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Bacteriology > Bacterial Structure, Genetics, and Metabolism > Flashcards

Bacterial Structure, Genetics, and Metabolism Flashcards

1
Q

What are the metabolic processes?

A

Fueling
Biosynthesis
Polymerization
Assembly

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2
Q

A metabolic product of metabolic reactions

A

Glucose

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3
Q

building blocks made from biosynthetic reactions

A

Fatty acids
Sugars
Amino acids
Nucleotides

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4
Q

Macromolecules that are a result of Polymerization

A

Lipid
Lipopolysaccharide
Glycogen
Murein
Protein
RNA
DNA

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5
Q

Macromolecule assembled structures

A

Inclusions
Envelope
Flagella
Pili
Cytosol
Polyribosomes
Nucleoid

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6
Q

Utilization of metabolic pathways involved in Acquisition of nutrients from the environment, Production of precursor metabolites, and Energy production

A

Fueling

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7
Q

Involved in the production of precursor metabolites

A

Embden-Meyerhof Pathway or EMP (Glycolysis)
Tri-carboxylic Acid Cycle (Kreb’s Cycle)

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8
Q

Nutritional Requirements for Bacterial Metabolism

A

Carbon
Nitrogen
Water
ATP (energy)
Inorganic Compounds

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9
Q

Carbon is taken up differently on classification; for an AUTOTROPH they take up?

A

Carbon Dioxide

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10
Q

Carbon is taken up differently on classification; for an HETEROTROPH they take up?

A

Organic compounds

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11
Q

Organisms that require additional nutrients to grow

A

Fastidious Organisms

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12
Q

Fastidious Organism that require Salt

A

Vibrio spp.

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13
Q

Fastidious Organism that require (X Factor) and NAD (V Factor)

A

Haemophilus spp.

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14
Q

Fastidious Organism that require Cytsteine

A

Legionella pneumophilia

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15
Q

What precursor metabolite does this describe?

glycogen, Enter PPP to form ribose-5-phosphate

A

Glucose 6-phosphate

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16
Q

What precursor metabolite does this describe?

Enter PPP to form Ribose-5-phosphate

A

Fructose 6-phosphate

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17
Q

What precursor metabolite does this describe?

NAD Production, Re-enter glycolysis

A

Ribose-5-phosphate

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18
Q

What precursor metabolite does this describe?

aromatic amino acids

A

Erythrose 4-phosphate (from Ribose-5-Phosphate)

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19
Q

What precursor metabolite does this describe?

Ribulose-5-phosphate, Serine

A

3-Phosphoglycerate

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20
Q

What precursor metabolite does this describe?

enter TCA

A

Pyruvate

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21
Q

What precursor metabolite does this describe?

source of Energy in Phosphotransferase System

A

Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)

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21
Q

Precursor Metabolites produced from EMP

A

Glucose 6-phosphate
Fructose 6-phosphate
Ribose-5-phosphate
Erythrose 4-phosphate (from Ribose-5-Phosphate)
3-Phosphoglycerate
Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)
Pyruvate

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22
Q

Precursor Metabolites produced from TCA

A

Acetyl CoA
a-Ketoglutarate
Succinyl CoA
Oxaloacetate

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23
Q

What precursor metabolite does this describe?

Fatty Acids

A

Acetyl CoA

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24
Q

What precursor metabolite does this describe?

Nitrogen transporter, Transamination (Ammonium + Glutamate)

A

a-Ketoglutarate

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25
Q

What precursor metabolite does this describe?

Ketone Formation

A

Succinyl CoA

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26
Q

What precursor metabolite does this describe?

Fatty Acids, Aspartate, Enters Glyoxylate Cycle

A

Oxaloacetate

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27
Q

How Energy Production may take place?

A

Substrate Phosphorylation from EMP & TCA
Oxidative Phosphorylation (Electron Transport)
Fermentation of Pyruvate

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28
Q

What is converted in Oxidative Phosphorylation (Electron Transport)

A

Conversion of NADH/NADPH/FADH2 and Oxygen to ATP

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29
Q

What happens in the Fermentation of Pyruvate

A

Ethanol Production or Lactic Acid Production
Acetoin Production

Mixed-Acid Fermentation (Lactic Acid, Ethanol, Formic Acid, Acetic Acid)

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30
Q

Involves anabolic reactions that utilize precursor products in
dozens of pathways to produce building blocks

A

Biosynthesis

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31
Q

Involves anabolic reactions that bring together the building
blocks to form macromolecules which ASSEMBLE to form the different cellular structures

A

Polymerization

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32
Q

Nucleic Acids are polymers consisting of long chains of monomers called

A

Nucleotides.

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33
Q

Nucleotide units consist of a Nitrogen heterocyclic base, a pentose sugar, and a __________ residue.

A

Phosphate

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34
Q

are derivatives of pyrimidine and purine bases.

A

Nucleotide Bases

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35
Q

Properties of Nucleotide Bases

A

Aromatic
Strongly absorbs UV Light
Exhibits keto-enol tautomerism

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36
Q

are nucleotide bases bound to a pentose
sugar by N-glycosidic bond

A

Nucleoside

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37
Q

a nucleoside with one or more phosphate groups covalently bound (ester bond) to the 3’- or 5’-position
of the pentose.

A

Nucleotide

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38
Q

Bonds between bases on opposite chains determine the alignment of the helix, with the paired bases lying
in planes perpendicular to the helix axis.

A

Hydrogen Bonds

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39
Q

The chains of Nucleic acids run in antiparallel directions, one 3’ to 5’ and the other 5’ to 3

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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40
Q

This cell has circular DNA

A

Prokaryotic

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41
Q

This cell has linear DNA

A

Eukaryotic

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42
Q

Each subunit (segment of the DNA wrapped in a histone) is a beadlike structure called

A

Nucleosome

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43
Q

Bacterial structure has a cell architecture that follows that of a Prokaryotic cell’s design

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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44
Q

Mode of reproduction by bacteria and prokaryotes

A

Binary fission

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45
Q

Site of Energy Production by Prokaryotes

A

Cytoplasmic Membrane

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46
Q

Site of Energy Production by Eukaryotes

A

Mitochondria

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47
Q

Match this Ribosome unit with it corresponding type of cell

70S

A

Prokaryotes

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48
Q

Match this Ribosome unit with it corresponding type of cell

80S

A

Eukaryotes

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49
Q

Though prokaryotes do have cell walls, what are the two prokaryotes that have this structure absent?

A

Mycoplasma
Ureaplasma

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50
Q

Part of the cell that determines gram reaction

A

Cell envelope

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51
Q

Special gate channels involved in antibiotic
resistance mechanism

A

Porins

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52
Q

are bridges between structures an ENCHANCER that enhance the binding of crystal violet to cell wall

A

Mordants like Iodine

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53
Q

Stain that Attaches primarily to the peptidoglycan -
for gram positive. For gram negative it
binds to the outer layer.

A

Crystal Violet

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54
Q

compounds that dissolve the macromolecule lipids in the outer membrane together with crystal violet

A

Alcoholic compounds like ethanol

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55
Q

Most crucial step in gram staining

A

Decolorization using alcohol

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56
Q

Stain used to visualize gram-negative bacteria

A

Safranin O

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57
Q

Bacteria that stains purple

A

Gram +

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58
Q

Bacteria that stains pink

A

Gram -

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59
Q

may not stain properly in the staining procedure due to the presence of mycolic acid

A

Acid Fast Bacteria

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60
Q

They are hydrophobic and WEAKLY gram +

A

Acid Fast Bacteria

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61
Q

Contains Lipoarabinomannan and Phosphatidyl Mannosides along with Mycolic Acid

A

Acid Fast Bacteria

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62
Q

restricts antibiotics and toxins from entering bacteria cell and responsible for the serotyping of bacteria

A

O Antigen or O specific polysaccharide

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63
Q

Folded areas of cell membrane and site of enzymatic activity necessary for energy production

A

Mesosomes

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64
Q

Point of attachment of a nucleoid

A

Mesosomes

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65
Q

also called K antigen, cell coat, Pericellular matrix

A

Glycocalyx

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66
Q

Viewed by negative staining in India Ink or Hiss stain, which stains it white

A

Capsule (Glycocalyx)

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67
Q

➢ Similar to capsule but diffused
➢ May adhere to prosthetic implants and form biofilms
➢ Loose and flowing

A

Slime Layer

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68
Q

➢ Aggregates of microorganisms housed in a complex
polysaccharide matrix
➢ Cohesive and adheres to surfaces

A

Biofilms

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69
Q

Cellular appendage for conjugation or genetic material transfer

A

Sex Pili

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70
Q

Responsible for locomotion

A

Flagellum

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71
Q

Type of flagellar arrangement that has no flagella

A

Atrichous

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72
Q

Type of flagellar arrangement that has a flagellum on one side only

A

Monotrichous

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73
Q

Type of flagellar arrangement that has 2
flagellum 1 at both ends.

A

Amphitrichous

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74
Q

Type of flagellar arrangement that is surrounded by flagella

A

Peritrichous

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75
Q

Type of flagellar arrangement that has a lot of flagellum at one side

A

Cephalotrichous

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76
Q

Type of flagellar arrangement that has many flagellum at both sides

A

Lophotrichous

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77
Q

Site of protein synthesis in bacteria and contains granular polysomes

A

Cytoplasm or Cytosol

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78
Q

❖ Small, Resting, Inactive (Dormant)
❖ Asexual Spores
❖ Highly Resistant to Unfavorable Condition

A

Endospores

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79
Q

Endospores are visualized using this technique

A

Schaeffer-Fulton Technique

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80
Q

Functions as nutrient storage

A

Inclusion bodies

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81
Q

Lipid rich inclusion bodies

A

Much’s granules

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82
Q

Inclusion bodies that are metachromatic bodies (also known as Volutin granules) made of polyphosphates

A

Babes-Ernst granules

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83
Q

Inclusion bodies that store Glycogen

A

Halberstaedter-Prowazeck Bodies

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84
Q

Classify these granules/inclusion bodies with their corresponding organism

Much’s granules

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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85
Q

Classify these granules/inclusion bodies with their corresponding organism

Babes-Ernst granules metachromatic bodies
(also known as Volutin granules) made of
polyphosphates

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

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86
Q

Classify these granules/inclusion bodies with their corresponding organism

Halberstaedter-Prowazeck Bodies-Glycogen

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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87
Q

What kind of cell do these describe?

  • Do not have membrane bound organelles
  • Does not have a true nucleus
  • Density of ribosomes is 70S (Svedberg units), and this ribosome can be broken down to 50S and 30S.
  • Ribosome subunits play a critical role in the transcription and translation of the Central dogma
  • Has Circular DNA
  • Contains Extrachromosomal DNA
A

Prokaryotic cell

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88
Q

DNA that has no physiological significance in the cellular architecture of Bacteria), therefore it exists as an independent structure. Ex. Plasmids

A

Extrachromosomal DNA

note: extra meaning that the bacteria do not die upon removal of extrachromosomal DNA

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89
Q

Cell that lacks mitochondria

A

Prokaryotic cell

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90
Q

All prokaryotes have cell walls?

TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

Ureaplasma and Mycoplasma are eubacteria that do NOT possess a cell wall

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91
Q

Cell that reproduces via Binary fission

A

Prokaryotic cell

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92
Q

Bacteria that only has proteins in its cell wall and the absence of peptidoglycans

A

Archaea

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93
Q

also known as TRUE bacteria

A

Eubacteria

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94
Q

They are Eukaryotic and Unicellular

A

Protozoans

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95
Q

They are Eukaryotic and Multicellular

A

Metazoans (worms)

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96
Q

Possess a cell wall like plants and bacteria, and they are also Filamentous

A

Fungi

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97
Q

They are Acellular nucleic acid

A

Virus

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98
Q

They are Acellular protein

A

Prions

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99
Q

Length of Bacterial cell

A

Range from 1um to 3um in length

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100
Q

Round shaped bacterial cell

A

Cocci

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101
Q

Rod shaped bacterial cell

A

Bacilli

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102
Q

Spiral or Helical shaped bacterial cell

A

Spirilla

103
Q

Consists of the membrane and structures surrounding the cytoplasm

Maintains selective permeability and cell shape

A

Bacterial Cell envelope

104
Q

Part of the bacterial cell envelope of Gram- bacteria that mimics the cell membrane

A

Outer membrane

105
Q

Also called a capsule

A

Glycocalyx

106
Q

Determines the Gram Staining characteristic of Bacteria

A

Cell Envelope

107
Q

Gram+ or Gram-?

Purple Stained

A

Gram+

108
Q

Gram+ or Gram-?

Pink stained

A

Gram-

109
Q

Gram+ or Gram-?

No outer membrane

A

Gram+

110
Q

Gram+ or Gram-?

Presence of outer membrane

A

Gram-

111
Q

Gram+ or Gram-?

Thick Cell Wall with more affinity to Crystal Violet stain

A

Gram+

112
Q

Gram+ or Gram-?

Thinner Cell Wall (maybe even a single layer) due to the presence of the Outer Membrane, therefore allowing Safranin O to stain it

A

Gram-

113
Q

Order the Gram Staining procedure

  1. Apply a Mordant like Iodine that enhances the binding of Crystal Violet to the cell wall
  2. Apply Crystal Violet the Primary stain binding to cell wall in Gram+ and Outer membrane in Gram-
  3. Apply a counter stain like Safranin O, which then binds to the thin cell wall of Gram- bacteria to produce the pinkish color since the outer membrane is no longer present
  4. Decolorize by adding the alcoholic compound Ethanol to dissolve the lipids in the outer membrane together with the binded Crystal Violet
A

2–>1–>4–>3

114
Q

are bridges between structures, it is an ENCHANCER that enhance the binding of crystal violet to cell wall

A

Mordants

115
Q

they dissolve the macromolecule lipids in the outer membrane together with crystal violet

A

Alcoholic compounds

116
Q

A bi-layered structure composed of lipopolysaccharide important in the virulence of Gram- bacteria

A

Outer Membrane

117
Q

Special gate channels (Porin Channels) may be found where?

A

Outer Membrane

118
Q

are important in antimicrobial resistance like in Pseudomonas that has an abundance of these channels

A

Porin channels

119
Q

Composed of 3 important domains
 O-specific polysaccharide
 Core polysaccharide
 Lipid A

A

Lipopolysaccharide

120
Q

What domain of Lipopolysaccharide is this?

 Also known as the O antigen, which is responsible for
serotypes that vary among Gram- organisms
 Restricts antibiotics and toxins from entering bacterial
cell
 Absent in some Gram- bacteria

A

O-specific polysaccharide

121
Q

What domain of Lipopolysaccharide is this?

 Bridge between the other 2 domains
 Built from monosaccharides arranged in linear and
branched structures

A

Core Polysaccharide

122
Q

What domain of Lipopolysaccharide is this?

 Most important domain
 Contains Endotoxin that causes fever and shock
 Too much Endotoxin will activate coagulation proteins
resulting in Disseminated Intravascular Coagulopathy
(DIC)
 The structure is located within or more internally than
the O antigen, hence it is not commonly used for
serotyping unlike the exposed O antigen

A

Lipid A

123
Q

A shorter chain or the loss of the O-specific polysaccharide or O antigen creates a what?

A

Lipo-oligosaccharide

124
Q

A layer composed of peptidoglycans

A

Cell wall or Murein Layer/Peptidoglycan Layer

125
Q

Consisting of glycans and short peptides that cross link with each other to form a mesh or lattice

A

Peptidoglycans

126
Q

Alternating series of Glycans (N-acetyl-glucosamine (NAG) and N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM) ) that carry short peptides

A

Peptidoglycans

127
Q

The glycan which carries short peptides

A

N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM)

128
Q

are responsible for cross linking with peptidoglycan sheets

A

Short peptide chains

129
Q

The NAD carried oligopeptide crosslinks with other NAM of other peptidoglycan chains (cross linked peptidoglycan chains forms the peptidoglycan layer)

TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

The oligopeptide is carried by NAM not NAD

130
Q

What structure is this in the cell wall of Gram+ bacteria?

 It is before the peptidoglycan chain
 It is attached to the cell wall (peptidoglycan) binded via
Anionic polymers

A

Wall Teichoic Acid

131
Q

Attracts Cations the confer flexibility of the cell wall

A

Anionic Polymers

132
Q

The anionic nature of Wall Teichoic Acid modulates susceptibility to cationic antibiotics

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

133
Q

What does this describe?

 Structure that runs perpendicular to peptidoglycan
sheets
 Linear polymers of polyglycerol or polyributol with
phosphates and a few amino acids and sugars

A

Teichoic acid

134
Q

What does this describe?

 Mimics NAM and NAD
 Has a Glycerol-3- Phosphate units (GroP) in the
outermost section
 N-Acetylmannosamine (ManNAc)
 N-acetylglucosamine-1-phosphate (GlcNAc)

A

Disaccharide linkage unit

135
Q

responsible for binding the wall teichoic acid to the peptidoglycan layer via a phosphodiester bond to the C6 hydroxyl of NAM in the peptidoglycan

A

The 1 phosphate group in N-acetylglucosamine-1-phosphate (GlcNAc)

136
Q

How Energy Production is achieved in Fueling of Bacterial Metabolism

A

via substrate level phophorylation

137
Q

the only phosphate that does not enter PPP

THIS IS THE END PRODUCT OF EMP

A

Ribose-5-phosphate

138
Q

Precursor metabolites play a role in Biosynthesis

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

139
Q

Associated with beta oxidation

A

Fatty Acids

140
Q

is when electrons become ATP, which is found in aerobes

A

Oxidatives

141
Q

The phase in the Bacterial growth curve where bacteria prepares to divide

A

Lag phase

142
Q

The phase in the Bacterial growth curve where active division occurs and is the most susceptible phase of bacteria to antibiotics and disinfectants

A

Log phase

143
Q

What does this describe?

 Attached to your bacterial cell membrane which is a lipid
bilayer
 It is similar to Endotoxins found in Gram- bacteria

A

LIPOTEICHOIC ACID

144
Q

Act as surface antigens to differentiate bacterial serotypes (Highly Immunogenic)

A

LIPOTEICHOIC ACID

145
Q

Consists of a polyglycerolphosphate (PGP) chain tethered to the bacterial cell membrane phospholipids via the glycolipid anchor

A

LIPOTEICHOIC ACID

146
Q

Induces septic shock similar to Lipid A found in Gram- bacteria therefore stimulating the immune system

A

LIPOTEICHOIC ACID

147
Q

This is the cell wall of what Gram Bacteria?

 Single layer of peptidoglycan
 Relies on the outer membrane for further protection
 Has a periplasmic space (periplasm)

A

GRAM NEGATIVE

148
Q

Contain Mycolic Acids which make gram-staining difficult

A

ACID FAST CELL WALL

149
Q

 Visualized by Acid Fast Stain
 Hydrophobic, Difficult to stain with Gram stain because of
its complex structure
 Has a waxy layer attached to the cell wall (Mycolic Acid

A

ACID FAST CELL WALL

150
Q

Lipoarabinomannan and Phosphatidyl Mannosides transverse the cytoplasm

TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

they transverse the cell membrane

151
Q

Acid Fast Baciili are Weakly Gram-Positive as sometimes it may stain purple

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

152
Q

the Mycolic acid present in Mycobacterium Tuberculosis is responsible for conferring the serpentine like appearance of Mycobacterium Tuberculosis under the microscope

A

Trehalose 6,6’-dimycolate (cord factor)

153
Q

 Found only in Gram- bacteria
 It is located in the space between peptidoglycan and the
bacterial cell membrane

A

Periplasmic Space

154
Q

The Periplasmic Space is the prokaryote counterpart of the Endoplasmic Reticulum

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

155
Q

 Also called the Pericellular Matrix/Cell coat/K antigen
 Gel-like envelope surrounding the bacterial cell

A

GLYCOCALYX

156
Q

The Glycocalyx is often seen as a capsule

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

157
Q

is an aggregate of microorganisms housed in a complex polysaccharide matrix that you can see with the naked eye. It is cohesive and adheres to surfaces like prosthetic implants

A

Biofilm

158
Q

What structure is being described?

 Highly organized matrix
 Prevents Phagocytosis (Antiphagocytic)
 Stains halo white
 Barrier to hydrophobic compounds
 It is removed by boiling to expose its surface antigens
 Visualized using a negative staining technique

A

Capsule

159
Q

Also called an unorganized capsule

A

The Slime Layer

160
Q

Inhibits phagocytosis or aid in the adherence to host tissue or synthetic implants, because of its unorganized and fluid structure

A

The Slime Layer

161
Q

Example of bacteria that form a Polysaccharide slime layer

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis and Streptococcus mutans

162
Q

 Site of energy production
 Composed of Phospholipid, Proteins

A

Cell Membrane

163
Q

Unlike the cell membrane of other bacteria they have sterols in their composition

A

Mycoplasma

164
Q

What structure is being described?

 Folded areas of the cell membrane
 Extensions of cell membrane
 Site of enzymatic activity

A

Mesosomes

165
Q

the Cell Envelope encompasses the Periplasmic Space, Glycocalyx, and the Cell Membrane

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

166
Q

 Gel like matrix composed of water, enzymes, nutrients,
wastes, and gases
 Site of protein synthesis
 Location of nucleoid, Ribosomes, Inclusion bodies,
Granules, Gene structures, and Endospores

A

Cytoplasm

167
Q

Bacterial ribosome has a density of 70 Svedberg units

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

168
Q

The target for a family of antibiotics (Macrolytes like azithromycin and erythromycin) and the point of attachment of tRNA

A

The 50S subunit

169
Q

The target for a family of antibiotics (Tetracyclines and Doxycyclines) and the point of attachment of mRNA

A

The 30S subunit

170
Q

What structure is this?

 Where DNA coil
 Bacterial chromosome
 Attached to the mesosome
 Consist of highly coiled DNA intermixed with RNA,
polyamines, and various proteins that lend structural
support

A

Nucleoid

171
Q

carries amino acids to form peptide chains

A

tRNA

172
Q

dictates the sequence of amino acids in peptide chains

A

mRNA

173
Q

are used in the prophylaxis of leptospirosis

A

Doxycyclines

174
Q

 Not found in all bacteria
 Seen on some Gram+ Bacteria like
 Bacillus and Clostridium

A

Endospores

175
Q

Bacillus and Clostridium are Endospores

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

176
Q

is when bacteria becomes dormant and is resistant to environmental conditions

A

Sporulation

177
Q

are formed when bacteria encounter harsh environments (Unfavorable) or when the environment is scarce of nutritional requirement for its growth

A

Spores

178
Q

Visualized using Schaeffer-Fulton Technique

A

Endospores

179
Q

It is responsible for locomotion and is also called the H antigen

A

Flagella

180
Q

What pili is this?

 Not involved in locomotion
 For attachment to host
 Short

A

Common Pili/Fimbriae

181
Q

What pili is this?

 For conjugation (gene transfer)
 Long (bridge for gene transfer)
 Only present in Bacteria that express F-Factor

A

Sex Pili

182
Q

is present in both Gram+ bacteria and Gram- bacteria?

A

Peptidoglycan

183
Q

is present in both Mycoplasma pneumoniae and Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

Cell Membrane

184
Q

The entirety of the organism’s genes organized into chromosomes

A

Genome

185
Q

Segment of DNA that acts as functional and physical unit of inheritance

A

Gene

186
Q

The key difference between DNA and RNA is the sugar backbone. DNA has deoxyribose, while RNA has ribose instead

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

187
Q

The difference of DNA and RNA is in their nucleotide bases. DNA has Uracil, but RNA has Thymine

TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE
DNA has thymine, but RNA has uracil

188
Q

Has a 5’ end and a 3’ end

A

Nucleic Acid Strand

189
Q

The 3’ end possesses the exposed free phosphate group

TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

5’ end possesses the exposed free phosphate group

190
Q

The 3’ end is simply an oxygen molecule, which therefore does NOT possess the phosphate group

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

191
Q

Purines (T,U,C) pair with its corresponding pyrimidine (A,G)

TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

Purines (A,G) pair with its corresponding pyrimidine (T,U,C)

192
Q

are nucleotide bases containing a sugar (ribose and deoxyribose)

A

Nucleoside

193
Q

These are examples of?

 Adenine + Sugar = Adenosine
 Guanine + Sugar = Guanosine
 Cytosine + Sugar = Cytidine
 Thymine + Sugar = Thymidine
 Uracil + Sugar = Uradine

A

Nucleosides

194
Q

Deoxyribose molecules contain an extra hydroxyl group, while Ribose lost its extra hydroxyl group (loss of oxygen)

TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

Ribose molecules contain an extra hydroxyl group, while deoxyribose lost its extra hydroxyl group (loss of oxygen)

195
Q

are a Nucleoside containing a phosphate group

A

Nucleotide

196
Q

The number of phosphate groups vary

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

1 – Monophosphate
2 – Diphosphate
3 – Triphosphate

197
Q

Single Supercoiled circular dsDNA or double stranded DNA (double helix)

A

Bacterial Chromosome

198
Q

Contains information for cell growth and replication located in the Nucleoid region of the cytoplasm. Remove it and the bacteria will not survive

A

Bacterial Chromosome

199
Q

What is being described?

 The umbrella term for extra-chromosomal elements
 Genetic elements that can move within a genome and/or
between different genomes

A

Mobilomes

200
Q

Transposons and plasmids are examples of mobilomes

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

201
Q

BACTERIA CANNOT SURVIVE WITHOUT THE BACTERIAL CHROMOSOME.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

202
Q

is not attached to the Bacterial Chromosome removing the plasmid will not cause the cell to die, hence it is Extrachromosomal.

A

Plasmid

203
Q

usually encode for antimicrobial resistance genes NOT cell growth and replication

A

Plasmid

204
Q

What is being described?

 Nonchromosomal circular dsDNA
 They autonomously replicate independently from the
chromosome

A

Plasmids

205
Q

Plasmids are Episomes

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

206
Q

Genetic material that replicates on its own

A

Episomes

207
Q

they are already resistant due to their abundant Porin channels, and are only strengthened by interactions with other plasmids

A

Pseudomonas

208
Q

Plasmids are not necessary for viability

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

They are not involved in translation of necessary macromolecules

209
Q

Segments of DNA and unlike full sequence plasmids these are only segments.

A

Transposons/Jumping genes

210
Q

Can incorporate pieces of DNA segments directly into the chromosome between microorganisms even if no homology exists, though they need an enzyme to replicate

A

Transposons/Jumping genes

211
Q

These are characteristics of?

 A wider Host range is developed due to their ability to
jump between genes not even belonging to the same
family
 In comparison to Plasmids, that have a tendency to filter
or choose where they jump to

A

Transposons/Jumping genes

212
Q

Propagation of TRANSPOSONS depends on their physical integration with a bacterial replicon

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

Achieved via the enzyme Transposase that integrates transposons to its target chromosome

213
Q

Transposons are not Episomes as they need an enzyme to replicate and CANNOT do it by themselves

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

214
Q

Desrcibe this process

 Simply the synthesis of a new DNA strand
 For prokaryotes replication only occurs after activation or
identifying the origin of replication

A

Replication

215
Q

ORDER THESE STEPS

B. The molecule responsible for doing this is DNA- A Protein,
which recognizes specific sequences in the Bacterial
Chromosome therefore activating them
A. The now activated origin of replication is now responsible
for recruiting helicase
C. Helicase will unwind the DNA bidirectionally and separate
the strands until the terminus to form replication forks

A

B,A,C

216
Q

is the primary enzyme for replication

A

DNA Polymerase III

217
Q

DNA Polymerase III can generate nucleotide sequences from an empty space

TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

DNA Polymerase III CANNOT generate nucleotide sequences from an empty space

218
Q

The enzyme that must generate an RNA primer that will serve as the starting point for DNA Polymerase III

A

Primase

219
Q

RNA Primers always start at the 3’ end, because DNA Polymerase III can only catalyze reactions on free Phosphate groups of the 5’ end

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

220
Q

It carries DNA Polymerase III to the free phosphate group of the 5’ end

A

Sliding clamp

221
Q

The strand when DNA Polymerase synthesizes in a continuous manner and is not interrupted

A

Leading strand

222
Q

The strand when DNA Polymerase attaches here instead the Okazaki fragment will interrupt the synthesis leading to recruiting another RNA Primer to be made and the process starts again

A

Lagging strand

223
Q

Later on the replication stage of the lagging strand the RNA Primer is removed leading to another space for DNA Polymerase III to occupy, which then causes discontinuous synthesis leading to Okazaki Fragments

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

224
Q

If a Leading strand is synthesized from a 3’-5’ template strand what direction will it run after being synthesized continuously by DNA Polymerase III?

A

To the 5’-3’ direction complementary and bidirectionally to the 3’-5’ template strand

225
Q

The Lagging strand synthesized from the original 5’-3’ template strand is synthesized discontinuously by DNA Polymerase III forming Okazaki Fragments, what direction will it run?

A

To the 3’-5’ direction complementary and bidirectionally to the 5’-3’ template strand

226
Q

Synthesis and linking of new DNA strands

A

ELONGATION/SYNTHESIS

227
Q

consists of DNA Polymerase III, Helicase, SSB’s, and primase

A

Replisome

228
Q

bind to single stranded DNA (ssDNA) that is generated by the helicase which causes stabilization.

A

Single‐stranded DNA‐binding proteins (SSB proteins)

229
Q

EXCISION of RNA primers is done by what enzyme?

A

DNA Polymerase I

230
Q

A sequence-specific binding protein that recognizes termination sequences

A

Tus protein

231
Q

joins the ends of the DNA fragments together

A

DNA Ligase

232
Q

RNA Primer is replaced with deoxyribonucleotide by what enzyme?

A

DNA Polymerase I

233
Q

Synthesis of mRNA 5’-3’ direction

A

Transcription

234
Q

Type of RNA that is the bridge that aids in gene expression

A

mRNA

235
Q

Classify if the strand is coding or non coding

Synthesis of mRNA 5’-3’ direction

A

coding strand/sense strand

236
Q

Classify if the strand is coding or non coding

3’-5’ Template Strand of mRNA

A

Non-coding Strand/Antisense Strand

237
Q

Synthesis of polypeptides from mRNA

A

Translation

238
Q

The mRNA inserts itself into the Ribosomes through what subunit?

A

30S Subunit

239
Q

The counterpart amino acid of codons is carried by

A

tRNA

240
Q

The 50S subunit signals for tRNA that compliments what was read by the 30S subunit via the mRNA

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

241
Q

Once the amino acids grow longer they will be classified as a peptide chain, and at the end of the translation process the sequence of peptides will FOLD to form a protein’s QUATERNARY Structure

TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

TERTIARY

242
Q

Name the process being described

 Occurs when a segment of foreign DNA combines with a
homologous or identical portion of the bacterial cell’s
original chromosome
 Forms a partially hybrid chromosome with segments
originating from both the donor and recipient

A

Recombination

243
Q

Mechanism of gene transfer that is ORGANISM to ORGANISM

A

Horizontal Gene Transfer

244
Q

Mechanism of gene transfer associated with Binary Fission

A

Vertical Gene Transfer

245
Q

mechanism for gene transfer where DNA is released into the environment following cell lysis, where a Competent Bacteria then transforms the released DNA as its own

A

TRANSFORMATION

246
Q

Microorganisms that take up the DNA released into the environment following cell lysis is called?

A

Competent Bacteria

247
Q

Is Streptococcus pneumoniae Competent Bacteria?

A

YES

248
Q

Is Neisseria gonorrhoeae Competent Bacteria?

A

YES

249
Q

Haemophilus influenza is NOT Competent Bacteria

TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

250
Q

mechanism for gene transfer where non-lethal bacterial virus or bacteriophage introduces its DNA into the recipient cell

A

Transduction

251
Q

is a bacteria infecting virus

A

A bacteriophage

252
Q

What mechanism for gene transfer does this describe?

 Plasmid-mediated and involves two living cells
 A bridge is formed via the sex pili between the donor and
recipient to initiate DNA transfer

A

Conjugation

253
Q

Alteration in the original nucleotide sequence of a gene or genes within an organism’s genome (Genotype)

A

Mutation

254
Q

Describe this mutation

 No change in phenotype (visible change)
 When the mutation is homologous

A

Silent Mutation

255
Q

Describe this mutation

Substitution of one amino acid

A

Missense Mutation

256
Q

Describe this mutation

A codon becomes a STOP codon

A

Nonsense Mutation

Bacteriology (4 decks)

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