
Q

With ______ during a physical assessment you might find rash that is erythematous, vesicular, pustular, or _____ (depending on the stage).

A 
Herpes zoster (shingles)
crusting
144
Q

Herpes zoster (shingles) presents in a physical exam as a rash that usually lasts _____.

A

several weeks

145
Q

With Herpes zoster (shingles) there is usually a ____ fever.

A

low-grade

146
Q

_____ provide a definitive diagnosis of Herpes zoster (Shingles) (but the virus grows so slowly that cultures are often of minimal diagnostic use)

A

cultures

147
Q

Occasionally, and _______ assay can be done for Herpes zoster (Shingles)

A

immunofluorescence

148
Q

For a patient with Herpes zoster (Shingles) you want to assess/monitor (5)

A 
pain
condition of lesion
presence of fever
neurologic complications
indications of infections
149
Q

Use an air mattress or _____ for pain prevention/control of affected areas for patients with Herpes zoster (Shingles)

A

bed cradle

150
Q

With ______ you need to isolate the client until the vesicles have crusted over.

A

Herpes zoster (Shingles)

151
Q

With ______ you need to maintain strict wound care precautions.

A

Herpes zoster (Shingles)

152
Q

With Herpes zoster (Shingles) the virus can be transmitted through _____ causing chickenpox. Avoid exposing the client to infants, pregnant women who have not had chickenpox, and clients who are immunocompromised.

A

direct contact

153
Q

Moisten dressings with cool tap water or 5% aluminum acetate (Burow’s solution) and apply to the affected skin for ___ to ___ , four to six times per day as prescribed for patient’s with Herpes zoster (Shingles).

A

30 to 60 minutes

154
Q

With Herpes zoster (Shingles) use _____, such as calamine lotion, or recommend oatmeal baths to help relieve itching and discomfort.

A

lotions

155
Q

For patients with Herpes zoster (Shingles) administer _____ as prescribed.

A

medications

156
Q

_____ (NSAIDs, narcotics) enhance client comfort.

A

Analgesics

157
Q

If medications are started soon after the rash appears with Herpes zoster, ______, such as acyclovir, can decrease the severity of the infection and shorten and clinical course.

A

antiviral agents

158
Q

Recommend zoster vaccine live for clients _______ to prevent shingles. This vaccine does not treat active shingles infections.

A

60 and older

159
Q

Postherpetic neuralgia is a complication of Herpes zoster that is characterized by pain that persists for longer than ____ following the resolution of the vesicular rash.

A

1 month

160
Q

Postherpetic neuralgia is a complication of Herpes zoster which a physician may prescribe _______.

A

tricyclic antidepressants

161
Q

Postherpetic neuralgia is a complication of Herpes zoster that is common in adults older than _____.

A

60

461 - Foundations Exam 2 (10 decks)

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