Antimicrobials Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

antibiotics which inhibit cell wall synthesis

A

glycopeptides

beta lactams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

sub groups glycopeptides

A

vancomycin

teicoplanin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

when would you use glycopeptides

A

severe staph infections

e.g. MRSA / C diff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

why must glycopeptide use be monitored

A

to prevent ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

3 sub groups of beta lactams

A

penicillins
cephalosporins
carbapanems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

sub groups of the penicillins

A

benzylpenicillin
flucloxacillin
ampicillin / amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

uses benzylpenicillin

A
strep infections
pneumococcal pneumonia
meningococcal meningitis 
gonococcal infection
syphilis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

uses flucloxacillin

A

Staph. Aureus,

Strep. Pyogenes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

uses ampicillin / amoxicillin

A

UTIs
RTIs
Listeria meningitis
enterococci infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

sub groups cephalosporins (1st, 2nd and 3rd gen)

A

1st gen: Cephalexin
2nd : Cefuroxime
3rd : Ceftazidime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

uses cephalosporins

A
Staph. Aureus
streptococci
nisseriae
Haemophillus
coliforms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

sub groups carbapenems

A

Imipenem,

Ertapenem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

uses carbapenems

A

very broad spectrum
Enterobacteriae
anaerobic bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cautions glycopeptides (vancomycin/ teicoplanin)

A

Renal impairment, history of deafness, pregnancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

SEs: glycopeptides (vancomycin/ teicoplanin)

A

Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, blood disorders eg neutropenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

CI’s benzylpenicillin and flucoxacillin

A

Penicillin hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

SE’s benzylpenicillin and flucoxacillin

A

Hypersensitivity reactions (angioedema, anaphylaxis, urticaria etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CI’s Ampicillin/Amoxicillin

A

Penicillin hypersensitivity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

SEs Ampicillin/Amoxicillin

A

Nausea, vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

CIs cephalosporins

A

Cephalosporin sensitivity (10% allergic to penicillin will also be ceph sensitive).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

SEs cephalosporins

A

Antibiotic associated colitis, Stephens-Johnson syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CIs carbapanems

A

breast feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

SEs carbapanems

A

Increased Platelet count (Ertapenem), neurotoxicity at very high doses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Antibiotics which inhibit nucleic acid synthesis

A
trimethoprim
sulfonamides 
co-trimoxacole (trimethoprim and sulfonamides)
fluoroquinolones
rifampicin
nitroidimazoles: metronidazole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how do trimethoprim and sulfonamides inhibit nucleic acid synthesis?

A

inhibit folate synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

how do the fluoroquinolones inhibit nucleic acid synthesis?

A

inhibit DNA gyrase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how does rifampicin inhibit nucleic acid synthesis?

A

binds to RNA polymerase

28
Q

how do the nitroidimazoles inhibit nucleic acid synthesis?

A

DNA strand breaks

29
Q

Uses trimethoprim

A

UTI (NOT IN PREGNANCY due to folate synthesis inhibition)
Prostatitis
Acute / chronic bronchitis

30
Q

Uses co-trimoxazole (trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole)

A

Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP) treatment and prophylaxis

31
Q

Sub groups fluoroquinolones

A

ciprofloxacin
ofloxacin
levofloxacin

32
Q

uses fluoroquinolones

A
Strep viridians
Strep pyogenes
Pseudamonas
H. influenza
Campylobacter
Chlamydia sp.
33
Q

uses rifampicin

A

Staph. And Strep. Mycobacteria used as part of the quadruple TB treatment.
NB. Is an enzyme inducer.

34
Q

uses Nitroidimazoles: Metronidazole

A

Anaerobes, parasites eg Giardia lamblia. Prophylaxis in GI surgery.

35
Q

CIs trimethoprim

A

blood dyscrasias

Caution: pregnancy

36
Q

SEs trimethoprim

A

hyperkalaemia, depression of haematopoesis

37
Q

CIs co-trimoxazole

A

Porphyria

NB porphyria is a rare hereditary disease in which there is abnormal metabolism of the blood pigment haemoglobin. Porphyrins are excreted in the urine, which becomes dark; other symptoms include mental disturbances and extreme sensitivity of the skin to light.

38
Q

SEs co-trimoxazole

A

hyperkalaemia, rash

39
Q

Cautions for fluoroquinolone use

A

Epilepsy, G6PD deficiency, myasthenia gravis

40
Q

SEs fluoroquinolones

A

Dyspepsia, sleep disorders, rash, pruritus

41
Q

why are pts predisposed to MRSA when on fluroquinolones?

A

As they’re excreted through the skin and kill commensal organisms

42
Q

CIs rifampicin

A

jaundice

43
Q

SEs rifampicin

A

orange discolouration of saliva and urine
anorexia
nausea and vomiting
haemolytic anaemia

44
Q

CIs nitroidimazoles (metronidazole)

A

interaction with alcohol = profuse vomiting

45
Q

SEs nitroidimazoles (metronidazole)

A

taste disturbance

anorexia

46
Q

Which antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis?

A

chloramphenicol
macrolides
tetracyclines
aminoglycosides

47
Q

uses chloramephenicol

A

H influenza meningitis, epiglottis, chlamydia, rickettsiae

Used widely in the developing world

48
Q

what can extended periods of chloramephenicol use cause

A

bone marrow depression

neonatal toxicity = grey baby syndrome

49
Q

Sub groups macrolides

A

clarithromycin

erythromycin

50
Q

uses macrolides

A
strep pneumoniae
staph aureus
legionella
chlamydia
mycoplasma pneumoniae
51
Q

sub groups tetracyclines

A

tetracycline

doxycycline

52
Q

uses tetracyclines

A

broad spectrum

strep pneumonia
strep viridans
strep pyogenes
staph aureus
chlamydia
mycoplasma
53
Q

subgroups aminoglycosides

A

gentamycin

streptomycin

54
Q

uses gentamycin

A

staph aureus
gram -ve bacilli
used for severe sepsis

55
Q

uses streptomycin

A

TB

56
Q

CIs chloramphenicol

A

pregnancy, breast feeding

57
Q

SEs chloramphenicol

A
Blood disorders eg
aplastic anaemia, optic
neuritis, erythema
multiforme, grey
syndrome (abdominal
distension, cyanosis &
circulatory collapse)
58
Q

CIs macrolides (clarithromycin and erythromycin)

A

Hepatic impairment
(azithromycin)
Caution: neonates

59
Q

SEs macrolides (clarithromycin and erythromycin)

A

Rash, arrhythmias,
Stephens- Johnson
syndrome.

60
Q

CIs tetracyclines (tetracycline and doxycycline)

A

Children

61
Q

SEs tetracyclines (tetracycline and doxycycline)

A

Dysphagia,
oesophageal irritation.
Photosensitivity. Headache,
visual disturbance.

62
Q

CIs aminoglycosides (gentamycin and strepomycin)

A

myasthenia gravis

63
Q

SEs aminoglycosides (gentamycin and strepomycin)

A

nephrotoxicity, auditory and vestibular damage. Prolonged therapy =
hypomagnesaemia.

64
Q

what are the 3 ways antibiotics can cause their effects?

A
  1. inhibition of protein synthesis
  2. inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
  3. inhibition of cell wall synthesis
65
Q

bacteristatic

A

means prevents growth of bacteria and is defined as:

the minimum bacteriacidal conc / minimum inhibatory concentration
MBC:MIC

66
Q

MRSA is resistant to

A

all beta lactams