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Bacteria Flashcards

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1
Q

Staphylococcus Aureus Characteristics

A

1) Golden Yellow Colonies
2) Gram Positive
3) Catalase Positive
4) Coagulase Positive

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2
Q

S. Aureus diseases that is caused by directed invasion

A

1) Pneumonia (after previous viral infection)
2) Superficial skin and soft tissue
3) Septic osteomyelitis
4) Endocarditis (acute)

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3
Q

Staphylococcus Epidermidis

A

Catalase Positive
Coagulase Negative
Gram Positive

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4
Q

Toxin Mediated Diseases of S. Aureus

A

1) Gastroenteritis
2) Scalded Skin Syndrome
3) Toxic Shock Syndrome

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5
Q

Who is at risk for Endocarditis w/ S. Aureus infection

A

IV Drug Abuse

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6
Q

What Toxin is associated with S. Aureus and causes Gastroenteritis

A

Preformed Enterotoxin

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7
Q

Scalded Skin Syndrome Etiology

Organism

A

Exfoliative Toxin A and B

S. Aureus

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8
Q

Signs of Scaled Skin Syndrome

A

Peeling of skin

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9
Q

Symptoms of Toxic Shock syndrome that is caused from S. Aureus

A

1) Gastroenteritis Symptoms
2) Diffuse Rash: Palms and Soles
3) Shock, Hypotension, and Death

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10
Q

What toxin causes toxic shock syndrome?

A

TSST-1 Toxin

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11
Q

S. Epidermidis Virulence Factor

A

Biofilms

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12
Q

What does S. Epidermidis cause?

A

Subacute endocarditis

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13
Q

What is honeymoon cystitis?

What causes it?

A

1) UTI

2) Staphylococcus Saprophyticus

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14
Q

What type of Hemolysis is Beta?

What Bacteria are associated with it?

A

Complete

Strep. Pyogenes and S. Agalactiae

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15
Q

What organisms are alpha hemolysis?

A

** Partial Hemolysis
S.Pneumoniae
S. Viridans

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16
Q

S. Pyogenes virulence factor

A

M Protein

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17
Q

Function of M Protein?

What organism is it associated with?

A

Inhibits Complement Activation

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18
Q

Signs of Streptococcal Pharyngitis

A

1) Exudate and pus of the palatine tonsils and pharynx

2) High Fever

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19
Q

What Diseases does S. Pyogenes (6)

A

1) Scarlet Fever
2) Streptococcal Pharyngitis
3) Necrotizing Faciitis
4) Erysipelas
5) Rheumatic Fever
6) Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis

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20
Q

Symptoms of Scarlet Fever

What Organism causes it?

A

1) S. Pyogenes

2) Symptoms
- Fever, Rash on Trunk, and Neck (spares face)
- Erythematous “Strawberry” Tongue
- Pharyngitis

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21
Q

What Toxin causes Scarlet Fever

A

Pyrogenic (Erythrogenic) Exotoxin

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22
Q

What population normally gets Scarlet Fever

A

School Age Children

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23
Q

Erysipelas is caused by ___

A

S. Pyogenes

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24
Q

Appearance of Erysipelas

A

1) Sunburn Type appearance on Face

2) Warm to Touch

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25
Q

What is the peak age of incidence of Erysipelas that is caused by Erysipelas

A

60-80

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26
Q

What is Necrotizing Faciitis

A

1) Rapidly Progressive Infection

2) Purplish discoloration and very painful

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27
Q

What does Rheumatic Fever Follow?

A

Group A Streptococcus Pharyngitis

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28
Q

Signs and Symptoms of Acute Rheumatic Fever: JONES

A

1) Migratory Polyarthritis (large joints)
2) Pancarditis (pericarditis, mitral valvulitis)
3) Subcutaneous Nodules
4) Erythema Marginatum
5) Sydenham Chorea

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29
Q

Signs of Migratory Polyarthritis

A

Pain spreads to different joints

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30
Q

Sings of Erythema MArginatum

A

Curved, ring shaped macular rash

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31
Q

Syndham Chorea signs

A 
Hopping 
Halting 
Gait 
Asymmetric Jerking 
Grimacing
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32
Q

What causes Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis

A

1) Pharyngitis

2) Skin Infection

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33
Q

Presentation of Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis in children

A

Edema
Hypertension
Hematuria
Proteinuria

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34
Q

What tests confirms Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis

A

1) Detection of Antibodies to:
- Streptolysin O
- DNase B

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35
Q

Streptococcus Agalactiae (Group B Streptococcus) Diseases

A

1) Neonatal Meningitis
2) Pneumonia
3) Sepsis

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36
Q

___ is a ascending infection from vagina

A

Streptococcus Agalactiae

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37
Q

What are the most common causes of Neonatal Meningitis

A

1) Strep Agalactiae
2) Listeria Monocytogenes
3) E. Coli

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38
Q

Virulence factor of S. Pneumoniae

A

IgA Protease

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39
Q

Streptococcus Pneumoniae is ___ reaction positive

A

Quellung

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40
Q

S. Pneumoniae is ___ sensitive

A

Optochin

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41
Q

What is the most common cause of community acquired pneumonia

A

S. Pneumoniae

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42
Q

Signs of Pneumonia caused by S, Pneumoniae

A

1) Lobar Consolidative Pattern
2) High Fever
3) Cough and COB

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43
Q

S. Pneumonia commonly infects who?

A

Elderly (Older than 65)

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44
Q

Classic Triad of S. Pneumoniae Meningitis

A

1) High Fever
2) Nuchal ridgidity
3) Abnormal Mental status changes

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45
Q

1 cause of meningitis in young children

A

S. Pneumoniae

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46
Q

Most common bacterial causes of otitis media

A

1) S. Pneumoniae
2) Herophilus Influenzae (non-typeable)
3) Moraxella Catarrhalis

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47
Q

Presentation of Streptococcus Pneumoniae

A
  • Ear Pain
  • Tugging/pulling at ear
  • Bulging tympanic membrane
  • Hyperemia
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48
Q

Which bacteria causes severe disease in asplenic pts

A

1) S. Pneumoniae
2) Haemophilus Influenzae (Type B)
3) Neisseria Meningitis

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49
Q

Diseases caused By Viridans

A

1) Dental Caries (Cavities) - S. Mutans

2) Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis

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50
Q

Which bacterium causes subacute endocarditis after dental procedures

A

S. Viridans

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51
Q

Bacillus Cereus Toxins

A

1) Heat Stabile Toxin

2) Heat Labile Toxin

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52
Q

Which Bacillus Cereus Toxin causes Emetic Diseas

A

Heat Stabile

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53
Q

Which Bacillus Cereus Toxin causes watery diarrhea

A

Heat Labile

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54
Q

Despite Cooking (ex: reheated rice) what bacteria typically infects pts? Gram positive

A

Bacillus Cereus

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55
Q

What diseases does Bacillus Cereus cause

A

1) Emetic Disease

2) Watery Diarrheal Disease

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56
Q

What Diseases cause Bacillus Anthracis

A

1) Cutaneous Anthrax “Malignant Pustule”

2) Inhalational Anthrax

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57
Q

Mechanism of Inhalational Anthrax

A

1) Pulm. Spores –>

Mediastinal Hemorrhage –> Death

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58
Q

Which Gram Positive Bacteria is an agent of bioterrorism

A

Bacillus Anthracis

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59
Q

Discribe all clostridium species?

A

1) Gram Positive

2) Anaerobic Spore Forming Bacteria

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60
Q

What is the cause of antibiotic associated colitis

A

C. Difficile

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61
Q

Virulence Factors of C. Difficile

A

1) Toxin A

2) Toxin B

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62
Q

C. Difficile: Toxin A and B function

A

Toxin A: Increased inflammation, increased fluid secretion (diarrhea)

Toxin B: Cytotoxic to colonic epithelial cells

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63
Q

Pathologic findings of C. Difficile

A

Pseudomembranous Colitis

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64
Q

What is Pseudomembranous Colitis

A

Mucopurulent Exudative Plaques

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65
Q

What organism inhibits acetylcholine at neuromuscular junction

A

C. Botulinum

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66
Q

Which gram positive bacteria is associated with deep puncture wounds but rusty needles

A

C. Tetani

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67
Q

What bacteria causes arching of head, neck and spine/body

A

C. tetani

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68
Q

Neurotoxin of C. Tetani inactivates

A

Glycine

GABA

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69
Q

What results in severe muscle spasms, lock jaw and opisthotonos?

A

C. Tetani

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70
Q

What causes gas gangrene

A

C. Perfringens

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71
Q

What disease causes Myonecrosis

A

C. Perfringens

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72
Q

What toxin does C. Perfringens have?

A

alpha toxin (lecithinase)

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73
Q

What is the C. Perfringens disease manifestations?

A

Cellulitis/Wound infections –> Myonecrosis and crepitus

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74
Q

Virulence factor of Corynebacterium

A

AB Exotoxin

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75
Q

MOA of AB Exotoxin

A

Inactivates EF2 preventing mRNA translation

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76
Q

What bacteria appears black on potassium tellurite agar

A

Corynebacterium Diptheriae

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77
Q

What is the shape of Corynebacterium

A

Pleomorphic and Club Shaped

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78
Q

What bacteria is grown on Loeffler’s medium?

A

Corynebacterium Diptheriae

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79
Q

Diseases caused by C. Diptheriae

A

1) Pharyngitis w/ pseudomembrane formation

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80
Q

If C. Diptheriae is scraped off what is a consequence

A

Systemic absorption of toxin

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81
Q

what are some systemic affects of the toxin - C. Diptheriae

A

Myocarditis

Neural Involvement

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82
Q

C. Diptheriae: Systemic Toxin

1) Myocarditis
2) Neural Involvement

A

1) Myocarditis: Dysrhythmias and AV conduction block

2) Neural involvement: Cranial and Peripheral Nerve Palsies

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83
Q

Clinical findings of Rhodococcus Equi?

A

Cavities with air-fluid levels

** Immunocompromised causes pulmonary disease

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84
Q

Which gram positive organism moves via tumbling motility

A

Listeria Monocytogenes

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85
Q

At what temperatures does Listeria Monocytogenes grow

A

Cooler Temoperatures

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86
Q

What foods are associated with Listeria Monocytogenes

A

1) Dairy Products: Milk and cheese

2) Meat: Deli and hot dogs

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87
Q

Due to a gram positive bacteria What population should avoid milk, cheese, deli, and hot dogs?

Why?

A

1) Pregnant Women

2) Listeria Monocytogenes

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88
Q

Diseases caused by Listeria Monocytogenes

A

1) Granulomatous Infantiseptica

2) Neonatal Meningitis (2-3wks after birth)

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89
Q

What is granulomatous infantiseptica

A

Widespread granulomas and often fatal

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90
Q

Listeria Monocytogenes can cause ____ in pregnant women

A

Sepsis

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91
Q

Lsit the gram - diplococci

A

1) Neisseria Meningitis
2) Neisseria Gonorrhea
3) Moraxella Catarrhalis

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92
Q

Neisseria Species are ___ gram negative diplococci

A

Intracellular

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93
Q

What do neisseia species grow on?

A

Chocolate Agar (Heated blood agar) - Thayer-MArtin Agar

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94
Q

Where does Neisseria Meningitis colonize

A

Nasopharynx

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95
Q

Major Virulence factors of Neisseria Meningitis

A

Capsule
IgA1 protease
Pili
Contains LPS (Endotoxin)

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96
Q

Susceptible populations of Neisseria Meningitis

A

1) Neonates, 1/2 to 2 yrs
2) Military Recruits
3) College Students (Dorms)
4) Asplenia/Hyposplenia

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97
Q

What diseases is caused by Neisseria Meningitis

A

1) Meningitis: Fever stiff neck, nausea/vomiting, rash
2) Meningococcemia
- Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome

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98
Q

What is Whaterhous Friderichsen syndrome

A

1) Bilateral Adrenal Hemorrhage w/ insufficiency
2) Severe Hypotension
3) Disseminated intravascular thrombosis
4) Death

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99
Q

What bacteria causes Meningococcemia with dermal vascular thrombosis purpura fulminans

A

Neisseria Meningitis

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100
Q

What diseases does Neisseria gonorrhoeae cause

A

1) Urethritis - Male and Female
2) Acute Epidiymitis - male
3) Cervicitis and Pelvic Inflammatory Disease - Male
4) Perihepatitis (Fits-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome
5) Ophthalmia Neonatorum (Neonatal Conjunctivits)

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101
Q

Moraxella Catarrhalis grows on ____

A

Chocolate Agar

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102
Q

E Coli is a ___ Fermenter

A

Lactose

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103
Q

On a ____ agar lactose fermenters show a pink color change with ___ pH

A

1) MAcConkey

2) Decrease

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104
Q

On _____ Lactose fermenters show color change of black with metallic sheen.

A

Eosin Methylene Blue (EMB)

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105
Q

How does E. Coli (apart of normal flora)adhere to host cells

A

Pili

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106
Q

Diseases caused by E. Coli

A

Diarrhea
Meningitis (Esp. Neonatal)
Urinary Tact Infection
Pneumnia

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107
Q

Which E. Coli results in water diarrhea and abdominal cramps

A

ETEC

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108
Q

How is ETEC transmitted

A

Fecally contaminated food or water

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109
Q

ETEC toxins

A 
Heat Labile (cholera-like)
Heat Stabile (ST) Toxins
110
Q

Which ecoli causes bloody diarrhea and fever and has the smae invasive plasmid as Shigella

A

EIEC

111
Q

Which Ecoli produces Shiga-like toxin 1 or 2?

What disease does it cause

A

1) EHEC

2) Bloody Diarrhea and abdominal cramps

112
Q

What causes Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)

Symptoms and Toxin

A

1) EHEC E. Coli 0157

2) Anemia, Thrombocytopenia, Renal Damage/Failure (Uremia); Stx2

113
Q

What is the most common cause of UTI

A

E. Coli

114
Q

MOA of Shiga Toixin

A

1) Inhibits protein synthesis via 60S ribosomal subunit –> Cell Death

115
Q

Sz of Shigella

A

1) High Fever

2) Bloody diarrhea

116
Q

List common places for Shigella outbreak

A

1) Preschool Daycare centers

2) Nursing homes

117
Q

What bacteria is associated with gallbladder adenocarcinoma

A

Salmonella Typhi

118
Q

What bacteria produces H2S

A

Salmonella

119
Q

Salmonella is motile via ____

A

Flagella

120
Q

_____ causes a chronically inflamed gallbladder epithelium

A

Salmonella

121
Q

Transmission of salmonella

A

1) Contaiminated Foods
-Chicken
Eggs
Spinach

122
Q

What two bacteria mimic appendicitis

A

Yersinia Enterocolitica

Campylobacter Jejuna

123
Q

What cause Typhoid fever

A

Salmonella Typhi

124
Q

List symptoms of Typhoid fever

A

1) Stepwise Fever
2) Diffuse and Colicky right upper quadrant abdominal pain
3) Delirium “Typhoid Encephalopathy”; Fever Peaks (104)
4) ROSE SPOTS = Bacterial Emboli

125
Q

What dose non-typhoidal salmonella cause

A

1) Watery Diarrhea with N/V

126
Q

Transmission of Yersinia Enteroclitica

A

Contaminated Milk Products

127
Q

What bacteria has a swarming growth pattern and is a common cause of UTI in nosocomial setting

A

Proteus Mirabilis

128
Q

Proteus Mirabilis is ___ Positive

A

Urease

129
Q

Klebsiella Pneumoniae is a _____ Gran negative rod and is common in ___ and ___ pts

A

1_ Encapsulated

2) Alcoholics
3) Hospitalized

130
Q

What causes necrotizing, cavitary pneumonia with currant jelly sputum?

A

Klebsiella Pneumoniae

131
Q

Which bacteria has a distinctive grape-like scent

A

Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

132
Q

Pseudomonas Aeruginosa is (anaerobic/aerobic)

A

Aerobic

133
Q

Pseudomonas Aeruginosa produces a __-___ pigament

A

Green-Blue

134
Q

Which pts are at risk for Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

A

1) Cf pts
2) Burn victums
3) Debilitated, hospitalized pts
4) Swimmers

135
Q

What type of diseases doe pseudomonas cause

A

1) Pulnonary infections (mild bronchitis to pneumonia)
- CF patients

2) Primary Skin/wound infections
- Burn Wound pts
- Swimmers : Otitis Externa and Hot Tub Folliculitis

136
Q

Bacteroides Fragilis is a ___ anaerobe

A

obligate

137
Q

What bacteria compromises 99% of normal gut flora

A

B. Fragilis

138
Q

What dose Bacteroides Fragilis cause?

A

Abscess after Bowel injuries’ or perforations

139
Q

Vibrio cholerae is __ shaped

A

Comma

140
Q

Disease caused by Vibrio Cholerae

A

Profuse watery diarrhea

141
Q

MOA of Vibrio Cholerae

A

1) Cholera Toxin
- Activates cAMP
- Osmotic Pull of water into lumen

142
Q

Transmission of Vibrio Cholerae

A

Fecal-oral transmission in brackish and marine waters

143
Q

Transmission of Vibrio parahaemolyticus and vulnificus

A

1) Raw Seafood (Oysters)

144
Q

Symptoms of Vibrio Parahaemolyticus

A

Water Diarrhea

N/V

145
Q

Sx of Vibrio Vulnificus

A

1) Consumption: Septicemia - Fever, Hypotension, N/V/D

2) Direct Handling: Progressive wound infection
- Hemorrhagic skin lesion

146
Q

What organisms cause Reiter’s Syndrome/Reactive Arthritis (Many of the Enteric Bacteria)

A

1) Salmonella
2) Shigella
3) Campylobacter Jejuni
4) Yersinia Enterocolitica
5) C. Difficile

147
Q

Triad of Reiter’s Syndrome

A

1) Conjunctivitis
2) Urethritis
3) Arthritis

148
Q

What gene is associated with Reactive Arthritis

A

HLA-B27

149
Q

What causes Guillain-Barre Syndrome

A

Campylobacter Jejuni

150
Q

What is the shape of Campylobacter Jejuni

A

Comma

151
Q

Transmission of Campylobacter Jejuni

A

1) Uncooked meat (chicken)

2) Unpasteurized Milk

152
Q

Sx of Campylobacter Jejuni

A

1) Fever
2) Severe Abdominal Pain
3) Diarrhea (+/- blood)
4) can mimic acute appendicitis
5) Guillian-Barre Syndrome

153
Q

Sx of Yersinia Enterocolitica

A

1) Fever
2) Abdominal Pain
3) Diarrhea
4) Pseudoappendicitis (ileitis and mesenteric lymphadenitis)H

154
Q

What is Guillain Barre Syndrome

A

Ascending Flaccid Paralysis

155
Q

What is the shape of H. Pylori?

A

Curvilinear Rod (Spirilla)

156
Q

H. Pylori is ___ Positive and can be tested via CLO test.

A

Urease

157
Q

Diseases caused by H. Pylori

A

1) Chronic Gastritis (N/V)

2) Gastric and Duodenal Ulcers (pain)

158
Q

Long term risks of H. Pylori

A

1) Gastric B Cell Lymphoma

2) Gastric Adenocarcinoma

159
Q

Pt presents with hacking cough followed by a high pitched inspiratory whoop. what is the moa of the bacteria.

A

1) Pertussis Toxin –> Increased cAMP:
- Increased Histamine effect
- Decreased phagocytosis and Lymphocytosis

160
Q

What bacteria causes whooping cough

A

Bordetella pertussis

161
Q

Diseases caused by Legionella Pneumophila

A

1) Pontiac Fever -self-limited fever illness

2) Legionnaires Disease: Severe multilobular pneumonia w. abscess

162
Q

H. Influenzae grows on ___

A

chocolate agar

163
Q

Haemophilus species require

A

1) Hemin and NAD (X and V factors)

- Found in blood

164
Q

Haemophilus Influenzae is ___ which protects it against phagocytosis

A

Encapsulated

-Polysaccharide

165
Q

Hib vaccination of H. Influenzae is given when?

A

1 1/2 years

166
Q

Encapsulated (Typeable) H. influenzae causes:

A

1) Early Childhood Meningitis

2) Acute Epiglottitis: Fever, sore throat –> wheezing and drooling

167
Q

Unencapsulated Hib causes

A

Otitis Media

168
Q

H. Ducreyi “chancroid” causes

A

1) Painful genital ulcer “chancroid” = STD

- Painful unilateral suppurative inguinal lymphadenopathy

169
Q

Which bacteria causes a school of fish arrangement on gram stain

A

H. Ducreyi

170
Q

Where is H. Ducreyi seen?

A

Endemic Developing Regions: Asia, Africa, Caribbean

171
Q

What bacteria causes Syphilis

A

Treponema Pallidum

172
Q

What bacteria cause a painless ulcer? Which on also causes painful suppurative lymphadenopathy

A

1) Treponema Pallidum; Klebsiella Granulomatis; Chlamydia Trachomatis
2) Chlamydia Trachomatis

173
Q

Cause of bacteria vaginitis

A

Gardnerella Vaginalis

174
Q

How is Gardnerella Vaginalis detected

A

Pap Smear w/ Clue Cells

175
Q

Symptoms of Gardnerella Vaginalis

A

Fishy Smelling Discharge
Pruritus
Dysuria

176
Q

What are the 4 zoonotic bacilli

A

Yersinia pestis
Francisella tularensis
Brucella species
Pasteurella Multocida

177
Q

Diseases caused by Yersinia Pestis

A

1) Bubonic Plague

2) Pneumonic Plague

178
Q

What is the shape of yersinia Pestis

A

Safety pin bipolar shape

179
Q

Symptoms of bubonic plague

A

1) Hemorrhage under skin “black death”
2) Lymp nodes - hot painful “buboes”
3) Fever
4) Headache

180
Q

Vector and Reservoir of Yersinia Pestis

A

1) Fleas

2) Prairie Dogs

181
Q

How is Francisella Tularensis transmitted

A

1) Rabbits

2) Tick/Deerfly Bite

182
Q

Diseases caused by Francisella Tularensis

A

1) Ulceroglandular Tularemia - Bubonic plague w/ painful skin ulcer
2) Pneumonic Tularemia

183
Q

Which zoonotic bacteria can be used as potential agents of bioterrorism

A

Yersina Pestis

Francisella Tularensis

184
Q

How is Brucella Species transmitted?

A

1) Milk
2) infected milk
3) placenta

185
Q

Sx of Brucella infection

A

1) Undulant Fever and night sweats

2) Anemia and Leukopenia

186
Q

What is pasteruella multocida caused by

A

cats and dogs bite/scratch

187
Q

What dose Pasteurella Multocida cause

A

Wound infection - Cellulitis

188
Q

Pasteurella Multocida is a ___ anaerobe

A

Facultative

189
Q

What causes cat scratch disease

A

Bartonella Henselae

190
Q

Sx of cat scratch disease

A

1) low grade fever
2) malaise lymphadenopathy
3) Bacillary angiomatosis

191
Q

What is bacillary angiomatosis

A

1) Red papules or nodules

- proliferation of vessels in edematous stroma

192
Q

List the Obligate Intracellular Bacteria

A

1) Chalmydia Species
2) Rickettsia Species
3) Coxiella Burnetti (Q fever)
4) Ehrlichia Chaffeensis

193
Q

Two forms of Chlamydia Species

A

1) Elementary Body - Infectious Particle

2) Reticulate Body - Mature particle that steals energy

194
Q

How do the Chlamydia species steal energy from host

A

1) ATP/ADP Translocase

195
Q

Diseases cause by Chlamydia Trachomatis

A

1) Most common bacterial STI
2) Neonatal Blindness
3) Non-Gonococcal Urethritis
4) Epididymitis
5) PID and Cervicitis
6) Trachoma
7) Neonatal Inclusion Conjunctivitis
8) Perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome)
9) Lymphogranuloma Venereum

196
Q

Serotypes for Lymphogranuloma Venereum

What causes it

A

1) L Serotypes (L1, L2, L3)

2) Chlamydia Trachomatis

197
Q

What disease does Chlamydia Psittaci “Psittacosis” cause?

A

1) Atypical Pneumonia (Dry Cough w/ low grade fever and patchy interstitial changes)

198
Q

How is Chlamydia psittaci transmitted

A

1) Bird Exposure (Feces, and dried out feathers)

199
Q

How does Rickettsia species get their energy?

A

1) ATP/ADP Translocase

200
Q

+ Weil-Felix test shows ____

A

Agglutination by OX antibodies

201
Q

What species have a + Weil-Felix Test?

A

1) Rickettsia Except R. Akari (Rickettsialpox)

2) Proteus

202
Q

General symptoms of Rickettsia spp.

A

1) Fever
2) Rash
3) Thrombocytopenia

203
Q

R. Rickettsii causes what disease?

A

Rocky mountain spotted fever

204
Q

Sx of Rocky mountain spotted fever/?

What causes it?

A

1) Fever, Centripetal Rash on palms and soles

2) R. Rickettsii

205
Q

Where is Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever Prevalent

A

1) Central, Southeast USA

206
Q

What rickettsia spp. causes blister/eschar that is self limited.

What is the disease called?

A

R. Akari

2) Rickettsialpox

207
Q

What is the vector of R. Akari

A

Mite

208
Q

What is important about R. Akari

A

1) Weil-Felix Negative

209
Q

What causes Scrub Typhus

A

R. Tsutsugamushi

210
Q

What is the vector for Scrub Typhus?

What causes Scrub Typhuus?

A

Mite

R. Tsutsugamushi

211
Q

What a Rickettsia Spp. have mites as a vector?

A

1) R. Akari

2) R. Tsutsugamushi

212
Q

Symptoms of Scrub Typhus?

Where is it found

A

1) High fever w/ maculopapular rash

2) Southeastern Asia, Pacific

213
Q

What causes epidemic Typhus

A

R. Prowazekii

214
Q

Vector for R. ProwazekIi

A

Louse

215
Q

Unsanitary, Crowded Conditions and Flying squirrels are characteristics of which Rickettsiia Spp.’

What disease does it cause?

A

R. Prowazekii

Epidemic Typhus: Fever and Rash

216
Q

What causes Murine Endemic Typhus

A

R. Typhi

217
Q

Vector for R. Typhi

A

Flea

218
Q

Transmission of Coxiella Burnetti (Q Fever)

A

1) Cattle, Sheep, Goats

2) Hide and Birth Products

219
Q

Sx of Q fever:

A

1) Fever

2) Atypical Pneumonia

220
Q

What is Erlichia Chaffeensis

A

Tick born illness similar to RMSF but no rash

221
Q

Where is Ehrlichia Chaffeensis found?

A

Southeast and Central US

222
Q

List the Spirochetes

A

1) Treponema
2) Borrelia
3) Leptospira

223
Q

What is Treponema Pallidum

A

Syphilis

224
Q

Discribe Primary Syphilis

A

1) Painless Chancre develops after 3-6 wks of contact

225
Q

How long does it take for secondary syphilis to present

A

6 wks

226
Q

Sx of Secondaary Syphilis

A

1) Condyloma Lata

2) Red rash: Palms and Soles w/ patchy hair loss

227
Q

How long does it take for tertiary syphilis to present

A

1) 6-40 yrs

228
Q

Sx of Tertiary Syphilis

A

1) Gummatous Lesion (skin and bone involvement)
2) Cardiovascular Syphilis: Thoracic Aortic Aneurysm
3) Neurosyphilis: Meningitis and Tabes Doralis
4) Argyll Robinson Pupils

229
Q

What is Tabes Doralis?

What causes it?

A

1) Posterior Columns - Loss of pain and temperature w/ decreased coordination

230
Q

What is Argyll Robinson Pupils

A

1) Syphilitic lesion in midbrain
2) Pupils constrict to focus on near object
- Dont react to light

231
Q

When does Treponema Pallidum cross the placental barrier

A

4th month of pregancy

232
Q

When does congenital syphilis present

A

1) 2yrs of birth

233
Q

Presentation of Congenital Syphilis

A

1) Mucous Membrane (Rhinitis) “ Snuffles”

2) Develops Secondary Syphilis: Rash on palms and soles

234
Q

Late Congenital Syphilis presentation time

A

> 2 yrs

235
Q

Presentation of Late Congenital Syphilis

A

1) Neurosyphilis (deafness) and Bone/Teeth Envolvement

236
Q

Hutchinson’s Teeth ( Central Tooth notching) is Characteristic of ___

A

Late Congenital Syphilis

237
Q

what are Saber Shins

What does it indicate

A

Bowing of the Tibia

Late Congenital Syphilis

238
Q

Screening Tests for Syphilis

A

1) VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Lab

2) RPR (Rapid Plasma Reagin)

239
Q

Diagnostic Test for Syphilis

A

FTA-ABS

- Indirect immunofluorescent Treponemal Antibody-Absorption

240
Q

What is the vector for Borrelia Burgdorferi

A

1) Ixodes Tick (Backlegged Tick)

241
Q

Reservoir for Borrelia Burgodorferi

A

Deer

242
Q

What does Borrelia Burgdorferi cause

A

Lyme Disease

243
Q

What causes Lyme Disease

A

Borrelia Burgdorferi

244
Q

Where is Lyme Disease common

A

1) Northwest USA

2) Upper Midwest

245
Q

What is the # 1 tick borne-illness

A

Borrelia Burgdorferi - Lyme Disease

246
Q

Stages of Lyme Disease

A

1) Early Localized Disease: Erythema MIGRANS (at bite site)

2) Early Disseminated Disease: Nervous Sys. Heart and Joints
- Bell’s Palsy
- Carditis
- Knee Problems

3) Late Disease: Chronic Arthritis and Encephalopathy

247
Q

What is the vector for Borrelia Recurrentis

A

Body Louse

248
Q

Disease causaed by Borrelia Recurrentis

A

Relapsing Fever

249
Q

Where is Borrelia Recurrentis found

A

Western USA

250
Q

List the Acid Fast Bacilli

A

1) M. Tuberculosis
2) M. Leprae
3) M. Avium Complex (MAC)

251
Q

What morphology is seen in both tuberculosis and leprosy?

A

Necrotizing Granulomata and Giant Cells

- due to cell mediated immunity

252
Q

How is Tb Diagnosed

A

1) Tuberculin Skin Test and Interferon-gamma release assay

253
Q

What carries Leprosy (Hansen’s Disease)

A

Armadillos in Southern USA

254
Q

@ what temperatures does Leprosy grown at

A

Cooler temperatures

255
Q

Where does Primary Tb infection begin>

A

Lungs

256
Q

Who does primary tb affect>

A

1) Immunocompromised
2) Elderly
3) Young

257
Q

Sx of primary Tb

A

1) Fever
2) Chest Pain
3) Hilar Lymphadenopathy

258
Q

Secondary Tb occurs when?

Sx:

A

1) Months to years later
2) Low grade fever and night sweats and hemoptysis
- Upper lobes

259
Q

What causes Miliary Tb?

What is it>

A

1) Secondary Tb

2) Innumerable lesions throughout organs

260
Q

Vertebral Miliary Tuberculosis is known as …

A

Pott’s Disease

261
Q

Diseases caused by Mycobacterium leprae

A

1) Tuberculoid Leprosy

2) Lepromatous Leprosy

262
Q

Which leprosy Dz s caused by a strong cell mediated response and localized skin lesions w/ granulomatous inflammation

A

Tuberculoid Leprosy

263
Q

Whic leprosy causes unilateral skin/nerve sensation loss

A

Tuberculoid Leprosy

264
Q

Lepromatous Leprosy is _____ cell mediated

A

No/minimal

265
Q

____ causes a disseminated disease where there are skin lesions that cover body and organ involvement. Mycobacterium

A

Lepromatous leprosy

266
Q

Sx of Mycobacterium Avium Complex: in immunocompetent individuals

A

1) Low grade pneumonia

267
Q

What does MAC cause in AIDs pts

When>

A

1) Unexplained Weight loss, fever, diarrhea

2) CD4 T cell count <50

268
Q

List bacteria w/o cell walls

A

Mycoplasma Pneumoniae
Mycoplasma Genitalium
Ureaplasma Urealyticum

269
Q

What causes walking pneumonia

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

270
Q

Sx of walking pneumonia

A

1) Mild, self limited bronchitis and pneumonia

271
Q

Diadnostic tests for mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

Cold agglutinins (nonspecific)

272
Q

What type of rash is M. Pneumoniae associated with

A

Erythema Multiforme: Multiple target lesion spread from Hands –> Trunk

MOD Microbiology (5 decks)

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