Bacterial and Fungal Pneumonias; Tuberculosis Flashcards

1
Q

What is the number one leading cause of death from infectious disease?

A

complicates the course of 1/20 hospital patients

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2
Q

How do smoking and alcoholism predispose to pneumonia?

A

Smoking - paralyzes cilia, also predisposes to COPD

Alcoholism - malnutrition, depressed level of consciousness, and poor ciiary function

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3
Q

What pneumonias are transmitted by inhalation of airborne organisms?

A
  1. Mycoplasma
  2. Tuberculosis
  3. Legionella
  4. Fungi
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4
Q

In what situations might you get hematogenous spread which leads to pneumonia?

A

IV drug users, infected IV lines, bloodborne infections from elsewhere in the body

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5
Q

How will a lobar pneumonia present via auscultation, percussion, and vocal fremitus? What classically causes this?

A

Auscultation - bronchial breath sounds
Percussion - dullness
Vocal fremitus - increased vibrations

Classically caused by S. pneumoniae, but need to keep in context the situation (nosocomial vs community acquired vs immunosuppressed)

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6
Q

What will patchy or interstitial pneumonia cause on auscultation?

A

rales (crackles)

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7
Q

How will pleural effusion present on tactile fremitus?

A

Decreased transmission

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8
Q

Associate each of the following sputum consistencies with a microbe:

  1. Rusty
  2. Currant jelly
  3. Creamy yellow
  4. Foul odor
A

Rusty - S. pneumoniae
Currant jelly - Klebsiella pneumoniae
Creamy yellow - S. aureus
Foul odor - anaerobes

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9
Q

What is the definition of a good sputum sample?

A

<10 epithelial cells and >25 PMNs per low power field

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10
Q

Who is mycoplasma pneumonia common in and how does its constitutional symptoms differ from S. pneumonia (usual)?

A

Occurs in young, healthy people, especially in outbreaks at school or in military recruits in fall and winter

Mycoplasma is an atypical so it has a more insidious onset (rather than abrupt), a nonproductive cough (rather than rusty sputum), and no leukocytosis

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11
Q

How does Mycoplasma appear on CXR and what is one rare but very specific finding seen in this infection?

A

CXR: Patchy bronchopneumonia, will cause rales on physical exam sometimes

Bullous myringitis - inflammation of tympanic membrane

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12
Q

Who typically gets Legionella?

A

Immunosuppressed, smokers, COPD, advanced age, male, with cardiac disease
-> need some degree of immunosuppression for severe infection

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13
Q

What is the primary cardiac symptom of Legionella? What treatment against it is effective?

A

Relative bradycardia
-> patient’s heart rate will only be high normal, which is lower than expected given how high their fever is

Treatment: Macrolides (think of crows on the crane)

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14
Q

What bacterial pneumonia occurs in COPD and is known for a very large amount of sputum production?

A

Haemophilus influenzae

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15
Q

What pneumonia is known for a lobar pneumonia causing bulging fissures because there is so much exudate? Who does it occur in?

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Occurs in alcoholics and diabetics

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16
Q

What types of pneumonias are known for causing an air-fluid level on CXR?

A

Necrotizing pneumonias like S. aureus, P. aeruginosa, and ESPECIALLY anaerobic pulmonary infections -> cause a cavity lung abscess

17
Q

What is the treatment for anaerobic pneumonias? Is the course of the disease typically acute or chronic?

A

Long course of penicillin and clindamycin

Typically a subacute / chronic course - with h/o poor dental hygiene, malaise, and foul-smelling sputum

18
Q

What pneumonia is marked by a slowly progressive infection causing worsening CXR infiltrates and hypoxemia in HIV patients? What is the treatment?

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

Treatment: TMP/SMX first line, with pentamidine IV if allergic (think of the pentagon ping pong paddles)

19
Q

What does skin testing for coccidioides mean if it goes from negative to positive or positive to negative?

A

Negative to positive: new infection

Positive to negative: severe or disseminated disease

20
Q

What is the usual testing used to detect Coccidioides which may be missing the diagnosis depending on when this is done? Why might this be preferred over cell culture?

A

IgM / IgG serologies

IgM positive after 2-4 weeks, IgG becomes positive later

High IgG titers is prognostic for a very high chance of disseminated disease

Preferred over culture because the mold grown in the lab is very infectious

21
Q

What are common and more specific symptoms of primary coccidioidomycosis?

A

Fever, cough, joint aches (guy kneeling in sketchy)

Erythema nodosum - think shin lesions on wall in sketchy

22
Q

Who is at highest risk for disseminated coccidioidomycosis and where does it tend to spread?

A

Young or old, immunosuppressed, blacks, mexicans, and native americans

Can disseminate to skin (erythema nodosum) or cause fatal meningitis (think of guy leaning on immunocompromised fountain with neck brace)

23
Q

Who is at greatest risk for chronic and disseminated histoplasmosis?

A

Chronic - patients with COPD

Disseminated - Immunocompromised, can spread like miliary TB

24
Q

What are the diagnostic tests best used for diagnosis of histoplasmosis and blastomycosis?

A

Histoplasmosis - urine and serological testing (think of red and yellow stalactites in sketchy)

Blastomycosis - Culture is definitive, organism grows fast

25
Q

How are aspergillus hypersensitivity pneumonitis and allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA, associated with asthma) treated? What will CXR and serology show?

A

Treat with corticosteroids, or avoidance of Aspergillus

CXR shows migratory infiltrates, serology shows elevated IgE

26
Q

In what patient populations do we see aspergilloma and invasive aspergillosis?

A

Aspergilloma - site of pre-existing cavity (i.e. old TB) -> may need surgical excision to prevent vascular invasion, but rarely treated

Invasive aspergillosis - post transplant or bone marrow irradiation in immunocompromised, very high mortality

27
Q

How are nontuberculous mycobacterial infections diagnosed definitively and why?

A

They may be just colonizers or actually pathogens

Diagnosed by at least TWO positive sputum cultures, or ONE positive culture from bronchial lavage / biopsy.

28
Q

How are different nontuberculous mycobacteria told apart, and how do they appear on CXR?

A

Told apart by growth rate and specific pigment production

CXR - nodular or cavity lesions

29
Q

What are risk factors for reactivation of latent TB?

A

Silicosis, HIV, substance abuse, corticosteroids / immunosuppressives, organ transplant, inflammatory bowl diseases, diabetes, etc

30
Q

If a TB treatment regimen is failing, what should you do?

A

Add on at least TWO more medications, never just one, since resistance is likely

31
Q

What is required for positive diagnosis of TB via sputum sampling?

A

At least three sputum samples taken 8 hours apart, with at least one being a morning sample

Three positives required, negative does not exclude TB

-> use these for culture in broth, 4-14 days

32
Q

Where should the PPD skin test be injected?

A

INTRAdermally (not subdermally), can see 2-8 weeks after infection

33
Q

What is the rule used to interpret a positive PPD test?

A

5/10/15 mm rules

5 or more: positive if HIV, CXR consistent with TB, any immunosuppression, or recent TB contacts

10mm or more: recent travel from high prevalence area, IV drug use, lab personnel, age <5 (common in young children), BCG vaccine falls here

15mm or more: positive even with no other known factors

34
Q

How do the lymphocyte tests for TB work?

A

3 tubes or plates are run

Plate / Tube 1: lymphocytes alone (proliferation = background noise, nil

Plate / Tube 2: Lymphocytes + TB antigen

Plate / Tube 3: Lymphocytes + Known mitogen, positive control

Response is equal to plate 2 minus plate 1 (background noise). Certain threshold = sensitization vs TB = infection