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Bacteria Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Purpose of gram staining

A

gram staining separates different types of bacteria

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2
Q

What colour does gram positive bacteria stain

A

BLUE/PURPLE

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3
Q

What colour does gram negative bacteria stain

A

PINK with the counter stain

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4
Q

Streptococcus

A

gram +ve
cocci (chains)
-ve catalase test

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5
Q

Staphylococcus

A

gram +ve
cocci (clusters)
+ve catalase test

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6
Q

Corynebacterium

A

gram +ve

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7
Q

Listeria

A

gram +ve

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8
Q

Bacillus

A

gram +ve

bacilli

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9
Q

Clostridium

A

gram +ve

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10
Q

Neisseria

A

Gram -ve
cocci
yellow on mcconkey = non lactose fermenting
+ve oxidase test (purple)

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11
Q

How can you remember the gram +ve bacteria?

A

SSC CL(u)B (first letters for the gram +ve bacteria)
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus
Corynebacterium

Clostridium
Listeria
(u)
Bacillus

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12
Q

Coliforms

A

Gram -ve
also enterobacteriacae
yellow on mcconkey = non lactose fermenting
-ve oxidase test

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13
Q

Parvobacteria

A

Gram -ve

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14
Q

Helicobacter

A

Gram -ve

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15
Q

Vibrio

A

Gram -ve

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16
Q

Pseudomonas

A

Gram -ve
bacilli
yellow on mcconkey = non lactose fermenting
+ve oxidase test (purple)

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17
Q

Mnemonic for gram -ve bacteria?

A

Naughty Children Have Very Poor Parents

Neisseria, Coliforms, helicobacter, vibrio, parvobacteria, pseudomonas

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18
Q

Name some bacteria that dont stain with gram

A 
chlamydia
coxiella
rickettsia
mycobacteria
treponema
borrelia
leptospira
mycoplasma
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19
Q

What produces a positive catalase test

A

staphylococcus

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20
Q

what produces a negative catalase test

A

streptococcus

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21
Q

what test can be performed to distinguish types of staphylococcus? what type of agar?

A

coagulase test on blood agar

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22
Q

what gives a positive coagulase test?

A 
staph aureus
(coag test used to distinguish types of staphylococcus)
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23
Q

what gives a negative coagulase test

A

coagulase negative staph

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24
Q

what test can be done to differentiate streptococcus? which type of agar?

A

haemolysis on blood agar

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25
Q

what will beta haemolytic strep show in haemolysis and what are examples of beta haemolytic strep?

A 
green edges
antigenic groups (A, B, C, G)
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26
Q

what will alpha haemolytic strep show in haemolysis and what are examples of alpha haemolytic strep?

A

white edges
you then do the optochin test to differentiate:
resistant = strep viridans
sensitive = strep pneumoniae

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27
Q

What is the optochin test for

A

differentiating alpha haemolytic streptococcus
resistant = strep viridans
sensitive = strep pneumoniae

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28
Q

Enterobacteria (e coli / klebsiella)

A

gram -ve bacilli

mcconkey = purple, lactose fermenting

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29
Q

How can gram -ve bacilli be differentiated?

A

Appearance on McConkey agar

  • Purple = lactose fermenting
  • Yellow = non lactose fermenting
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30
Q

How can non lactose fermenting gram -ive bacilli be differentiated?

A

oxidase test
-ve = coliforms
+ive = pseudomonas / nesseria

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31
Q

Which organisms can cause a UTI?

A 
e coli 
proteus mirabilis 
klebseialla spp
staph saprophyticus
staph epidermidis
enterococci (gram +ve)
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32
Q

risk factors UTI

A 
sex
catheterisation
enlarged prostate (chronic urinary retention)
renal tract tumour 
renal stones
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33
Q

UTI investigations

A

midstream urine - avoids contamination
dipstick - protein + glucose +ve = infection? Nitrites + leukocytes = infection
direct microscopy - pyuria = >10 pus cells
culture - macConkey agar >10^5 bacteria/ml = significant bacteruria

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34
Q

treatment for UTIs

A

cystitis, uncomplicated = trimethoprim (longer course if complicated)
pylonephritis = augmentin

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35
Q

what is eryipelas?

A

an intradermal infection ‘skin sepsis organisms’

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36
Q

what is cellulitis?

A

subcut infection ‘skin sepsis organisms’

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37
Q

What organism classification are eryipelas and cellulitis (skin sepsis organisms)?

A

Group A beta haemolyic streptococcus

+/- Staph aureus

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38
Q

What is a purpuric rash?

A

purple-red, bruise-like lesions

non blanching

39
Q

what organisms cause a purpuric rash?

A

meningococcal
henoch-schonlein purpura
thrombocytopenia

40
Q

what is a maculopapular rash?

A

pinky red, flat or raised lesions

blanching

41
Q

what organisms cause maculopapular rashes?

A 
rubella
measles
enterovirus
drug rashes
kawasaki's disease
42
Q

what is a pustular rash?

A

raised lesions, larger than vesicles

can contain pus or clear fluid

43
Q

what organisms cause a pustular rash?

A

impetigo

scalded skin syndrome

44
Q

what is a vesicular rash? causes?

A

small raised lesions
contain clear fluid
caused by varicella zoster virus and HSV

45
Q

skin soft tissue ‘skin organisms’

A

staph aureus (impetigo)

46
Q

lung ‘pneumonia organisms’

A

staph aureus
klebsiella pneumoniae
mycobacterium tuberculosis

47
Q

liver ‘gut organisms’

A

gram negative e.g. e coli
strep milleri
anaerobes e.g. bacteroides fragilis
entamoeba histolytica in tropics

48
Q

kidney ‘gut organisms’

A

e coli

klebsiella

49
Q

bowel ‘gut organisms’

A

gram negative e.g. ecoli
strep milleri
anaerobes e.g. bacteroides fragilis

50
Q

what tests can be done for pneumonia

A

sputum, cultures, serology, urine

51
Q

what would you use to look at sputum in pneumonia? what pathogens yielded?

A

ZN smear
Culture on:
- chocolate (aerobic) for strep pneum, h influenzae, staph aur, gram neg bacilli
- blood agar (anaerobic) for strep pneumoniae (alpha haemolytic, opticin sensitive), oral anaerobes (fusobacteria etc)

52
Q

what do you do to blood cultures in pneumonia? what pathogens yielded?

A

incubate 37 degs, inspect daily: if growth detected to a gram film
–> subculture: aerobic (haemophilus influenzae, staph aureus, step pneumoniae), anaerobic (strep pneumoniae), macConkey (gram neg bacilli)

53
Q

what do you do for pneumonia serology? what pathogens yielded?

A

ELISA or complement fixation testing. Pathogens yielded: mycoplasma pneumonia, chlamydia, influenza A+B, adenovirus

54
Q

What organisms cause TB

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis / mycobacterium bovis

55
Q

tests for identification of mycobacterium tuberculosis / mycobacterium bovis?

A

direct microscopy –> Z-N stain = acid fast bacteria / auramine staine
culture –> lowenstein-jensen slopes / MGIT
PCR –> of culture or clinical samples

56
Q

what tests do pts need for endocarditis?

A

FBC, biochemistry, CXR, echo, 3 cultures from DIFF sites

57
Q

top organisms responsible for endocarditis

A 
coagulase negative staph
coliforms
staph aureus
strep pneumoniae
pseudomonas spp
58
Q

common sources for coag neg staph

A

IV lines CONTAMINATION

59
Q

common sources for coliforms

A

UTI bowel sepsis

60
Q

common sources staph aureus

A

skin, soft tissue, IV sites, pneumonia

61
Q

top 3 causes for endocarditis?

A

rheumatic fever
IVDU
prosthetic valve pts

62
Q

endocarditis caused by rheumatic fever - most likely organisms?

A

alpha-haemolytic strep (strep viridans during dental rx)

enterococci (spread from gut in UTI)

63
Q

endocarditis caused by IVDU - most likely organisms?

A

staph aureus, staph epidermidis, pseudomonas, candida

64
Q

endocarditis caused by prosthetic valves - most likely organisms?

A

coagulase neg staph, grave -ve bacilli, candida

65
Q

what are the 3 key effects on the body of endocarditis?

A
  1. local effects on the valves resulting in heart failure
  2. shedding of emboli from the vegetations - lodge elsewhere eg brain
  3. immune complex formation - results in glomerulonephritis, splinter haemorrhages and other skin problems
66
Q

common cause of meningitis in neonates

A

escherichia coli (others: group B strep, listeria monocytogenes)

67
Q

common cause of meningitis in infants

A

neisseria meningitidis (others: H influenzae, strep pneumoniae)

68
Q

common cause of meningitis in young adults

A

n. meningitidis and strep pneumoniae

69
Q

common cause of meningitis in the elderly

A

strep pneumoniae (others: n meningitidis, listeria)

70
Q

diagnosis of meningitis

A

CSF, blood culture, nose/ throat swabs, stool

71
Q

Normal CSF: condition, appearance, white cells, red cells, protein, glucose

A 
Condition: clear and colourless
WBC: 0-5 x 10^6/L all lymphocytes / no neutrophils
RBC: 0-10 x 10^6/L
Protein: 0.2-0.4g/L
Glucose: 3.3-4.4 mmol/L
72
Q

Bacterial meningitis CSF: condition, appearance, white cells, red cells, protein, glucose

A 
Condition: cloudy and turbid
WBC: raised neutrophils
RBC: normal
Protein: High > 0.5g/L
Glucose: very low
73
Q

Viral meningitis CSF: condition, appearance, white cells, red cells, protein, glucose

A 
Condition: normal
WBC: raised neutrophils / lymphocytes
RBC: normal
Protein: N or H
Glucose: N or L
74
Q

Tuberculosis meningitis CSF: condition, appearance, white cells, red cells, protein, glucose

A 
Condition: N or slightly cloudy
WBC: raised lymphocytes
RBC: normal
Protein: H or  VH
Glucose: V low
75
Q

bacterial causes of diarrhoea

A

e. coli (ETEC VTEC), v. cholerae, s. sonnei (dysenteriae)

76
Q

antibiotic-associated causes of diarrhoea

A

cl. difficile, st aureus, c albicans

77
Q

viral causes of diarrhoea

A

rotavirus, SRSV

78
Q

protozoal causes of diarrhoea

A

cryptosporidium, Giardia

79
Q

Food poisoning diarrhoea - what organisms?

A

salmonella, campylobacter, st aureus, cl perfringes, b cereus

80
Q

What organism causes gastritis and duodenal ulceration (a system gut infection)?

A

h. pylori

81
Q

what organisms cause enteric fevers?

A

s. typhi, s paratyphi

82
Q

SALMONELLA - diagnosis, test, other info?

A

Diagnosis: food poisoning - malaise & abdo pain
Test: MacConkey non lactose fermenting
Other info: Chicken / turkey = salmonella or campylobacter

83
Q

SHIGELLA SONNI- diagnosis, test, other info?

A

Diagnosis: dysentery (bloody diarrhoea)
Test: sero agglutination test
Other info: dysentery in kids = shigella

84
Q

E COLI - diagnosis, test, other info?

A

Diagnosis: diarrhoea (food poisoning - beef burger)
Test: MacConkey lactose fermenting
Other info: e coli 0157 = commensal cattle

85
Q

CAMPYLOBACTER - diagnosis, other info?

A

Diagnosis: food poisoning
Test: no test
Other info: shell fish = corkscrew

86
Q

Clostridium difficile - diagnosis, test, other info?

A

Diagnosis: diarrhoea - pseudomembranous
Test: toxin test
Other info: post antibiotics

87
Q

S. TYPHI - diagnosis, test, other info?

A

Diagnosis: Enteric fever
Test: Blood culture –> MacConkey non lactose fermenting
Other info: Ingestion of contaminated food in India

88
Q

Salmonella causes food poisoning. What is the incubation period, related foods and symptoms?

A

Incubation period: 16-48h
Related foods: Poultry, eggs
Symptoms: Diarrhoea & some abdo pain

89
Q

Campylobacter causes food poisoning. What is the incubation period, related foods and symptoms?

A

Incubation period: 24-72h
Related foods: Meat products
Symptoms: Profuse diarrhoea & severe abdo pain

90
Q

Clostridium perfringens causes food poisoning. What is the incubation period, related foods and symptoms?

A

Incubation period: 12-24h
Related foods: Cooked meats
Symptoms: Colicky abdo pain

91
Q

Staph aureus causes food poisoning. What is the incubation period, related foods and symptoms?

A

Incubation period: 1-6h (pre-formed toxin)
Related foods: Finger food
Symptoms: Diarrhoea & severe vomiting & fever

92
Q

Bacillus cereus causes food poisoning. What is the incubation period, related foods and symptoms?

A

Incubation period: 1-6h
Related foods: Rice
Symptoms: Profuse vomiting

93
Q

What is colic?

A

Colic is a form of pain that starts and stops abruptly. It occurs due to muscular contractions of a hollow tube (colon, ureter, gall bladder, etc.) in an attempt to relieve an obstruction by forcing content out.

94
Q

Nemonic endocarditis

A 
FORM JANE
Fever
Osler's nodes
Roth's spots
Murmur (heart)

Janeway lesions
Anaemia
Nail / splinter haemorrhage
Emboli

Microbiology (6 decks)

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