Back & Vertebral Column Flashcards

1
Q

Where does the vertebral column extend from and to?

A

Cranium to the apex of the coccyx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What skeleton is the vertebral column a part of?

A

Axial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the five functions of the vertebral column?

A

To protect the spinal cord and spinal nerves

To support the weight of the body

To provide a site for muscle attachment

To play an important role in posture and locomotion

To provide shock absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How does the vertebral column support the weight of the body?

A

It carries and transits weight from the upper body to the lower limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What two structures in the vertebral column provide shock absorption?

A

Curvatures of the spine

IV discs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How many vertebrae are in the vertebral column?

A

33

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the five different regions of the vertebral column?

A

Cervical

Thoracic

Lumbar

Sacral

Coccygeal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How many vertebrae are found in the cervical region of the vertebral column?

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How many vertebrae are found in the thoracic region of the vertebral column?

A

12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How many vertebrae are found in the lumbar region of the vertebral column?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How many vertebrae are found in the sacral region of the vertebral column?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How many vertebrae are found in the coccygeal region of the vertebral column?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What do the five sacral vertebrae fuse to form?

A

Sacrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What do the four coccygeal vertebrae fuse to form?

A

Coccyx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What happens to the size of the vertebrae as we descend the vertebral column to the sacrum?

A

Increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What happens to the size of the vertebrae as we descend the vertebral column from the sacrum to the apex of the coccyx?

A

Decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why does the size of the vertebrae change throughout the vertebral column?

A

Successive vertebrae bear increasing amounts of body weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where do the vertebrae reach the maximum size? Why?

A

Immediately superior to the sacrum

This is where weight is transferred to the pelvic grille at the scar-iliac joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In which vertebrae is there significant motion? Why?

A

Superior 25, therefore from C1-S1

The pre-sacral vertebral column is joined by IV discs, giving it more flexibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How is flexibility in the pre-sacral vertebral column controlled?

A

Synovial zygoapophysial joints, which these vertebrae articulate at

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How many curvatures are there in the vertebral column?

A

Four

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How many concave curvatures are there in the vertebral column? Which sections do they occur in? What are these curvatures referred to as? How do they curve the spine?

A

Two

Cervical

Lumbar

Lordoses

Posteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How many convex curvatures are there in the vertebral column? Which sections do they occur in? What are these curvatures referred to as? How do they curve the spine?

A

Two

Thoracic

Sacral

Kyphoses

Anteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the two primary curvatures? What does this mean?

A

Kyphoses

They develop during the fetal period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What curves are present in a foetus? What does this mean, in terms of the shape of the spine?

A

Kyphoses only

It’s convex shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How are primary curvatures retained throughout life?

A

Differences in height between the anterior and posterior parts of the vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the two secondary curvatures? What does this mean?

A

Lordoses

They develop during infancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What results in the cervical curvature developing?

A

An infant beginning to hold their head erect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What results in the lumbar curvature developing?

A

An infant beginning to walk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the two roles of curvatures in the spine?

A

To provide additional flexibility

To provide shock absorbing resilience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the three abnormal curvatures?

A

Excessive thoracic kyphosis

Excessive lumbar lordosis

Scoliosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the short name for excessive thoracic kyphosis?

A

Kyphosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is kyphosis?

A

When the convex curvature in the thoracic region is excessively curved

This means that the spine curves more posteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the cause of kyphosis?

A

Erosion of the anterior part of one or more vertebrae

This erosion can be due to osteoporosis or age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the short name for excessive lumbar lordosis?

A

Lordosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is lordosis?

A

When the concave curvature curvature in the lumbar region is excessively curved

This means that the spine curves more anteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the cause for lordosis?

A

Pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is scoliosis?

A

An abnormal lateral (sideways) curvature that is accompanied by rotation of the vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

With scoliosis, in what direction do the spinous processes turn?

A

Towards the cavity of the abnormal curvature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Who is usually affected by scoliosis?

A

Adolescents during puberty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the three causes of scoliosis?

A

Asymmetric weakness of the intrinsic back muscles

Failure of half of a vertebra to develop

A difference in the length of the lower limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the two main components which make up the vertebrae?

A

Vertebral body

Vertebral arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Is the vertebral body at the anterior or posterior section of the vertebrae?

A

Anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the two functions of the vertebral bodies?

A

To give the vertebral column strength

To support the weight of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What happens to the size of the vertebral bodies as we move down the vertebral column? Why?

A

Increases

To bear the progressively greater body weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the superior and inferior surfaces of the vertebral bodies covered with? How? What is its function?

A

Hyaline cartilage

This is remnants of the cartilaginous model from which bone develops from

To allow diffusion of fluid between the IV discs and capillaries in the vertebral body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Is the vertebral arch at the anterior or posterior section of the vertebrae?

A

Posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the six components which make up the vertebral arch?

A

Pedicles

Lamina

Vertebral foramen

Spinous process

Transverse process

Articular process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the pedicles?

A

They are short, stout processes which connect the vertebral arch to the vertebral body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How many pedicles are in each vertebrae?

A

Two; right and left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are lamina?

A

Two broad, flat plates of bone which unite in the midline

They comment the transverse process and spinous process together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the vertebral foramen?

A

An enclosed hole within the vertebral arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What forms the walls of the vertebral foramen?

A

The vertebral arch and the posterior surface of the vertebral body form the walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What do all the vertebral foramen line up to form?

A

Vertebral canal, which is also referred to as the intervertebral canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is contained within the vertebral canal?

A

Spinal cord

Meninges

Fat

Spinal nerve roots

Spinal blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How many processes are contained within the vertebral arch?

A

Seven

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the role of the processes?

A

To act as attachment sites for muscles and ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the three types of processes?

A

Spinous

Transverse

Articular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How many spinous processes are in one vertebrae?

A

One

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Where does the spinous process project from? In what direction does it project?

A

From the vertebral arch at the junction of the laminae

Posteriorly and usually inferiorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How many transverse processes are in one vertebrae?

A

Two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Where does the transverse process project from? In what direction does it project?

A

From the junctions of the pedicles and laminae

Posterolaterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What does the transverse processes in the thoracic region articulate with?

A

Ribs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How many articular processes are in one vertebrae?

A

Four; two superior and two inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Where does the articular process project from?

A

From the junctions of the pedicles and laminae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What occurs at the surface of articular process?

A

The processes articulate with other structures

These articulating surfaces are referred to as facets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How do deep back muscles attach to the vertebrae? What is the role of these muscles?

A

Spinous process

Transverse processes

To move the vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What do the articular processes articulate with?

A

Corresponding processes of vertebrae, superior and inferior to them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What joints occur at articular processes?

A

Zygoapophysial facet joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the role of articular processes?

A

To determine the type of movements permitted and restricted between adjacent vertebrae

To keep adjacent vertebrae aligned, particularly one vertebra slipping anteriorly on the vertebrae below

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Describe the three features of a cervical vertebral body

A

Small

Wider than it is tall

The superior surface of the body is concave, and the inferior surface is convex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Describe the features of a cervical vertebral foramen

A

Large and triangular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Describe the two features of a cervical transverse process

A

They have a hole in both of them, which is referred to as the foramina transversia

Posterior and anterior tubercles of transverse processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is contained within the foramina transversia?

A

Vertebral arteries

Vertebral veins

Nerve plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is contained within the foramina transversia of C7?

A

Only small accessory vertebral veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Describe the two features of a cervical articular processes

A

They have superior facets which are directed superoposteriorly

They have inferior facets which are directed inferoanteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Describe the features of a C3-C5 spinous processes

A

Short

Bifibid, which means that they are split into two parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Describe the features of a C7 spinous processes

A

Longest spinous process of all the spinous processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the name given to C7? Why?

A

Vertebra prominens

Longest spinous process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the name given to C1?

A

Atlas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the shape of C1? Why?

A

Ring-like shape

It has no spinous process or vertebral body, and instead consists of two lateral masses which are connected by anterior and posterior arches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What shape are the superior articular facets of C1? What joints form here?

A

Concave

Atlanto-occipital joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What shape are the inferior articular facets of C1? What joints form here?

A

Flat

Atlanto-axial joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the name given to C2?

A

Axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the strongest cervical vertebrae?

A

C2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What unique feature does C2 possess compared to other cervical vertebrae?

A

It has dens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are dens?

A

Superior projections from the vertebral body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the function of dens?

A

To provide a pivot around which the atlas turns and carries the cranium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Describe the three features of a thoracic vertebral body

A

Medium-sized

Heart-shaped

Contains four demi-facets, two on each side, with one being superior and the other being inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What do demi-facets articulate with?

A

The heads of two different ribs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Describe the two features of a thoracic vertebral foramen

A

Circular

Smaller than that of the cervical and lumbar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Describe the three features of a thoracic transverse processes

A

Long

Strong

Extend posterolaterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What happens to the length of transverse processes as we move from T1-T12?

94
Q

What unique feature do the transverse processes of T1-T10 have?

A

Costal facets

95
Q

What do costal facets articulate with?

A

The tubercle of a rib

96
Q

Describe the two features of thoracic spinous processes

A

Long, so long that they overlap adjacent vertebrae

Extend posteroinferiorly

97
Q

Describe the two features of lumbar vertebral bodies

A

Largest body

Kidney/oval shaped

98
Q

Describe the two features of lumbar vertebral foramen

A

Triangular

Larger than the thoracic vertebrae but smaller than the cervical vertebrae

99
Q

Describe the three features of lumbar transverse processes

A

Long

Slender

There are accessory processes on the posterior surface of each process

100
Q

Describe the feature of lumbar articular processes

A

On the superior articular facets, there mammilary processes posteriorly

101
Q

Describe the two features of lumbar spinous processes

A

Short

Thick

102
Q

What is the shape of the sacrum?

A

An inverted triangle, with the apex pointing inferiorly

103
Q

What are the two functions of the sacrum?

A

To provide strength and stability to the pelvis

To transmit body weight to the pelvic gridle

104
Q

What joints form between the sacrum and the pelvis?

A

Sacro-iliac

105
Q

What forms the base of the sacrum?

A

The superior surface of S1

106
Q

What type of joint exists between vertebral bodies?

A

Secondary cartilaginous, which are also referred to as symphyses

107
Q

What are the two functions of secondary cartilaginous joints between vertebrae?

A

To provide strength

To allow weight bearing

108
Q

How are articulating surfaces of vertebrae connected?

A

IV discs

Ligaments

109
Q

What are the three functions of IV discs?

A

To provide shock absorption

To permit flexibility of the spine

To provide strong attachments between the vertebral bodies

110
Q

What are the two components of IV discs?

A

Nucleus puposus

Annulus fibrosis

111
Q

What is the nucleus puposus?

A

The central core of the IV disc

112
Q

What happens to the IV disc when it is compressed?

A

It becomes broader

113
Q

What happens to the IV disc when it is tensed or stretched?

A

It becomes thinner

114
Q

What happens to the IV discs as we age?

A

They usually consist of a high water content. As we age, they becomes dehydrated and collagen starts to collect, causing it to become dry and granular

As a result, the IV discs lose their turgor, becoming thinner, stiffer and more resistant to deformation.

115
Q

What is the annulus fibrosus?

A

A ring consisting of concentric lamellae of fibrocartilage. This forms the circumference of the IV disc, as it surrounds the nucleus puposus

116
Q

What do the annuli insert into?

A

Epiphyseal rims on the articular surfaces of the vertebral bodies

117
Q

What happens to the annulus fibrosis with age?

A

It thickens and often develops fissures and cavities. This means that the nucleus pulposus is no longer centred

118
Q

Between which vertebrae are there no IV discs?

A

Atlas and axis

There are none present in the sacrum or coccyx. This means that the most inferior IV disc is between the L5 and S1 vertebrae

119
Q

In which two regions are IV discs thicker?

A

Cervical

Lumbar

120
Q

In which region are IV discs thinner?

121
Q

Why is their differences in the thickness of IV discs in different regions?

A

The thickness is related to the range of movement

122
Q

What is technical term for a slipped IV disc?

A

Herniation

123
Q

What is herniation?

A

When the nucleus pulposus ruptures, breaking through the annulus fibrosis

124
Q

In what direction does the nucleus puposus rupture?

A

Posterior-lateral direction

125
Q

What does herniation result in? Why?

A

Neurological symptoms

Muscular symptoms

The nucleus puposus compresses nearby spinal nerve roots

126
Q

What two ligaments cover and connect vertebral bodies?

A

Anterior longitudinal ligament

Posterior longitudinal ligament

127
Q

What is the anterior longitudinal ligament? What does it cover and connect?

A

A strong, broad fibrous band

It covers and connects the anterolateral aspects of the vertebral bodies and IV discs

128
Q

What is the function of the anterior longitudinal ligament?

A

To prevent hyperextension of the vertebral column

129
Q

What is the posterior longitudinal ligament? What does it cover and connect?

A

A weak, narrow fibrous band

It covers and connects the posterior aspects of the vertebral bodies and IV discs. Specifically, it is attached mainly to the IV discs and less so to the posterior edges of the vertebral bodies.

130
Q

What is the function of the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

To prevent hyperflexion of the vertebral column

To prevent posterior herniation of the IV discs

131
Q

What is the name of joints which occur between the superior and inferior articular process of adjacent vertebrae?

A

Zygoapophysial joints, also known as facet joints

132
Q

What type of joint are zygoapophysial joints?

A

Synovial plane

133
Q

What is the role of zygoapophysial joints?

A

To allow gliding movements between the articular processes

134
Q

What ligament joins the laminae of adjacent vertebrae?

A

Ligamentum flavum

135
Q

What is the colour of the ligamentum falvum?

136
Q

How does the ligamentum flavum join laminae?

A

It extends almost vertically from the lamina above to the lamina below

137
Q

What is the function of the ligamentum flavum?

A

It resists separation of the vertebral laminae by preventing abrupt flexion of the vertebral column and therefore preventing injury of the IV discs

138
Q

What two ligaments joint adjacent spinous processes?

A

Interspinous ligaments

Supraspinous ligaments

139
Q

What do interspinous ligaments join?

A

The spinous processes

140
Q

What do supraspinous ligaments join?

A

The tips of the spinous processes

141
Q

What are the two craniovertebral joints?

A

Atlanto-occipital joints

Atlanto-axial joints

142
Q

Where do atlanto-occipital joints occur?

A

Between C1 and the occipital bone of the cranium

143
Q

What three movements are permitted by the atlanto-occipital joints?

A

Flexion

Lateral flexion

Rotation

144
Q

What two movements do atlanto-occipital joints allow the head to make?

A

They allow nodding and sideways tilting of the head

145
Q

What type of joints are atlanta-occipital joints?

A

Synovial joints

146
Q

Where do atlanto-axis joints occur?

A

Between C1 and C2

147
Q

What movement do atlanto-axial joints allow the head to make?

A

They permit the head to be turned from side to side, as occurs when rotating the head to indicate disapproval

148
Q

What are costovertebral joints?

A

Joints between the vertebral bodies and the rib heads

149
Q

What type of joints are costovertebral joints?

A

Synovial plane joints

150
Q

What type of movement occurs at costovertebral joints?

A

Sliding and gliding

151
Q

What are the four movements of the vertebral column?

A

Flexion

Extension

Lateral flexion

Rotation

152
Q

In which two regions are movements of the vertebrae freer? Why?

A

Cervical

Lumbar

In the thoracic region, movements are additionally restricted by the attachments of ribs

153
Q

What determines the type of movements in a vertebral column region?

A

The particular orientation of the vertebral articular facets

154
Q

How are the articular facets orientated in the cervical region?

A

Horizontal/transverse plane

155
Q

What three movements occur in the cervical region?

A

Flexion

Extension

Lateral flexion

156
Q

Which two movements are greatest in the cervical region?

A

Flexion

Lateral flexion

157
Q

How are the articular facets orientated in the thoracic region?

A

Coronal plane

158
Q

What three movements occur in the thoracic region?

A

Rotation

Flexion

Lateral flexion

159
Q

What two movements are limited in the thoracic region?

A

Flexion

Lateral flexion

160
Q

How are the articular facets orientated in the lumbar region?

A

Sagittal plane

161
Q

What three movements occur in the lumbar region?

A

Flexion

Extension

Lateral flexion

162
Q

What movement does not occur in the lumbar region?

163
Q

Which two movements are greatest in the lumbar region?

A

Extension

Lateral flexion

164
Q

Where are the spinal cord, spinal meninges and spinal nerve roots contained?

A

Vertebral canal

165
Q

What is the spinal cord?

A

The major reflex centre and conduction pathway between the body and the brain

166
Q

Where does the spinal cord start?

167
Q

Where does the spinal cord end?

A

Opposite the IV discs between L1 and L2 vertebrae

168
Q

What three structures protect the spinal cord?

A

Vertebrae and their associated muscles and ligaments

Spinal meninges

CSF

169
Q

What are meninges?

A

Membranes which cover the spinal cord

170
Q

What are the three types of spinal meninges?

A

Dura

Arachnoid

Pia

171
Q

What is the function of spinal meninges?

A

To surround, support and protect the spinal cord and the spinal nerve roots

172
Q

What is the outermost membrane covering the spinal cord?

173
Q

What is the thickest spinal membrane?

174
Q

What is dura mater composed of?

A

Mainly fibrous tissue; however, it also consists of elastic tissue

175
Q

What separates dura mater from the vertebrae?

A

Epidural space

176
Q

Where is the epidural space located?

A

It is located between the wall of the vertebrae canal and dura mater

177
Q

Where is arachnoid mater located?

A

Between the dura and pia mater

178
Q

How thick is arachnoid mater?

A

It is flimsier than dura mater but thicker than pia mater

179
Q

What is the shape of arachnoid mater?

A

Looks like a dense spider web

180
Q

What is dura mater composed of?

A

Mainly fibrous tissue; however, it also consists of elastic tissue

181
Q

What is the innermost spinal membrane layer?

182
Q

Apart from the spinal cord, what does pia mater also cover?

A

The roots of the spinal nerves and spinal blood vessels

183
Q

What is the thinnest spinal membrane?

184
Q

What is the space between arachnoid and pia mater called?

A

Subarachnoid space

185
Q

What is contained within the subarachnoid space?

186
Q

What is a lumbar puncture?

A

A procedure performed to obtain a sample of CSF for analysis

187
Q

Where is the needle inserted for a lumbar puncture? Why?

A

Between L3 and L4

In an adult the spinal cord ends at L2 so this prevents injury to the spinal cord

In the lumbar region the interspinous distance is greater compared to the thoracic region, and the spinous processes point straight rather than down

188
Q

Where is the needle inserted for a lumbar puncture in kids?

A

Between L4 and L5

189
Q

Why do we ask patients to flex their lumbar spine during a lumbar puncture?

A

This widens this space between the vertebrae, making it easier for the needle to access the subarachnoid space without damage

190
Q

What are the two major groups of muscles in the back?

A

Extrinsic back muscles

Intrinsic back muscles

191
Q

What are the two subcategories of extrinsic back muscles?

A

Superficial

Intermediate

192
Q

What is the role of superficial extrinsic back muscles?

A

To produce and control limb movements

193
Q

What do the superficial extrinsic muscles connect?

A

The upper limbs to the trunk

194
Q

Name three superficial extrinsic muscles

A

Trapezius

Latissimus dorsi

Rhomboids

195
Q

What is the role of intermediate extrinsic back muscles?

A

To produce and control respiratory movements

196
Q

Name three intermediate extrinsic muscles

A

Serratus posterior

Serratus superior

Serratus inferior.

197
Q

What is deeper intrinsic or extrinsic back muscles?

198
Q

What are intrinsic back muscles attached to?

A

The back only, as they are only attached to the spine

199
Q

What are the two functions of the intrinsic back muscles?

A

To maintain posture

To control movements of the vertebral column

200
Q

Where do intrinsic muscles extend from?

A

The pelvis to the cranium

201
Q

What are the three layers of intrinsic back muscles?

A

Superficial

Intermediate

Deep

202
Q

What muscles are in the superficial intrinsic muscle layer?

203
Q

Where are splenius muscles located?

A

The posterior and lateral aspects of the neck and upper part of the thorax

204
Q

What is the function of the splenius muscles?

A

To extend the head and neck

205
Q

What three muscles are in the intermediate intrinsic muscle layer?

A

The iliocostalis (lateral)

Longissimus (intermediate)

Spinalis (medial)

206
Q

What do the three intermediate intrinsic muscle layers form?

A

Erector spinae muscle

207
Q

Where is the erector spinae located?

A

Posterolaterally, between the vertebral spinous processes and the costal angles of the ribs

208
Q

What group of muscles are located in the deep intrinsic muscle layer?

A

Transversospinales

209
Q

What are transversospinales muscles?

A

They are a group of short muscles, which originate from transverse processes of vertebrae and pass to spinous processes of more superior vertebrae

210
Q

What are the three muscles that make up the transversospinales muscle group?

A

The semispinalis

The multifidus

The rotatores

211
Q

What muscles act on the vertebral column?

A

Back

Abdominal

Sternocleidomastoid

212
Q

What three abdominal muscles act on the vertebral column?

A

Obliques

Transverse abdominis

Rectus abdominis

213
Q

What are the two main anterior muscles which act in the vertebral column?

A

Abdominal

Sternocloidmastoid

214
Q

What are the main posterior muscles which act in the vertebral column?

A

Erector spinae

215
Q

Which six vertebrae can easily be identified when palpating the back?

A

C7

C1

T4

T3

T7

L4

216
Q

Why is C7 palpable?

A

Its spinous process is slightly longer than other cervical processes

217
Q

Where can we feel C1?

A

It can be felt midway between the angle of the mandible and the mastoid process, which in other words is behind the ear

218
Q

Why is T4 an important landmark?

A

it is the level at which a number of important structures in the thorax are normally located

219
Q

Where can T3 be palpated?

A

The spine of the scapula

220
Q

Where can T7 be palpated?

A

The inferior angle fo the scapula

221
Q

Where can L4 be palpated?

A

The top of the iliac crests in the pelvis

222
Q

Why is L4 an important landmark?

A

Above or below which lumbar puncture may be performed

223
Q

What three changes occur in the vertebral column as you age?

A

Dehydration of IV discs

Osteoarthritis

Ostoporosis

224
Q

What is osteoarthritis?

A

This is when there is pain and stiffness of joints

225
Q

What two joints are commonly affected by osteoarthritis?

A

Vertebral body joints (secondary cartilaginous)

Facet joints (synovial plane)

226
Q

What is the cause of osteoarthritis?

A

When the articular cartilage at each end of the bones weals down over time

227
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

A bone disease that occurs as a result of more bone resorption occurring than formation. This means that the trabeculae in the spongy bone tissue that are usually well organised and support the bone well, become thin or missing

228
Q

What does osteoporosis result in?

A

Bones becoming weaker and more prone to fracture

229
Q

What type of fractures are likely to occur as a result of osteoporosis?

A

These are fractions which alterthe curvature of the spine, specifically resulting in excessive kyphosis.

230
Q

What type of position is good for taking x-rays?

231
Q

What type of scan is good for assessing IV disc disorders?