Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

infectious disease > bacterial infections > Flashcards

bacterial infections Flashcards

1
Q

-rash
-diffusely erythematous and resembles a sunburn with superimposed fine red papules giving skin a sandpaper consistency
-may appear 1-2 days after onset of GAS pharyngitis (strep throat)

A

Scarlett fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

hallmark of Scarlett fever

A

strawberry tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

bacteria of Scarlett fever

A

group A streptococci (gram pos)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How to diagnose rheumatic fever

A

JONES criteria – at least two major criteria OR one major and two minor criteria
PLUS, evidence of recent GAS infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is Jones criteria for rheumatic fever

A

Major: polyarthritis, carditis, chorea, rash
Minor: fever, arthralgia, inflammatory markers, PR segment prolongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

treatment of rheumatic fever and Scarlett fever

A

penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

common pathogens of skin and soft tissue infections

A

staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

skin and soft tissue infections lab findings

A

-culture of wound
-blood cultures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

example of purulent skin and soft tissue infection

A

abscess, furuncle, carbuncle, cellulitis with purulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

treatment of purulent skin and soft tissue infection

A

primary treatment: I & D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

treatment of purulent skin and soft tissue infection if they also have:
-severe disease
-signs of systemic illness
- purulent cellulitis/wound infection
-comorbidities/old age
-abscess in difficult area
-septic phlebitis
-I&D didn’t work

A

I&D plus:
can add oral antibiotics: dicloxacillin, clindamycin
if MRSA: clindamycin, Bactrim, doxycycline
IV antibiotics: nafcillin or cefazolin
if MRSA: vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

examples of non purulent skin and soft tissue infection

A

cellulitis
erysipelas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

common pathogens of non purulent skin and soft tissue infections

A

beta hemolytic streptococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

treatment of non purulent skin and soft tissue infections

A

oral abx: amoxicillin, cephalexin or clindamycin
IV abx: nafcillin or cefazolin, vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

usual sites of osteomyelitis

A

long bones and vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what could be concerning if vertebral osteomyelitis is present with fever, sever back or neck pain, radicular pain, or evidence of spinal cord compression

A

epidural abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

-associated with sickle cell disease, injection drug use, DM, older age

A

hematogenous osteomyelitis (bacteria in blood that goes to bone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

big risk factors for hematogenous osteomyelitis

A

injection drug users
sickle cell anemia
older patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

-prosthetic joint replacement or other orthopedic surgery, neurosurgery, and trauma most frequently cause soft tissue infections that can spread to bone
-MC pathogens: S. aureus and staphylococcus epidermis

A

osteomyelitis (contiguous focus of infection) (injury/surgery/trauma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

-MC sites: foot and ankle, hip and sacrum (pressure)
-bone pain is often absent or muted by associated neuropathy
-ability to easily advance a sterile probe to bone through a skin ulcer
- large skin ulcer

A

osteomyelitis (vascular insufficiency) (skin breakdown)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how to diagnose osteomyelitis

A
  • isolation of organism from blood, bone, or contiguous focus
  • blood culture
  • elevated ESR and CRP
  • bone biopsy
    (have to get from bone or blood)
    (for diagnosis you have to find the causative organism!!)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what will you find on osteomyelitis x-ray (early findings) – Initial step

A

-soft tissue swelling
-loss of tissue planes
-periarticular demineralization of bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is seen on osteomyelitis x-ray (after 2 weeks)

A

-erosion of bone
-alteration of cancellous bone
-periostitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what (better, more definitive) imaging for osteomyelitis

A

CT and bone scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what imaging for osteomyelitis if epidural abscess is suspected

A

MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

osteomyelitis treatment

A

-identify causative organism
-consult ID specialist
prolonged therapy (4-6 weeks or longer)
Not MRSA: IV cefazolin, nafcillin
MRSA: IV vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

osteomyelitis treatment if epidural abscess and spinal cord compression, or other abscesses
or if they’re not getting better

A

surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

S aureus readily invades the bloodstream and infects sites distant from the primary site of infection
- endocarditis
-osteomyelitis
-other deep infection

A

staphylococcal bacteremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what to do if they have staph aureus in bloodstream that makes you suspicious for infective endocarditis

A

transesophageal echocardiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

staphylococcal bacteremia treatment

A

IV vancomycin or daptomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

-S. aureus produces toxins
-abrupt onset high fever, vomiting, watery diarrhea
-sore throat, myalgia, HA
-hypotension with kidney and heart failure
-diffuse macular erythematous rash and nonpurulent conjunctivitis
-desquamation of palms and soles

A

toxic shock syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

toxic shock syndrome is associated with what that harbors a toxin producing S aureus strain

A

tampons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

TSS treatment

A
  • remove source (tampon)
    -rapid rehydration
    -antistaphylococcal therpay
    -IV clindamycin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

important cause of infections of:
-intravascular devices
-prosthetic devices
-wound infection following cardiothoracic surgery

signs/symptoms:
-purulent or serosanguineous drainage, erythema, pain, tenderness at site of foreign body or device
-joint instability and pain of prosthetic joint

A

infections by coagulase negative staphylococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

infections by coagulase negative staphylococci treatment

A

-remove device or foreign body suspected of being infected
-IV vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

-caused by neurotoxin tetanospasmin which is found in soil (clostridium tetani)
-puncture wound

A

tetanus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

why does tetanus cause uncontrolled spasms and exaggerated reflexes

A

interferes with neurotransmission at spinal synapses of inhibitory neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

tetanus complications

A

-airway obstruction
-urinary retention and constipation
-respiratory arrest and cardiac failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

MC cause of death of tetanus

A

respiratory failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Tetanus prevention (active immunization for adults)

A

Td vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

when is booster Td given

A

every 10 years or at the time of injury if it has been greater than 5 years after a dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

immunization schedule of children (DTaP)

A
  • 2 months
  • 4 months
  • 6 months
  • 15-18 months
  • 4-6 years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what 3 forms does botulism exist in

A

-Foodborne: canned, smoked, or vacuum packed foods
-Infant: ingestion of honey
-Wound: injection drug use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

paralytic disease caused by botulism toxin (produced by clostridium botulinum)

A

botulism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

tetanus treatment

A
  • human tetanus immune globulin within 24 hours of presentation
  • debride wound
  • metronidazole IV or PO
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Hallmark of botulism

A

-symmetric, descending flaccid paralysis progressing to respiratory failure
-visual disturbances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

botulism treatment

A

-equine serum heptavalent botulism antitoxin
-intubation/mechanical ventilation
-fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

-caused by corynebacterium diphtheria
-attacks respiratory tract but may involve any mucous membrane or skin wound
-mostly spread respiratory secretions
-exotoxin can lead to myocarditis and neuropathy

A

diptheria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

MC sign of diphtheria (pharyngeal)

A

tenacious gray membrane covers tonsils and pharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

diphtheria labs

A

clinical

for confirmation:
- culture from respiratory secretions
- PCR detection of the toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

diphtheria prevention

A

active immunization with diphtheria toxoid with appropriate booster injections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what should susceptible people exposed to diphtheria do

A

receive a booster of diphtheria toxoid (or complete series if not immunized) and a dose of PCN G benzathine or course of erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

diphtheria treatment

A

-removal of membrane by direct laryngoscopy or bronchoscopy
- antitoxin (from horse serum)
-PCN or erythromycin x14 days
-isolate patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

-caused by listeria monocytogenes, a motile gram + rod
- can come from contaminated food:
Unpasteurized dairy products
hot dogs
deli meats
cantaloupes
soft cheese

A

listeriosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

5 infections of listeriosis

A
  • infection during pregnancy
  • granulomatosis infantisepticum
  • bacteremia
  • meningitis
  • focal infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what diagnostic to do with listeriosis with neutrophils, increased protein and meningitis

A

lumbar puncture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

listeriosis treatment

A

ampicillin IV

55
Q

what causes pertussis

A

bordetella pertussis transmitted via respiratory droplets

55
Q

pertussis also called

A

whooping cough

56
Q

symptoms of catarrhal stage of pertussis

A

lacrimation, sneezing, coryza, anorexia, hacking night cough that becomes diurnal

57
Q

symptoms of paroxysmal stage of pertussis

A

bursts of rapid, consecutive coughs followed by deep, high-pitched inspiration (whoop)

58
Q

symptoms of convalescent stage of pertussis

A

decrease in frequency and severity of paroxysms

58
Q

what is seen on pertussis labs

A

elevated WBC

59
Q

how to establish diagnosis of pertussis

A

isolating organisms from nasopharyngeal culture (special agar)

59
Q

pertussis prevention

A

vaccine for infants with DtaP

60
Q

what ages do young children get DTaP vaccine

A

-2,4, and 6 months
-15 through 18 months
-4 through 6 years

61
Q

what age do preteens get Tdap

A

11 through 12 years

62
Q

when do pregnant women get Tdap

A

during 27-36th week of pregnancy

63
Q

when do adults get Tdap

A

anytime if they’ve never received it

64
Q

pertussis treatment

A

azithromycin (abx treatment)

65
Q

when do you get Hib dose 1

A

2 months

66
Q

when do you get Hib dose 2

A

4 months

67
Q

when do you get Hib dose 3

A

6 months

68
Q

may cause sinusitis, otitis, bronchitis, epiglottis, pneumonia, cellulitis, meningitis, septic arthritis, endocarditis

A

H. flu and hemophilus

69
Q

when do you get Hib dose 4

A

12-15 months

70
Q

Hemophilus Treatment (pts with sinusitis, otitis, or respiratory tract infections)

A

amoxicillin or amoxicillin/clavulanate

71
Q

hemophilus treatment (more seriously ill pts) (toxic clinical features with multiline pneumonia)

A

IV ceftriaxone or fluoroquinolone

72
Q

-abrupt onset of high fever, drooling, and inability to handle secretions
-severe sore throat
-stridor and respiratory distress from obstruction

A

epiglottitis

73
Q

how to diagnose epiglottitis

A

direct visualization of the cherry red swollen epiglottitis at laryngoscopy

74
Q

epiglottitis treatment

A

IV ceftriaxone

75
Q

complication of H. influenza

A

meningitis

76
Q

meningitis treatment

A

ceftriaxone 4g/day in two divided doses

77
Q

-MC form of salmonellosis
-incubation period 6-72 hours after ingestion of contaminated food or liquid

A

salmonella gastroenteritis

78
Q

signs and symptoms of salmonella gastroenteritis

A

-fever (chills)
-nausea and vomiting
-cramping abdominal pain
-bloody diarrhea lasting 4-7 days

79
Q

how to diagnose salmonella gastroenteritis

A

culture of organism from the stool

80
Q

salmonella gastroenteritis treatment

A

self limited

81
Q

salmonella gastroenteritis treatment for patients who are malnourished, severely ill, sickle cell disease, or immunocompromised

A

ciprofloxacin 500mg BID or levofloxacin 500mg

82
Q
  • prolonged or recurrent fevers accompanied by bacteremia and local infection (bone, joints,pleura,pericardium,lungs,etc)
  • mycotic aortic aneurysms may occur
A

salmonella bacteremia

83
Q

salmonella bacteremia treatment

A

systemic antimicrobial therapy plus drainage of any abscesses

84
Q
  • Highly transmissible via the fecal oral route
    S/S:
    -abrupt onset of diarrhea, lower abdominal cramps, tenesmus
    -stool mixed with blood and mucus
    -fever,chills,anorexia,malaise,HA
    -tender abdomen
    -sigmoidoscopy shows inflamed, engorged mucosa with punctuate and sometimes large areas of ulceration
A

shigellosis

85
Q

shigellosis lab findings from stool culture

A

-stool shows many leukocytes and red cells

86
Q

shigellosis treatment

A

self resolving
treat dehydration and hypotension

87
Q

-acute diarrheal illness caused by certain serotypes of vibrio cholerae
-toxin mediated
-MASSIVE watery diarrhea
-occurs in conditions of crowding, war, famine
-ingestion of contaminated food/water
-dehydration and hypotension

A

cholera

88
Q

hallmark of cholera

A

gray stool, turbid, without fecal odor, blood, or pus
“rice water stool”

89
Q

how to get definitive diagnosis of cholera

A

positive stool culture

90
Q

cholera treatment

A

mild/moderate:
-fluid replacement
-oral rehydration (gatorade,pedialyte)

severe hypovolemia:
-IV fluids (lactated ringers)

91
Q

-microaerophilic, motile, gram neg rods
-caused by C jejuna or C coli
-dairy cattle and poultry are main reservoir

A

campylobacter

92
Q

campylobacter outbreaks associated with

A

consumption of raw milk

93
Q

campylobacter virulence factors

A

-fimbriae like filaments and cell surface proteins
-attach to surface of small intestine and colon
-spiral shaped and long flagella
-can drill into the colon, releasing cytolethal distending toxins

94
Q

cytolethal distending toxins from campylobacter causes what complication

A

inflammation –> toxic megacolon

95
Q

campylobacter symptoms

A

symptoms appear after 1-7 days of infection:
-fever, muscle pain, malaise, HA

followed by:
crampy abdominal pain, diarrhea (water and ill smelling and bloody)

96
Q

campylobacter treatment

A

self limited
hydration and correction of electrolyte abnormalities (shortens duration one day)

97
Q

zoonotic infection carried by wild rodents and caused by yersina pestis

A

the plague

98
Q

how is plague transmitted

A

transmitted among rodents and humans by bites of fleas

99
Q

following fleabite, the organisms spread through the lymphatics to the…

A

lymph nodes
(they become greatly enlarged–> buboes)

100
Q

complications of the plague that can be fatal

A

pneumonia or meningitis

101
Q

the plague signs and symptoms

A

-sudden onset of high fever, malaise, tachycardia, intense HA, delirium, severe myalgias
-axillary, inguinal, cervical lymph nodes become enlarged and tender and may suppurate and drain
-purpuric spots (black plague)

102
Q

the plague lab findings

A

-smears from aspirates of buboes examined with gram stain
-cultures from aspirate or pus, CSF, and sputum

103
Q

The plague prevention

A

-avoid exposure to rodents and fleas in endemic areas
-Drug prophylaxis with doxycycline and ciprofloxacin

104
Q

The plague treatment

A

fluoroquinolone:
- ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin IV or PO
OR
aminoglycoside:
- streptomycin IV, Gentamycin IV
OR
doxycycline

105
Q

duration of treatment for the plague

A

10-14 days

106
Q

what causes gonococcal infections

A

neisseria gonorrhoeae

107
Q

how are gonococcal infections transmitted

A

sexual activity

108
Q

penile infections symptoms

A

-initial: dysuria and serous or milky discharge
-1-3 days later: urethral pain, yellow, creamy, profuse, blood tinged discharge

may regress and become chronic or progress to involve the prostate, epididymis, and periurethral glands with painful inflammation

109
Q

cervicovaginal infections symptoms

A

-dysuria, urinary frequency, urgency, purulent discharge
-vaginitis and cervicitis with inflammation of bartholins glands

110
Q

preferred method of diagnosis for urethritis and cervicitis

A

nucleic acid amplification tests at all mucosal sites

111
Q

what systemic complications follow the dissemination of gonococci from primary mucosal site via bloodstream

A

-purulent arthritis
-triad of rash, tenosynovitis, and polyarthralgia

111
Q

how to diagnose urethral infection of men

A

first catch am urine

112
Q

gonococcal infection prevention

A

-condom
-partner notification and referral of sexual contact for treatment

112
Q

most common form of eye involvement is direct inoculation into the conjunctival sac

A

conjunctivitis

113
Q

uncomplicated gonorrhea treatment

A

IM ceftriaxone

with chlamydia –> add oral doxycycline (non pregnant), oral azithromycin (pregnant)

114
Q

complicated gonorrhea treatment

A

arthritis dermatitis syndromes:
ceftraixone IV or IM

endocarditis:
ceftriaxone IV

115
Q
  • STI caused by short gram-neg bacillus haemophilus ducreyi
  • at site of inoculation, a vesicopustule develops that breaks down to form a painful, soft ulcer with a necrotic base, surrounding erythema, and undermined edges
A

chancroid

116
Q

chancroid treatment

A

single dose of oral azithromycin OR ceftriaxone IM

117
Q
  • acute infection of children and young adults that is transmitted from cats to humans as the result of a scratch or bite
A

cat scratch disease
bartonella henselae

118
Q

cat scratch disease diagnosis

A

clinical

118
Q

hallmark of cat scratch disease

A

cat scratch
regional lymphadenitis (treat with azithromycin)

119
Q

cat scratch disease treatment

A

self limited
(treat lymphadenitis with azithromycin)

120
Q

-acute and chronic STI caused by chlamydia trachomatis
-initial papular or ulcerative lesion on external genitalia often unnoticed
-patients engaging in anal sex present with symptoms of proctocolitis*
-inguinal or femoral buboes appear 1-4 weeks after exposure

A

lymphogranuloma venereum

121
Q

diagnosis for lymphogranuloma venereum

A

positive nucleic amplification test for chlamydia trachomatis

122
Q

chlamydia urethritis and cervicitis has common coinfection with…

A

gonococci and chlamydia

123
Q

treatment for lymphogranuloma venereum

A

doxycycline

124
Q

chlamydia urethritis and cervicitis clinical findings

A

-most often no symptoms
-urethral or cervical discharge
-less painful, less purulent, and more watery compared to gonococcal infection

125
Q

chlamydia urethritis and cervicitis lab findings

A

a patient with clinical signs and symptoms of urethritis and cervicitis is assumed to have chlamydia infection until proven otherwise

126
Q

chlamydia urethritis and cervicitis diagnosis

A

highly sensitive nucleic amplification test for urine or cervical/vaginal swabs

127
Q

chlamydia urethritis and cervicitis screening recommended for

A

-all sexually active women 25 years or younger
-women > 25 years with risk factors for STIs
-pregnant women
-HIV
-men with risk factors for STI

128
Q

chlamydia urethritis and cervicitis treatment

A

doxycycline 100mg BID x7 days

129
Q

chlamydia urethritis and cervicitis treatment for pregnant women

A

single dose of azithromycin

130
Q

what to also screen for with chlamydia

A

HIV, gonorrhea, syphilis

131
Q

who should also be treated for chlamydial infections

A

the sexual partners of the patients

infectious disease (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions