Bachata Rosa Flashcards

Question

What is the most common secondary intra-ocular tumor in dogs and cats?

Answer 1

37% | Uveitis

Answer 2

B-cell; considered stage V Uveitis, endophthalmitis (inflammation of the anterior chamber), and 2/5 had abnormalities in contralateral eye PFS/OST 6m 100% in one study

Answer 3

Good prognosis Considered stage I PFS 7.5m, MST 18m All unilateral, 2/4 had a discrete mass Some can be cutaneous epi T-cell LSA Some can develop LN involvement later on

Answer 4

ORR 35% | PFS 40d, if CR 144d

Answer 5

Neutered dogs (males and females)

Answer 6

Dobies, Rotties, Boxers, BMD

Answer 7

Rotties - B cell | Boxers Bordeaux - T cell

Answer 8

High grade T cell

Answer 9

Unlike USA, they are not predisposed to LSA or TZL

Answer 10

50% DLBCL 0% T cell Increased expression of PD1 and PD1L in TIL and chemotherapy resistant cell lines in both B and T cells

Answer 11

Lactate | B-hydroxybutyrate

Answer 12

Asymptomatic LSA dogs have lower GI microbial diversity and higher degree of dysbiosis vs healthy dogs

Answer 13

>3.15% Sensitivity 98% Specificity 100% Ki67

Answer 14

Ki67 > 12.2% 96% sensitive 100% specific

Answer 15

ORR 100% (82% CR, 18% PR) PFS 8.5m MST 11.5m

Answer 16

Thrombocytopenia at dx Greater age at dx High serum globulin concentration

Answer 17

Thrombocytopenia at dx Greater age at dx PR as best response Increased neutrophil count MST 93d or < in these dogs

Answer 18

ORR 94%, CR 75% | PFI 6m, MST 11m (10.7m)

Answer 19

Entire dogs more likely to achieve CR

Answer 20

Absence of anemia at dx | Pre-treatment neutrophil:lymphocyte ratio <9.44

Answer 21

Lymphocyte:monocyte ratio >1.43 Neut:lymph ratio <11.44 Combination of induction and rescue therapy Increased number of doxorubicin doses

Answer 22

STAT3 and ERK1/2

Answer 23

7% PR at 2 mg/m2 | 60% PR at 2.5 mg/m2 - 80% developed neutropenia 1 week post

Answer 24

VBL at 2.6mg/m2 ORR 26% (CR 8%, PR 18%) DFI 30d 6% grade III or IV neut

Answer 25

Chemo protocol completion

Answer 26

Morgan: ORR 94%, CR 83%, PR 11% PFS 14.4m, MST 17m 54% 1-yr PFS, 29% 2-yr PFS Brown: ORR 97%, CR 90%, PR 7% DFI 6m, MST 8m 39% 1-yr SR, 25% 2-yr SR

Answer 27

Morgan: 86% overall (higher) 51% myelosuppression; grade 3+ neut/thrombo in 80% 74% GI; only 13% grade 3+ 23% overall hospitalized; 11% if not including post induction 40% required dose reductions Brown: 42% overall Only 18% required dose reduction

Answer 28

% of tumour cells expressing CSC markers were significantly increased in dogs with BCL, compared with B cells from normal lymph nodes. Similar results in T-cell.

Answer 29

B-cell: higher expression of CD117, CD90, CD34, Oct 3/4 vs normal B cells T-cell: higher expression of Oct 3/4 and downregulation of CD90 vs normal T-cells

Answer 30

ORR: 37%, T-cell 71% TTP 30d Response duration 18d AE: 95% grade 1-2 anorexia 45% weight loss 31% vomiting 26% Hepatopathy also reported 1.75mg/kg PO BID 2-3x per week

Answer 31

Oral selective inhibitor of nuclear export (SINE) ; reversibly binds to XPO1, which is responsible for moving p53, p21, pRb, FOXO, NF-KB into the cytoplasm

Answer 32

North - 8m South - 6m West - 4m

Answer 33

BW >10kg Normocalcemia No BM involvement No steroids

Answer 34

Those getting a higher procarb dose

Answer 35

``` B-cell 95% CR Duration of response 6m MST 7m AE: 27% (similar to historic CHOP data) ``` NPI: Anemia shorter PFI

Answer 36

PFI: shorter if anemia present MST: shorter if BW 13kg or >

Answer 37

North East | East North Central regions

Answer 38

A variant of PTCL-NOS characterized by clonal expansion of T-cells that lack expression of CD45, a pan-leukocyte antigen, within the paracortex and medullary cords of LN resulting in compression of germinal centres. The cells are small to intermediate in size with very rare mitoses. ``` Phenotype: high MHC class II, low-moderate CD21+, CD5+, CD45- Not always CD21+ but high % can be + ```

Answer 39

Goldens - 31% | Non-Goldens - 14%

Answer 40

Golden's WITH TZ cells and clonal TCR - 34% Golden's WITHOUT TZ cells and clonal TCR - 20%

Answer 41

``` Substage b - 34% Stage V dz - 100% Spleen - 97% Hepatic - 80% BM involvement - 60% Extranodal site - lungs ```

Answer 42

Medium-sized CD21+ and +/- CD70a+ lymphocytes Low mitotic activity Histopath: diffuse growth, loss of follicle architecture, thinning of capsule

Answer 43

Poor outcome ORR 100%, CR 80%, PR 20% TTP 5m MST 9m (260d)

Answer 44

Substage b | Elevated serum lactate dehydrogenase

Answer 45

T-cell | Lymphoblastic high-grae

Answer 46

85% - substage b 71% - lethargy Anorexia PU/PD

Answer 47

ORR 93%, CR 70% PFS 4.5m OST 6m

Answer 48

CHOP chemo - improved PFS and OST | Lack of pleural effusion - improved OST

Answer 49

No; overall MST 40d TMZ alone: ORR 32%, TTP 15d, MST 40d TMX/doxo: ORR 60%, TTP 19d, MST 60d

Answer 50

DLBCL; usually an extension vs primary

Answer 51

~70% Increased TNC from which 95-100% are atypical lymphocytes and increased TP

Answer 52

170d (5.6m)

Answer 53

ORR 80%, CR 30% CR duration 4.5m (132d) MST 6m

Answer 54

Positive PI: - Mucocutaneous or mucosal lesions vs cutaneous - For cutaneous lesions, the use of chemo and the presence of solitary lesions - For mucocutaneous, younger age and presence of solitary lesions

Answer 55

13% sensitive | 85% specific

Answer 56

30% ORR (CR 15%, PR 15%) Shorter duration of response; <7d

Answer 57

92% sensitive 100% specific 21 gauge needle

Answer 58

Lymphocyte-histiocytic (RS cell variant); usually small to medium sized lymphocytes and large histiocytic looking lymphocytes Reactive CD3+ T cells in the background Lymphohistiocytic cells positive for BLA 36 and CD79a -> B-cell Lymphadenopathy of 1 or > enlarged LN in the head/neck region Prognosis: usually excellent W/sx - DFI 1yr W/o tx - MST 7m-4yr ST Can sometimes regress on its own and then come back Can become aggressive Usually cats older than 6 yrs

Answer 59

``` ORR 96%, CR 77%, PR 19% DFI 14m (421d) MST 13m (388d) 55% 1-yr SR 47% 2-yr SR ```

Answer 60

GI 7.6m < Nasal 13m < Peripheral 14

Answer 61

Vomiting - 42% Also anorexia and weight loss

Answer 62

Younger age = more favorable response CR = long-term ST

Answer 63

``` #1 CCNU #2 Vincristine ```

Answer 64

Response to therapy

Answer 65

26% clinical benefit (no CR) PFS 14d MST 17d 16% grade 4 neutropenia

Answer 66

Stomach - DLBCL SI - EATL type I (48%) and II (42%) Mesenteric LN - T-cell Ileocecocolic - DLBCL Phenotype statistically associated with associated with location

Answer 67

#1 EATL type I - 41%; transmural T-cell LSA, large cells; extension into submucosa and muscularis propia #2 EATL type II - 34%; mucosal T-cell LSA, confined to mucosa and lamina propia, minimal sumucosal invasion, monomorphic small to medium-sized cells that show strong epitheliotropism, also known as LGAL #3 DLBCL - 20%

Answer 68

Mucosal - usually low grade, small-cell, T cell Transmural - usually high-grade, small (40%) or large (60%), B or T cell; LGL is a large cell subtype

Answer 69

T- cell: 80%, usually mucosal (80%) | B-cell: 20%, usually transmural (95%)

Answer 70

SI; rarely in stomach and LI

Answer 71

T-cell diffuse | B-cell solitary or multifocal; multiple common

Answer 72

Jejunum and ileum

Answer 73

COX-2 protein expression is present in 1/3 of cats with LGAL, but no difference when compared to cats with IBD. COX-2 mRNA levels are higher in cats with LGAL vs IBD or healthy cats

Answer 74

LGL - most common one* | DLBCL

Answer 75

Large granular LSA - 82%

Answer 76

17% (20-90d post)

Answer 77

Transient hypo or anorexia - 11% Other: hyperthermia, pancreatitis NO dehisence!! No identified prognostic variables Low albumin NOT prognostic (as opposed to dogs <2.5)

Answer 78

PARR - 90% sensitive | Histopath - 99% specific

Answer 79

``` 6 week CHOP chemo 2-week holiday 1.5Gy x 10d (M-F) 5/8 had durable remission of >266d (9m) Overall, well tolerated ``` 2 cats relapsed 1 euthanized for unknown reasons

Answer 80

8Gy x 2d MST 7m Minimal RT SE, 1 cat had self-limiting loss of appetite

Answer 81

85% LN>liver>spleen>kidneys>lungs>bone marrow Epitheliotropism common

Answer 82

60-75% Most common form

Answer 83

Mediastinal Alimentary Multicentric

Answer 84

No gross lesions 56% Masses 25% Nodules 20%

Answer 85

Peribronchial-vascular infiltrative pattern

Answer 86

``` B cell (90%) DLBCL (60%) ```

Answer 87

Age (10-12 yrs) Males Siamese - 1.8x increased risk for intestinal neoplasia and 5x increased risk for ACA

Answer 88

``` CD117 - 95-100% DOG-1 CD34 VImentin SMA - 30% (usually negative) ``` CD117 and DOG1; will catch the ones negative for CD117 Discovered-on-GIST 1 (DOG1) is a Ca-dependent Cl channel involved in generation of slow waves from the interstitial cells of Cajal

Answer 89

Exon 11 of juxtamembrane domain of KIT Results in constitutive activation Mutations: deletions, ITD, and point mutations

Answer 90

RT-PCR: 72.4% detected Conventional PCR: 32.6%

Answer 91

Diffuse cytoplasmic - 70% partial/focal stippled cytoplasmic - 30% NOT associated with c-kit mutation status

Answer 92

Loss of estrogenic inhibition Testosterone-secreting adrenal tumor

Answer 93

Tumor size: > 9cm2 or >2.5cm LD Any mets: LN and distant Advanced clinical stage Lack of sx Lack of chemo Tx with chemo alone LN mets and extirpation Tx with platinums (shorter DFI, another study showed it decreases risk of local recurrence) Hypercalcemia (newer studies say its not) Some histopath changes (see next index card)

Answer 94

Decreased E-cadherin expression Solid growth pattern Moderate or marked peripheral infiltration Necrosis Lymphovascular invasion Cellular pleomorphism MI 8 or >

Answer 95

TTP 2.4yrs MST 3.4 yrs RR 20% Mets in 26% at 1yr or later

Answer 96

Overall 2 yrs After 2nd sx 9.5m

Answer 97

TTP 13m MST 2 yrs Chemo did not make a difference

Answer 98

Sx - PFI 5.3m, MST 6m RT - PFI 11.5m, MST 15m IIIb - T any size, nodal mets >4.5cm (vs a, <4.5m)

Answer 99

How to treat?

Answer 100

Alpha - 100% Beta - 17 to 19.5% VEGFR - 80%

Answer 101

Rectal stricture or perforation | Minimize by using <3Gy per fraction

Answer 102

5% or > of late spinal cord toxicity >15% risk of myelopathy in 33% of patients

Answer 103

Biological response 71% (2 CR, 1 PR, 1 SD) PFI in gross dz 2.3yrs (for responders) PFI in microscopic 1.3yrs

Answer 104

Metastasis at dx | High mitotic index (<5, 5-10, >10)

Answer 105

TTP: 5m ST: 2-19m Advanced clinical stage Compared to dogs, cats have a higher metastatic rate and poorer long term prognosis

Answer 106

Pancreatic adenocarcinoma 32% have mets at dx Weight loss (68%), anorexia (53%), vomiting (41%), palpable abdominal mass (41%)

Answer 107

Alopecia Acute, progressive, non-scarring, bilaterally symmetric; predominantly involves the limbs, but can include the ventrum, head, and trunk

Answer 108

Diabetes mellitus - 15% Other: Heart dz or murmur (21%) Hyperthyroidism (18%)

Answer 109

Overall 3m MST w/sx and chemo 5.5 to 10.5m *10.5 if no mets 8.8% 1-yr SR Complete pancreatectomy or Whipple’s procedure (pancreaticoduodenectomy)

Answer 110

Peritoneal effusion (30d) Tx with NSAIDs alone (26d) Lack of sx and/or chemo (improves ST, 165d) MST <1m

Answer 111

Gemcitabine - 82%

Answer 112

Gastric ACA - #1 gastric tumor in dogs (80%) Most common location: lesser curvature and antrum

Answer 113

70-80% metastatic rate lymph nodes #1, liver #2, lungs #3

Answer 114

Males | Belgian Shepherd and Rough-Coated Collie

Answer 115

50% Microcytic hypochromic anemia

Answer 116

75% 2-week survival rate 60% 3-month survival rate 88% survived to discharge MST 1-2m (generally <6m) Billroth 1 - resection of pyloric antrum (pylorectomy) and gastroduodenal anastomosis (gastroduodenostomy)

Answer 117

``` hypoalbuminemia (63%) anemia (58%) transfusion (33%) hypotension (17%) hypoglycemia (17%) aspiration pneumonia (13%) pancreatitis (13%) sepsis due to dehiscence (8%) ```

Answer 118

Preoperative weight loss | Malignant cancer

Answer 119

LMA Stomach cardia, grow into lumen, discrete, pedunculated Always focal Commonly seen in older dogs ~15yr; Beagles

Answer 120

Gastric LSA

Answer 121

Segmental 60% | Diffuse 40%

Answer 122

intraoperative 4.8% | perioperative 8-12%

Answer 123

78% 61% lived >40d (multiple liver tumors)

Answer 124

Dogs - 30% Cats - 22% Hemorrhage; 17% of dogs and 44-61% of cats undergoing liver lobectomy need a blood transfusion

Answer 125

Surgical excision vs palliative care (MST >1460d vs 270d); non-surgical cases 15.4x more likely to die Increased ALT and AST Increased ALP to AST ratio Increased ALT to AST ratio Side of liver involvement; higher risk of intra-op complications for R-sided tumors, but no difference in ST Lethargy or tachypnea at presentation Experiencing an anesthetic complication Requiring a blood transfusion associated with failure to survive to discharge

Answer 126

Abdominal effusion Preoperative anemia Need for transfusion Shorter MST

Answer 127

Bile duct adenoma (biliary cystadenoma) - 52% of all liver tumors

Answer 128

Cystic appearance Even distribution between focal vs multifocal Male Typically asymptomatic until mass effect occurs

Answer 129

Bile duct carcinoma (cholangiocarcinoma) 67-80% metastatic rate; LN, lungs, carcinomatosis, etc PNS alopecia reported (and with HCC)

Answer 130

Hepatocellular carcinoma

Answer 131

Met rate - 0% | MST: w/o surgery 1.4yrs vs w/sx 2.4yrs

Answer 132

AST elevated in >90% ALT and ALP elevated in >70% Hyperbilirubinemia in >40%

Answer 133

Hepatitis B and C | Woodchuck: Woodchuck hepatitis virus

Answer 134

Dogs - metastatic Cats - primary (usually benign)

Answer 135

48% - malignant in both organs 93% - same in both organs HSA - 77%

Answer 136

50% (PR) in 3/6 dogs

Answer 137

36% adenoma | 20% ACA

Answer 138

Inactivation of APC gene | Accumulation of B-catenin in cytoplasm -> translocation to nucleus -> promotion of Wnt associated genes

Answer 139

Cecum #1 | Colon

Answer 140

Imatinib (Gleevec) Can rescue with Sunitinib when Imatinib fails

Answer 141

Equal distribution between stomach and SI (LI less likely)

Answer 142

Shiba dogs, German shepherds, Cairn terriers, Boston terriers, Papillons, Pugs and Maltese

Answer 143

CD3+, granzyme B+ Regardless of small or large cell

Answer 144

T-cell Diffuse - 38% Discrete/multifocal - 23%

Answer 145

Diarrhea #1 | Weight loss

Answer 146

Abnormal wall layering - 54% Hyperechoic mucosal striations - 54% Thickened muscularis - 34% Normal - 38% Mild lymphadenopathy - 46%; only 1 had LSA confirmed

Answer 147

Overall MST 9m Chemo tx dogs MST 14-21m

Answer 148

Anemia = shorter ST Weight loss = shorter ST Tx with steroids + alkylator = longer ST vs steroids alone Response to therapy = longer ST

Answer 149

Hypocobalaminemia -71% | Hypoalbuminemia - 69%

Answer 150

Lymphocytic infiltrates within the intestinal villous lamina propria and epithelium. Infiltrates were often more pronounced in the villous tips

Answer 151

Intestinal + LN 48% (94% had LSA confirmed on LN) Intestinal alone 40%

Answer 152

2-2.5m Dogs tx with CCNU have a numerically longer MST, but not statistically significant No differences in outcome based on tx

Answer 153

``` #1 Thickened intestinal wall with loss of layering #2 presence of ≥ 1 discrete mass #3 ulceration ```

Answer 154

Diarrhea Anorexia Septic peritonitis Dz outside of intestines alone

Answer 155

``` #1 idiopathic #2 kidney disease #3 neoplasia ```

Answer 156

1/3 or 33%

Answer 157

Lymphoma and SCC PTHrp mediated

Answer 158

Cats: 10-25% Dogs: 15-20%

Answer 159

IL-1B (osteoclast activating factor)

Answer 160

iCa and Tca - high PTHrp - zero PTH - normal or high Ph - low (if neoplastic too)

Answer 161

``` Babesia Ehrlichiosis Leishmaniasis FIP Coccidioides Heartworm Bartonella henselae Strep zooepidemicus in cats Chronic pyoderma Amyloidosis ```

Answer 162

Tumor excision Can consider anti-inflammatory steroids, NSAIDs and/or bisphosphonates

Answer 163

36% prior to therapy | Highest with lymphoproliferative disorders - 58%

Answer 164

Lymphoproliferative disorders - 58%

Answer 165

Cats 50% | Dogs 33%

Answer 166

Cat splenic MCT = 90% | Dog HSA = 50%

Answer 167

Non-regenerative anemia

Answer 168

Dogs: 70% Cats: 50-65% Anemia more common than thrombocytopenia in MM*

Answer 169

Basal cell tumor - 23% overall (10 to 26%) Usually benign. A study of 97 feline BCT had 10% categorized as malignant based on stromal invasion, vascular invasion, necrosis, high MI, LN mets (1 cat); another study had 1 cat with pulmonary mets

Answer 170

Ceruminous gland adenocarcinoma

Answer 171

Dogs - uncertain | Cats -malignant

Answer 172

Cocker Spaniels and GSD

Answer 173

Low and uncommon, but increases over time Dogs - LN 3.3%, lungs 8.5% Cats - LN 9%, lungs 0%

Answer 174

TECA and BO Recurrence is lower vs LECA

Answer 175

Extension beyond ear canal (cartilage invasion) MST 6m vs w/o (confined) 30m

Answer 176

MI of ≥ 3 (MST 12m vs 180m) Neurologic CS (MST 15.5m vs 1.5m) Histology (ACA MST 49m vs SCC 3.8m) Extension beyond ear canal/cartilage invasion (MST 4m vs w/o 22m)

Answer 177

- Mitotic index ≥ 3 - Ki67 index ≥ 15 - ≥ 20% nuclear atypia - Distant mets - Degree of pigmentation (scale 0-2, 2 is favorable) - Junctional activity - Level of infiltration/extension beyond dermis - Ulceration

Answer 178

At dx 9% Later on 23% 80% have lysis on xrays

Answer 179

- Ki67 index ≥ 19.5% (shorter DFI and MST) - MI ≥ 4/10 hpf - ≥ 30% nuclear atypia - Co-expression of PDGFR a/b (37%, shorter DFI and MST) - Higher % of intratumoral Tregs - Stage of dz - Size of tumor - Lymphatic invasion - Distant mets - Degree of pigmentation - Female sex - Adjuvant therapy - Intralesional excision - >12yrs of age

Answer 180

- Mitotic index ≥ 4/10 hpf - Ki67 index ≥ 19.5% - ≥ 30% nuclear atypia - Distant mets - Degree of pigmentation - Junctional activity - Level of infiltration/deep with bone involvement

Answer 181

- Ki67 index ≥ 15% - MI ≥ 3/10 hpf - ≥ 20% nuclear atypia - Extension beyond dermis/level of infiltration (Breslow thickness: >0.75cm = risk of recurrence/mets, >0.95cm = unfavorable outcome) - Ulceration - Distant mets - Lymphatic invasion - Degree of pigmentation

Answer 182

Melan A, PNL2, tyrosinase (TRP1/2): 93% sensitive and 100% specific S-100, MITF: highly sensitive, but less specific (will also stain sarcomas) Others: vimentin, NSE - positive for both 100% specific, but low sensitivity: HMB-45, tyrosinase, tyrosinase hydroxylase Presence of junctional activity = proliferation of neoplastic cells at the dermoepithelial junction NOT ALL WILL STAIN WITH MELAN A

Answer 183

RACK1 (receptor for activated C kinase 1) Malignant melanomas stain homogeneously and benign ones heterogeneously Correlates with cell and nuclear size

Answer 184

FOXP3, IDO (indoleamine 2,3-dioxygenase) Increased risk of death associated with higher: - # FOXP3/HPF - % of FOXP3+ infiltrating lymphocytes - # IDO+ cells/HPF Only #IDO+ cells/HPF prognostic on multivariate

Answer 185

``` MST 3.5m (107d) PFS 3m (92.5d) ```

Answer 186

Melan A Routine cytology: 67% sensitive, 86% specific

Answer 187

47% 14 from metastatic to reactive 1 from reactive to metastatic

Answer 188

30- 50% POOR

Answer 189

ORR 83-100% CR 50-70% PR 25-30% Time to mets 310d

Answer 190

PFS 5-8m MST 4-12m (stage dependent) 1-yr SR 35-50% 2-yr SR 20%

Answer 191

Microscopic 25% | Gross 45%

Answer 192

Stage I: 2yrs (758d) Stage II: 9m (278d) Stage III: 5.5m (163d) Stage IV: 2.5m (80d) Stage

Answer 193

- Stage; stage I dz vs higher and stage III dz tx with orthovoltage (shorter MST) - Tumor volume/size (>5cm3 shorter MST) - Bone involvement (shorter TTP and MST) - High VEGF (shorter TTP and MST) - Location (rostral better) - RT in the microscopic dz setting (better)

Answer 194

5.4% oronasal fistula | 7-8% bone necrosis

Answer 195

Temozolamide: 60mg/m2 x 5 days then q1 month RT: 6 Gy x 5 Dogs tx with TMZ had a longer TTP vs RT alone; 205d vs 110d No difference in ORR or MST

Answer 196

VEGF; shorter TTP and MST

Answer 197

PD-L1 Also in OSA, HSA, MCT, CMT, prostatic ACA

Answer 198

Exon 11, C -> T mutation 10% of dogs with MM Strongly positive in 56% Weakly positive in 44% Significantly associated with dz recurrence

Answer 199

Encodes human tyrosinase gene, which is inserted into pING plasmid vector. Plasmid vector contains cytomegalovirus promoter, kanamycin resistance selection marker, and a CpG sequence (which signals through TLR9). Tumor Ag is taken up by DCs -> presented via MHC class II (less commonly, class I) -> incites cell-mediated immune response in ~1/3 of dogs -> production of Ag-specific IFN-y T-cells CpG sequences also augment TH1 response

Answer 200

Adequate locoregional control > 3yrs Inadequate locoregional control 18m

Answer 201

High-dose ascorbate | activation of Bax?

Answer 202

Oral MST 4 Cutaneous MST 6 Auricular MST not reached

Answer 203

Amelanotic melanoma - negative prognosis | Surgical therapy - longer MST

Answer 204

12% - pain on administration, brief muscle fasciculation, transient inappetence, depression, nausea, mild increase in pigmentation at injection site Incidence of AE higher in dogs

Answer 205

In situ Superficial (<2mm deep) Infiltrative

Answer 206

ORR 100% RR 0% ST > 3000d

Answer 207

ORR 98% (CR 88%, PR 10%) RR 20% at median time of 308d only in cats with T1+, but no in situ ST > 3000d; better for those with a CR vs PR New lesions 33%

Answer 208

ORR 100% (CR 87%, PR 13% ) RR 13% - only in the 2 cats that had a PR which also had T2 dz at 81 and 141d

Answer 209

No difference in ORR or MST, but DFI of cats tx with fractionated protocol significantly longer ORR 96%, CR 74%, PR 22%, RR 17% at median of 251d DFI 780d OST 1040d ``` PF: CR = longer ST No comorbidities = longer ST Early stage dz (T1-2) = longer ST Fractionated protocol = longer DFI ```

Answer 210

73% overall complication rate Complications: 50% dehiscence 20% narrowing of nasal orifice 35% revision surgery 88% obtained clean margins 18% pulmonary mets at ~1 yr post diagnosis

Answer 211

Unilateral epistaxis and/or mucopurulent discharge of 2 to 3 months duration Other: facial deformity, sneezing, unwillingness to open mouth, dyspnea or stertorous breathing, exophthalmos, ocular discharge (due to mechanical obstruction of nasolacrimal duct) Facial deformity, stridor -> cancer Systemic clinical signs -> non-neoplastic

Answer 212

Pure or mixed hemorrhagic discharge Stridor, facial deformity (can happen with fungal and angiomatous proliferation too)

Answer 213

Adams | Modified Adams

Answer 214

Stage I - confined to one nasal passage, paranasal sinus, or frontal sinus, with NO bone involvement beyond turbinates Stage II - ANY bone involvement beyond turbinates, BUT NO evidence of orbit/subcutaneous/submucosal mass Stage III - involvement of orbit and/or nasopharyngeal, subcutaneous, or submucosal mass Stage IV - cribriform plate lysis

Answer 215

Dogs with stage IV dz based on CT images have shorter DFI and ST when treated with definitive RT

Answer 216

Stage I - DFS 6.5m, MST 24m Stage IV - DFS 4m, MST 7m

Answer 217

Epistaxis - 3m (88d) Without - 7.5m (224d)

Answer 218

7 to 20 months 1-yr survival rate 40-70% 2-yr survival rate 10-45% Carcinomas - 70% Sarcomas - 20%

Answer 219

Boost technique: GTV receives a higher dose (20% in the study) while maintaining same CTV Ocular changes were negligible 33% developed VRTOG grade 3 mucositis Late AE not evaluated Median PFI and ST not reached

Answer 220

MST 5 to 10 months 65-100% improvement of CS Duration of response: 4 to 10m

Answer 221

Positive for complete resolution of CS: - Adams stage I dz - CS present for >90d Negative PF: - CS present for <90 days prior to dx associated with higher risk of relapse - Adams stage IV dz - MST ~4.8m - Age of <10yrs - Non-dolichocephalic breeds - Dyspnea

Answer 222

Oral mucositis, KCS, blepharitis, rhinitis, skin desquamation Within 2-8 weeks after tx

Answer 223

Cataracts, corneal keratitis, corneal atrophy, KCS, uveitis, retinal hemorrhage and degeneration, neuronal tissue SE (brain necrosis causing neuro changes or seizures, optic nerve degeneration), skin fibrosis. Months to years after therapy; irreversible

Answer 224

Ocular changes - usually occur 6 to 9 months after RT KCS, cataract formation, blindness

Answer 225

Overall MST 8.5- 19.5m PFS 1yr Sarcoma - 10.7m Carcinoma - 10.4m OSA - 3m (significantly shorter ST)

Answer 226

Acute 23-32% Late 17-40%; highest with SRS single fraction (fistulas, osteonecrosis, seizures) 7% mortality rate

Answer 227

1 yr - 70% | 2 yr 40%

Answer 228

GTV > 50cm3

Answer 229

Cats 50% Dogs 80% Neutropenia or local acute tissue damage

Answer 230

Inhibits RNR -> depletion of dNTPs -> inhibition of DNA polymerase and decreased DNA repair Results in inhibition of sublethal damage repair; most evident in mismatch repair-deficient cells Most pronounced if administered 24-60 hours prior to RT

Answer 231

Covalently binds to purine DNA bases, causing adducts, and causing dsDNA breaks; decreases ability of tumor cells to repair DNA damage caused by ionizing RT; inhibition of non-homologous end-joining Exposure to RT causes single and double strand DNA breaks Although cisplatin does not increase the number of DSB, having an adduct near a DSB results in complete abolition of NHEJ repair The presence of unrepaired ds breaks results in cell death

Answer 232

Young px with active osteochondral ossification sites Tumors that grow from the cartilaginous rings and are composed of cancellous bone capped by cartilage; they grow at the same speed as the rest of the skeleton May reflect a malfunction of osteogenesis rather than true cancer and are benign Young px also at risk of oncocytoma development

Answer 233

Epithelial cells characterized by an excessive number of mitochondria, resulting in an abundant acidophilic and granular cytoplasm. Can be benign or malignant

Answer 234

Benign tumor of skeletal muscle | Can be large, minimally invasive, and do not metastasize

Answer 235

Transmission electron microscopy and IHC Appear THE SAME with light microscopy - 3 laryngeal tumors dx initially diagnosed as oncocytomas by light microscopy were dx as rhabdomyomas after ultrastructural and immunocytochemical examination - Rhabdomyomas are different from oncocytomas, but require electron microscopy or IHC to be differentiated from oncocytomas because they appear identical on light microscopy - Same thing for rhabdomyosarcoma, diagnostic features of skeletal muscle differentiation may not be evident at the light microscope level and may only be recognized by IHC or transmission electron microscopy. TEM is the gold standard in both humans and dogs, but it cannot differentiate between the subtypes.

Answer 236

Rhabdomyoma Can be large but are minimally invasive and do not metastasize

Answer 237

Dogs - bronchoalveolar carcinoma 85% Cats - adenocarcinoma 60-70% Humans - small cell carcinoma 25% and non-small cell 85%

Answer 238

Local vascular or lymphatic invasion - 70% Distant - 25% Anaplastic CA >90%, SCC >50%

Answer 239

Overall 75% (LN 30%, intrathoracic 30%, extrathoracic 15%) 88% of cats with digital carcinoma have metastasis from a primary pulmonary carcinoma; MST 1m with digital amputation alone; not recommended as other lesions cn pop up

Answer 240

IHC with TTF-1 and the presence of ciliated epithelial cells (thyroid transcription factor 1)

Answer 241

``` CS at diagnosis Tumor size >100cm3 TNM stage (>T1N0M0) LN involvement Involvement of entire lung lobe Gross dz post-operatively Histologic type (papillary has best prognosis vs. SCC and undifferentiated Ca) Histologic grade (well differentiated best progn) ```

Answer 242

``` CS at diagnosis (dyspnea, especially) TNM stage (>T1N0M0) LN enlargement Pulmonary metastasis Histologic type Histologic grade Degree of differentiation Pleural effusion ```

Answer 243

``` T1 (solitary): 12-26m T2 (multiple): 2.5-7m T3 (invasive into adjacent tissue): 23d-3m N0: 6-15m N1: 1 to 2m ``` T1N0M0 tumors of papillary type MST 18.5m (555d) vs 72d for others

Answer 244

Papillary - 18.5m ACA - 19m SCC - 8m All other tumor types 2.4m

Answer 245

23-24m Some studies say shorter ST

Answer 246

Lateral (intercostal) thoracotomy and median sternotomy Median sternotomy needed for multiple Median sternotomy - more likely to have increased fluid production from chest tube, hypoxia, prolonged hospital stay For hilar LN biopsies - easier to perform via lateral thoracotomy

Answer 247

Metronomic chemotherapy: TTP 5.7m MST 4.6m Surgery: TTP 3m MST 3m No therapy: TTP 20d MST 2m Significantly longer TTP and MST with MC vs sx and MTD groups.

Answer 248

Pembrook Welsh Corgis, Min Schnauzers

Answer 249

- Significantly larger - Right middle (43%) and left cranial (38%) most common locations - More likely to invade entire lobe

Answer 250

PFS 7m | MST 4.5-8m

Answer 251

PFS 3m | MST 4m

Answer 252

PFS 9m | MST 12.5m

Answer 253

Clinical signs - PFS only Intrathoracic mets - PFS & MST Tx with sx alone Tumor size NOT prognostic

Answer 254

Shelties and Collies have a 5x increased Shelties - majority (80%) are Sertoli Collies - majority (70%) mixed Sertoli/seminoma Norweigan elkhounds - 2x increased risk of seminoma

Answer 255

German Shepherds Belgian Malinois Norweigan elkhounds (2x increased risk)

Answer 256

Equal frequency

Answer 257

Sertoli 50% produce estrogen and signs of feminization; 17% if scrotal

Answer 258

Sertoli (>50% if cryptorchid and 15% if scrotal) Estraidol 17-B - usually higher when compared to normal dogs; not all dogs have elevated estraidol Testosterone/estraidol ratio - usually lower; feminization signs occur secondary to disruptions in this ratio, may be better

Answer 259

Bilateral symmetric alopecia, cutaneous hyperpigmentation, thinning of skin, galactorrhea, gynecomastia, atrophy of prepuce, atrophy of contralateral testicle, squamous prostatic metaplasia, bone marrow suppression

Answer 260

BM suppression/hypoplasia: may be irreversible Transient increase in granulopoiesis with peripheral neutrophilia followed by progressive neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, and nonregenerative anemia

Answer 261

Interstitial cell tumor

Answer 262

50% Therefore, COMPLETE STAGING is recommended

Answer 263

75-88% express COX-2 (vs 0% normal prostate tissue)

Answer 264

NSAID; MST 7m vs 0.7m if no nsaid A 2018 study NSAID MST 1.7m Piroxicam or carprofen

Answer 265

Castration; OR 2.3:4.3 Also tend to develop more aggressive tumors

Answer 266

40% at diagnosis; SLLN most commonly | 80% at death

Answer 267

22 to 42% Lumbar vertebrae and pelvis May be mediated by TGF-B, PTH-rP, endothelin More commonly osteoproductive, but can also be osteolytic Skeletal metastasis most commonly OSTEOBLASTIC in nature

Answer 268

APC gene Loss of NKX3.1 Gain of c-MYC

Answer 269

Survivin | Sox9 (stem cell marker)

Answer 270

In intact dogs - prostatitis, BPH, cysts | In neutered dogs - 100% PPV for neoplasia

Answer 271

Dogs with early stage dz and no capsular involvement

Answer 272

Major complications - 16%: dehiscence, uroabdomen, prepubic herniation 60% transient - resolved within 4 weeks 35% permanent incontinence

Answer 273

DFI 3m (2.7m) MST 8m (7.7m) 1-yr SR 32% and 2-yr SR 12% Histologic extracapsular extension MST 4.6m

Answer 274

Clinical response 33% | MST 3.5m

Answer 275

- Intact male status - shorter MST - Presence of CS - shorter MST - Metastasis to sites other than lungs - shorter MST - Tx with NSAIDs alone (TTP/MST 1.7m vs addition of chemo 3.5m)

Answer 276

Mean ST 2m; 2 dogs tx with chemo survived for 1 and 10m 56% had LN involvement and all appeared to have multicentric intra-abdominal dz US: hypoechoic lesions, ABSENCE of mineralization T-cell most common 1/2 were Labs

Answer 277

TVT cells all share a c-myc oncogene rearrangement - a long interspersed nuclear element (LINE-1) is present 5’ to the first exon LINE-1 can disrupt transcriptional regulation of downstream genes, potentially initiating oncogenic activity LINE-c-myc sequence is used to confirm a diagnosis with PCR

Answer 278

Highly conserved karyotypic changes Normal dogs have 78 chromosomes and all but 2 are acrocentric (the 2 sex chromosomes) TVT cells have a rearranged karyotype consisting of 57-59 chromosomes, including 15-17 submetacentric (resulting from fusion) chromosomes and 40-42 acrocentric chromosomes TVT cells are aneuploid but exhibit stable and similar karyotypes in samples from different regions

Answer 279

TVT cells downregulate MHC class I B2 microglobulin and MHC class II expression; this occurs secondary to TGF-B1 production by the tumor and allows for immune system evasion and decreased NK cell activity Tumor infiltrating lymphocytes produce IFN-y, which promotes MHC expression and counteracts TGF-B1 actions from tumor cells; TIL then secrete IL-6 which is synergistic with IFN-y -> MHC expression and NK function is restored, allowing for tumor regression This occurs during P phase, but expression of IL-6 triggers R phase

Answer 280

They lose estrogenic inhibition

Answer 281

Anterior uveal melanoma

Answer 282

50% | Lungs or liver

Answer 283

1 to 3 years post enucleation

Answer 284

Slowly progressive over months to years : iridial hyperpigmentation -> glaucoma

Answer 285

More common with high MI Larger tumors Tumor invasion into ciliary body stroma Invasion into scleral venous plexus

Answer 286

Tumor confined to iris stroma and trabecular meshwork = longer ST, decreased MR Enucleation after invasion to ciliary body (but NOT sclera) = MST 5 yrs Enucleation after scleral invasion = MST 1.5yrs Glaucoma

Answer 287

Flea collars 5x Canned tuna 4.7x Canned food 3x Household smoke 2.5x

Answer 288

Melanoma Canine oral SCC Acanthomatous ameloblastoma

Answer 289

Feline SCC | Fibrosarcoma

Answer 290

Very young dogs; 2-5m; 1 study 75% >6yrs 70% rostral; arise from gingiva of dentate jaws 92% are advanced T2-T3 at dx; seem large and invasive p53 Complete excision or reduction + RT: all dz-free at >4yr 0% metastatic rate Excellent prognosis Histopath: -Exophytic superficial papillary portion that lacks criteria of malignancy and can be confused with papilloma - Deep invasive portion extends into gingival stroma or bone can be confused with SCC or ameloblastoma - Papillomavirus has not been detected

Answer 291

- CD3+ T cell infiltrates in 92% of samples - T-regs within the neoplastic epithelium and stroma in 60% - Increased total frequency of circulating Tregs compared to healthy controls (but proportion of T regs compared to other lymphocytes unchanged)

Answer 292

18% - therefore COX2 likely not beneficial

Answer 293

High MVD = shorter MST | EGFR expression inversely related to ST

Answer 294

Higher in TONGUE vs mandibular and maxillary regions

Answer 295

Higher MVD, more keratinized SCC, male sex = shorter PFI and ST

Answer 296

Anorexia at dx Location: - Tonsillar/cheek - improved prognosis with accelerated RT/carbo (mean ST 725d vs other locations) - Mandible with sx -improved Complete response to accelerated RT/carbo (MST 375d) Male cats High bmi-1% expression (protein involved in self-renewal) High MVD High EGFR (inversely related to ST) More keratinized SCC

Answer 297

ORR 57% (biological response rate) MST 4m NPI: Anorexia at dx 17% had AE (grade 1-2GI, 1 grade 4 ALT)

Answer 298

SCC | Orlistat - FASN inhibitor

Answer 299

``` YM 155 (a survivin inhibitor) Survivin ```

Answer 300

Tumor size: <2cm vs >2cm Stage - mets vs no mets Ability of the first sx to achieve local control

Answer 301

Poor | 10-12%

Answer 302

55% Mandibular LN Ipsilateral 90% Contralateral 60%

Answer 303

I: 17-18m (PFI 19m) II: 5-6m III: 3m

Answer 304

Intraoperative bleeding - 53% 43% required blood transfusion

Answer 305

- tumor size - location (caudal) - maxillectomy type (complete, caudal, and if involving orbit) - surgical approach (dorsolateral combined with intraoral)

Answer 306

Lip trauma 13% | Dehiscence and fistula 11%

Answer 307

Minor epistaxis Facial swelling Difficulty eating

Answer 308

90% 70% LN 10-20% pulmonary mets at diagnosis

Answer 309

Rarely curative and if performed, it should be bilateral due to high % of dogs with bilateral dz

Answer 310

75% control rate <10% 1-yr survival Yes; with chemotherapy - improved RR and ST

Answer 311

6m *Significantly improved ST*

Answer 312

Anorexia Lethargy Lack of RT/chemo

Answer 313

Canine LSA Tonsillar SCC Nasal tumors in dolicocephalic breeds

Answer 314

8m to 2 years | Likely due to improved sx technique

Answer 315

MST 10-12m RR 30-50% 1-yr SR of 20-50% MST lower with conservative vs aggressive sx; MST 300d vs 526 days

Answer 316

DFI 13m MST 19m 50% of maxillary tumors incompletely excised

Answer 317

MST 7m Definitive RT longer PFS vs palliative; PFS 470d vs 170d

Answer 318

PFI 10m MST 18-26m (1.5 to 2.2yrs) 24-32% recurrence 1-yr PFS of 76% Tumor size: T1 and T2 improved PFS and ST vs T3

Answer 319

- Location: mandibular shorter PFS and MST vs maxillary - Size: MST not reached for T1 vs T2 and T3 - Grade - Tx with any type of RT longer PFS and MST, but definitive RT protocol better than palliative - Type of sx performed: no sx vs conservative vs aggressive - Complete sx excision vs incomplete - Sx + RT longer PFS and ST = STRONGEST

Answer 320

Golden Retriever

Answer 321

Multifocal to coalescing, raised, red, nodular mases RARELY ulcerated

Answer 322

70% lymphadenopathy | 60% lymphocytosis

Answer 323

CD8+ (majority) CD45- Lack epitheliotropism Expand within superficial submucosa and are separated from the dermis

Answer 324

CR 60% SD 30% 10/12 still alive 27 to 893d post diagnosis

Answer 325

Mandible 27% | Maxilla 16-22%

Answer 326

35-40% overall 6% at diagnosis 58% mandibular 17-20 months

Answer 327

Mandible - osteoblastic | Maxilla - osteoclastic

Answer 328

Maxillary - higher RR, local dz most common cause of death, no mets reported, shorter MST Mandibular - lower RR, metastasis most common cause of death in 35%, 58% met rate, longer MST

Answer 329

``` MST 17.5m RR 15-45% MFI 20m Metastatic rate 58% 1-yr SR 35-70% ```

Answer 330

- Grade: II/III tumors 2.4x increased risk of mets and shorter MST - Lack of adjuvant chemotherapy 2.6x increased risk of mets and shorter MST Overall, shorter MFI and MST

Answer 331

Calvarium MST 11m

Answer 332

Positive: - mandibular location - smaller body weight - grade I - pure-bred dogs Negative: - Incomplete surgical margins - Grade II/III tumors - Lack of adjuvant chemo post op - Every 1,000-cell increase in monocyte count associated with a 76% increased hazard of death - MI >40 on univariate

Answer 333

Sx; poor responses to RT and chemo

Answer 334

Overall 47-58% I - 30% II - 50% (47%) III - 80% (78%) Grade and margins

Answer 335

Complete - 3.6 yrs | Incomplete - 11m

Answer 336

Overall 60% to lungs I - 30% II - 60% III - 80% (78%) Complete - 25% Incomplete - 75% Late in dz Grade and margins dependent Slow growing tumor so can consider metastasectomy (>12m survival)

Answer 337

Overall 21m I - 50m II - 22m III - 11m Location and grade dependent

Answer 338

Mandibular MST 4yrs | Other: 1.5yr (590d)

Answer 339

Fibromatous - 60% Giant cell epulis - 30%

Answer 340

Significantly different and more aggressive behavior In dogs, these behave like fibromatous epulis and rarely recur post sx

Answer 341

IHC suggestive of osteoclastic origin POS for: vimentin, TRAP, RANK NEG for: SMA, MIB-1, factor VIII In dogs, these behave like fibromatous epulis and rarely recur post sx

Answer 342

Rostral mandible

Answer 343

Shetland and Old English sheep dogs

Answer 344

MMP9 | TIMP1

Answer 345

MST not reached; >28-64m 0-3% recurrence 98-100% 1-yr SR

Answer 346

MST not reached; >26-30m 0-11% recurrence 71-100% 1-yr SR

Answer 347

80% 3-yr SR 8-18% recurrence; 8x higher risk in T3 tumors Transformation in 5-18% Bone necrosis 6%

Answer 348

100% CR for > 1 yr in 4 dogs

Answer 349

Sx alone - 6m Sx + RT - 5.6yrs 8-9 Gy x 4 (weekly) (In the case of FSA, did not improve outcome)

Answer 350

FSA | 50% incompletely excised

Answer 351

In vitro, cell death requires doses unable to be achieved clinically Effects potentiated by doxorubicin.

Answer 352

Degree of differentiation: normal M tissue [1], specific histo type [2], undifferentiated [3] Mitosis: 0-9 [1], 10-19 [2], 20 or > [3] Necrosis: none [1], 50% [2], >50% [3] Grade I: cum score of 4 or < Grade II: cum score of 5-6 Grade III: cum score of 7 or > LOOK AT GRADE TABLE!!

Answer 353

S-100 - derived from cells of neural crest origin normally present in cells derived from the neural crest (Schwann cells, and melanocytes), chondrocytes, adipocytes, myoepithelial cells, macrophages, Langerhans cells, dendritic cells, and keratinocytes. Some FSA +. Vimentin - protein expressed in mesenchymal cells (all sarcomas positive)

Answer 354

Lipomas have INDISINCT nuclei and cytoplasm resembling normal fat. Liposarcomas are characterized by increased cellularity, DISTINCT nuclei, and abundant cytoplasm with one or more droplets of fat.

Answer 355

Caudal thigh of dogs between the semitendinosus and semimembranosus

Answer 356

Seroma formation if a penrose drain is not used

Answer 357

Uncommon tumors composed of well-differentiated adipose cells without evidence of anaplasia. Cannot be differentiated from simple lipomas. Considered benign and do not metastasize. Commonly invade adjacent muscle, fascia, nerve, myocardium, joint capsule, and even bone. Aggressive treatment such as amputation may be needed.

Answer 358

It cannot be distinguished from normal fat and DO NOT contrast enhance. They are, however, more likely to have an irregular shape. Liposarcomas, however, DO contrast enhance

Answer 359

Malignant tumors arising from adipoblasts They are locally invasive They DO CONTRAST ENHANCE!!

Answer 360

Low to moderate Lungs, liver, spleen, and bone

Answer 361

Pleomorphic

Answer 362

MST 1200 days - wide surgical resection MST 650 days - marginal resection MST 180 - incisional biopsy

Answer 363

77% contained focal areas of fat attenuation 81% heterogeneous internal attenuation 38% lacked clearly defined capsule and were locally infiltrative 23% had foci of mineralization More likely to be heterogeneous, have a soft tissue component with irregular conglomerate appearance, mineralized, and have regional lymphadenopathy

Answer 364

Transmission electron microscopy IHC TEM is the gold standard in both humans and dogs, but it cannot differentiate between the subtypes.

Answer 365

At least 1 muscle specific marker and absence of smooth muscle markers is needed ``` Src-actin Myosin - mature SKM Myoglobin -mature SKM Myogenin - embryological nuclear TF MyoD - embryological nuclear TF ``` ALL are vimentin and desmin positive, but these lack specificity

Answer 366

They resemble normal endothelial cells. May be confused with HSA because of the vascular channels, however, RBC are not seen within channels. Lymphatic and endothelial cells - both positive for factor VIII-RA and CD31 Lymphatic endothelial cells: PROX-1, LYVE -1

Answer 367

UV light exposure in short-haired dogs with poorly pigmented skin

Answer 368

According to depth of involvement Stage I - confined to dermis Stage II - extending into SQ tissues (hypodermal) Stage III - involving underlying muscle (hypodermal)

Answer 369

Wide surgical excision +/- doxo (if stage II or III)

Answer 370

ORR 40% 50d

Answer 371

Stage I: 780 days (2yrs) Stage II-III: 5.5 to 10m (170-300d)

Answer 372

Stage I: 30% | Stage II-III: 60%

Answer 373

77%; pre-disposed breeds w/ventral location/multiple tumors 50-80% in cats

Answer 374

Predisposed breeds = longer MST Ventral abdomen location = longer MST Solar changes = longer MST Mets or hemoabdomen = shorter MST

Answer 375

SQ - DFI/MST > 4yrs IM - DFI/MST 9m

Answer 376

Type A - phagocytic and resemble macrophages Type B - fibroblastic; produce glycosaminoglycan

Answer 377

Synovial cell sarcomas - Type B (fibroblastic) Histiocytic sarcoma - Type A (phagocytic macrophage resemblance) Periarticular histiocytic sarcoma - arises from dendritic cells; cannot use CD18 to differentiate between DC and type A macrophages

Answer 378

SCS: vimentin+, pancytokeratin +/- (small population) Histiocytic sarcoma: vimentin+, CD18+ Malignant fibrous histiocytoma: vimentin+, SMA+

Answer 379

Moderate to high (higher risk vs STS) Regional LN, lungs

Answer 380

30% - diagnosis 55% - euthanasia

Answer 381

Large breeds Flat-coated and Golden retrievers No sex predilection Larger joints - stifle, elbow, shoulder

Answer 382

Periarticular soft tissue swelling, bone invasion manifested as ill-defined periosteal reaction and/or multifocal punctate osteolyitic lesions, can involve sites on either side of the joint. Cats - bone involvement is rare in cats

Answer 383

Limb amputation Local recurrence is common and MST is better (850d vs 450 if marginal resection) Forequarter amputation, hemipelvectomy or coxofemoral diasrticulation - as much as possible

Answer 384

Stage/presence of metastasis Histologic grade Extent of surgical treatment Pancytokeratin +

Answer 385

W/o mets >36m | With mets <6m

Answer 386

Amputation - 30m | Marginal resection - 15m

Answer 387

> 48m - grade I > 36m - grade II 7m - grade III

Answer 388

Synovial - MST 32m, MR 30-55% Myxoma - MST 30m, MR 0% Histiocytic sarcoma - MST 5m, MR 90% Other types - MST 3.5m, MR 100%

Answer 389

Grade I - 7% Grade II - 35% Grade III - 75% 1yr to recurrence and mets 4yrs

Answer 390

Time to recurrence >700d 80-95% controlled at 1yr 70-90% controlled at 2 yr 6yrs

Answer 391

3-year PFS probability: 24% 3-year local failure free probability: 73% 21% recurrence rate at a median of 9m AE: 65% required treatment (dermatitis, mucostitis) MST not reached Protocol: 6-8Gy/weekly for a total of 24-32Gy using electrons

Answer 392

A 2nd surgery is ALWAYS the best choice For low grade (I-II) - active surveillance or staging sx (scar with 0.5-1cm margins) High grade - sx if possible, if not RT (cumulative doses of >50Gy rec for better control) or metronomic chemo Consider adjuvant chemo for high-grade tumors, those with high met rate, presence of mets

Answer 393

A 15.0mg/m2/day dose resulted in decreased # and % Tregs along with decreased tumor MVD A 12.5mg/m2/day decreased Treg # only; no change in % Tregs or MVD

Answer 394

DFI > 410d in treated dogs vs 210

Answer 395

Prolongs disease free interval time

Answer 396

60% agreement 30% underestimate 12% overestimate No statistical difference in accuracy between various techniques (punch, needle core, wedge) Histologic subtype agreed for 89% of cases

Answer 397

95% specific 33% sensitive -You can believe a high grade result, but not a low grade

Answer 398

p53 LOH most common Rapid tumor recurrence and reduced overall survival

Answer 399

60 to 80% Cytoplasmic staining in 44%; shorter time to recurrence and ST

Answer 400

High - in tumors with greatest inflammatory infiltrates Lowest - in grade 3 tumors vs 1 and 2 *One study found no association between COX2 and grade

Answer 401

97% complete excision rate 14% recurrence rate 11% major complications; dehiscence in interscapular tumors most common 11% metastatic rate MST 907 days (2.4 yrs)

Answer 402

ORR 25% (1CR, 6PR) PFS 2m (60d) Duration of response 2.5m (80d)

Answer 403

2% Poor prognosis

Answer 404

Results from the rare recombination of FeLV DNA provirus and feline proto-oncogenes, resulting in a hybrid. FeLV incorporates into feline's DNA near a proto-oncogene and takes up the proto-oncogene into the FeLV provirus -> formation of FSV occurs. In the process, part of FeLV GAG gene, most of the envelope gene, and all of the pole genes are lost. The loss of these vital components makes FeSV dependent on FeLV as a helper virus for replication. Recombination results in transformation of fibroblasts and production of fibrosarcomas. Cats with FeSV always test positive for FeLV Natural transmission between cats does not occur

Answer 405

FOCMA = protein found on the surface of FeLV and FeLV-induced neoplasms but not on non-neoplastic feline cells. It is detected serologically when cells expressing it react to immunoglobulins produced in cats that have regressed FeSV-induced FSA or FeLV infection. Some cats are capable of rejecting transformed cells and producing FOCMA antibodies. This is important in the experimental response of cats to FeSV because FOCMA Ab administration has been associated with tumor regression and failure to develop tumors. Cats that fail to develop FOCMA die quickly of fast-growing sarcomas. Ab to FOCMA van protect against neoplastic and myeloproliferative disease. Some FeLV vaccines contain FOCMA and elicit an anti-FOCMA response. The importance of this in preventing dz in vaccinates is unknown.

Answer 406

Rrapid growth with doubling times as short as 12-72 hours. Lesions typically occur at sites of previous bite wounds. Met rate 30% to lungs or other organs. Chemo and RT have been used and although RT is usually combined with sx in the case of solitary tumors, recurrence both within the RT field or outside is common

Answer 407

3-2-1 rule If mass is still evident 3 months after vaccination If the mass is larger than 2cm in diameter If the mass increases in size 1 month after vaccination

Answer 408

Minimal: 2cm lateral and 2cm deep Problem: <50% completely excised 5cm lateral and 2 fascial planes deep

Answer 409

- Implementation of of task force changed tumor locations - Significant decrease in interscapular and lateral thoracic wall tumors - Significant increase in tumors of the right thoracic limb (but not left), the R/L pelvic limbs, abdominal wall - # tumors cranial to the diaphragm decreased and # of tumors caudal to it increased

Answer 410

``` Older generation flea/tick control products Lawn chemicals (ex. 2,4-D) Female sex Obesity in females Cyclophosphamide exposure Neutered status Breeds ``` Scottish Terriers that ate vegetables at least 3 times per week had reduced risk (OR 0.3). Carrots were most commonly used. Green leafy veggies or yellow orange veggies. NOT cruciferous. Overweight females exposed to flea products 28x risk vs normal weight males w/o exposure

Answer 411

``` Scotties (OR 18-21) Eskimo dogs (OR 6.5) Shelties (OR 6) Westies (OR 5.8) Keeshonds (OR 4.2) Samoyed (OR 3.4) Beagle (OR 3) Dalmatian (OR 2.4) ``` Scottish Terriers that ate vegetables at least 3 times per week had reduced risk (OR 0.3). Carrots were most commonly used. Green leafy veggies or yellow orange veggies. NOT cruciferus Ses Shel Wee Kee Sam Begged Dan

Answer 412

MST 480-530*d 1-yr SR 45% 2-yr SR 25% 8. 5m * use of adjuvant therapy did not improve prognosis, but 6 dogs with distant mets were treated with chemo and had an MST of 14m*

Answer 413

Age <6yrs Hematuria Cachexia Metastasis at dx (MST 4.5m vs 18m) Clear cell subtype (MST 3m) Histologic vascular invasion Fuhrman nuclear grade (grade IV MST 3m, grade III MST 1yr, grade II MST 3yr) 14-3-3o IHC protein expression; 38% of RCC; associated with poorly differentiated tubular subtype and MI of >30 High COX-2 expression; present in 76%; MST 14m vs 40m **MI (>30 MST 4-6m [HR 12], 10-30 MST 15m, <10 MST 3.2yrs)

Answer 414

Gold standard for detecting a single nucleotide substitution, but requires a 10-20% fraction of mutated allele for reliable detection - therefore low sensitivity leading to false negatives. Can be used in tissue or urine.

Answer 415

Overall - 80% (20% do NOT posses the mutation) Urothelial - 67% Prostatic - 80%

Answer 416

BRAF gene in chromosome 16, exon 15, codon 450 or 595 Results in a T -> A transversion that causes aa substitution of valine for glutamic acid Leads to constitutive activation of the MAPK pathway Humans, V600E, chromosome 7 SOMATIC mutation

Answer 417

Sanger sensitivity: Tissue - 71% (67% UC, 78% PC) Urine - 61% UC, 100% PC ddPCR sensitivity: Tissue: 79% (75% UC, 85% PC) Urine: 85% (83% UC, 100% PC) BOTH are 100% specific! ddPCR more sensitive than Sanger for both tissue and urine

Answer 418

ddPCR much more sensitive; able to detect mutation when present at levels as low as 0.005% (1 in 10,000 alleles) Sanger requires a 10-20% fraction of mutated allele for reliable detection - therefore low sensitivity leading to false negatives.

Answer 419

Vemurafenib BRAF mutation present in >90%

Answer 420

Incontinence 37-64% (males more common); severe in 26% (equal sex) UTI 35% Re-obstruction 22% at median of 3m Stranguria 5%

Answer 421

MST 20d to 2.5m (therefore mostly palliative) Tx with an NSAID for >4 weeks prior to stent Chemotherapy post stent MST 8m

Answer 422

100% due to PD 10% due to intraluminal PD 90% due to PD cranial or caudal to stent

Answer 423

Degree of incontinence post stent placement Longer stranguria duration = increased risk of severe incontinence; 1.7x increased risk for every 2 weeks duration

Answer 424

ORR - 18% (6% CR, 12% PR, 53% SD) MST 6m *non COX selective

Answer 425

ORR 17% (PR 17%, SD 71%) PFI 4.5m MST 10.7m GI toxicity in 19% *COX 2 selective inhibitor

Answer 426

ORR: 20% (20% PR, 33% SD) PFI 3.5m MST 5m COX-2 selective*

Answer 427

- TNM stage - Tumor location: urethral (worse prognosis) and prostatic involvement - Dogs receiving 3+ chemo drugs had a longer MST compared to those receiving 1-2 chemo drugs - Daily piroxicam had a longer PFS and MST - Sx - trigonal location shorter MST, improved MST when combined with doxo and piroxicam - AUS findings: dogs with wall involvement, heterogenous mass, and trigone location - shorter MST

Answer 428

young age (increased risk of nodal mets) prostate involvement (increased risk of distant mets) higher T stage (increased risk of nodal and distant mets).

Answer 429

Granzyme B+ TIL CTL and NK are granzyme B+ DFI unaffected

Answer 430

HER-2 Iapatinib - TKI of HER2, EGFR

Answer 431

``` T1-2: 7m T3: 4m N0: 8m N1: 1.5-2m M0: 7m M1: 3.5m ```

Answer 432

70% (dogs 72%, cats 68%) Dog: 80% sensitive and 90% specific for cancer; highest for LSA Cat: 100% sensitive and specific for neoplasia

Answer 433

Cytokeratin | VImentin

Answer 434

CK7, CK20, KIT, CD10

Answer 435

6d to 4m; generally 2m Supratentorial/forebrain tumors 6m Cats <1m

Answer 436

Solitary lesions (some w/ multiple meningiomas do well) Limited neurologic dysfunction Normal CSF analysis Tumor type Supratentorial/forebrain location Tx with RT or sx/RT combo

Answer 437

Multiple lesions Neurologic CS Palliative care Infratentorial/caudal brain lesions High VEGF High PCNA index

Answer 438

Sx: 7-10m Hydroxyurea/pred: 7m Conventional RT: 12-27m (gen 12m/351d) SRT: 17-19m Hypofractionatd RT with VMAT: 66% ORR 2 yrs post; 2-yr SR 74%, MST not reached Sx + RT: 17m

Answer 439

30-35% Subacute demyelination Most responsive to steroids

Answer 440

10% Volume of normal brain receiving 100% of SRT dose was predictive of death during first 6m Ideally <1cc of normal brain tissue should receive 100% of isodose

Answer 441

Histotype (anaplastic = worse; psammomatous, meningothelial, and transitional better) High VEGF expression High PCNA index (shorter PFS), Longer MST with HU vs pred alone (7m vs 3.5m) Infratentorial location and high gradient index = shorter ST post SRT Volume of normal brain receiving 100% of SRT dose was predictive of death during first 6m

Answer 442

1-yr 60-65% 2-yr 24-33%

Answer 443

Sx: 6m CCNU chemotherapy: - glioma 4.5m - astrocytome 3-8m Conventional RT: 7-9m SRS VMAT, +/- TMX: 13-14m

Answer 444

Sx 1-yr SR: 25%, 2-yr 6% | SRS 1-yr SR: 60-90%

Answer 445

Extra-axial longer ST vs intra-axial Ratio between target and brain volume <5% increased ST Normal mentation at dx increased ST CCNU longer ST vs palliative (35d) Tumor volume <5%

Answer 446

Sx: 2-3yrs RT: 17m (combo of tumors); 96% improvement

Answer 447

92% 8% overall mortality rate

Answer 448

Intraop 10% Postop 45%

Answer 449

Hemorrhage

Answer 450

45% transient neurologic deterioration 18% non-neurologic; aspiration pneumonia

Answer 451

Glioma Correlates with necrotic or cystic areas; not specific for G, seen best on T2 images

Answer 452

Arise from intra-axial tissue and move outwards; infiltrative (as opposed to displacing tissue) Often lacks distinct margins Ring enhancement; seen best on T2 Hyperintense on T2W Hypo to isointense on T1W

Answer 453

Arise from periphery of brain and pushes brain inwards Broad base with extra-axial attachment -> dural or meningeal tail Distinct tumor margins Uniformly contrast-enhancing 25% have a cystic component Hyperintense on T2W Hypo to isointense on T1W

Answer 454

Gliomas - all negative for c-kit and COX-2 in one study c-kit expressed on vasculature of high grade gliomas 3 high grade tumors had intramural vascular expression of c-kit This suggests kit inhibitors may provide an anti-angiogenic effect in high grade gliomas In humans, expression of c-kit and COX is associated with a poor prognosis

Answer 455

Meningioma

Answer 456

C1-C4 100% intradural and usually extramedullary

Answer 457

17m (500d)

Answer 458

HSA and TCC T3-L3 Withrow says HSA and LSA, but recent literature says what above

Answer 459

Dogs - meningioma; cervical Cats - LSA; thoracolumbar or lumbosacral Primary>metastatic

Answer 460

Cats - LSA #1, pituitary #2 | Dogs - HSA #1, pituitary carcinoma #2, LSA #3

Answer 461

DLBCL >50%

Answer 462

Weakness, ataxia

Answer 463

High grade - 94% Invasive and resistant to therapy

Answer 464

Olig; most sensitive, but astros also + Others: SOX10, PDGFRa, NG2, GFAP Astrocytomas

Answer 465

Combination of CT and MRI GTV measured on MRI typically 25% larger than CT If MRI not available, recommend using CT GTV + additional margin of 0.3cm to avoid geographic miss for 3D-CRT

Answer 466

MST 4.5m 83% improved pain control 44% improved neuro score

Answer 467

Stromal splenic sarcoma - 16m Splenic HS - 2.4m SFHN represents a heterogeneous group of diseases and the authors propose this term should no longer be used.

Answer 468

% lymphocytic infiltrate PI: Lymphoid:fibrohistiocytic ratio Grade Grade 3 significantly shorter MST (113 days) compared to grades 1 and 2 (MST not reached; mean 1,118 days)

Answer 469

< 5% >20% is abnormal Can consider abnormal >10% in cats as they may not have extensive bone marrow involvement, so also consider cell morphology and visceral organ infiltration as they can be more commonly affected or of equal importance

Answer 470

Plasma cell morphology - well-differentiated (< 15% blasts) - intermediate (15-49% blasts) - poorly differentiated (>50% blasts) ~80% of cats exhibit abnormal plasma cell morphology

Answer 471

Hypercalcemia Bence Jones (light chain) proteinuria Extensive bone lysis Presence of renal dz = shorter PFI and MST High neutrophil to lymphocyte ratio >4.28 = shorter PFI and MST In a newer study, hypercalcemia and bone lysis were not prognostic

Answer 472

92% ORR, 43% CR | MST 540d

Answer 473

ORR 86% MST 930d Prognostic factors: Renal dz (MST 330d) Neutrophil to lymphocyte ratio of >4.28 (MST 330d) Not of significance: Hypercalcemia Lytic lesions

Answer 474

ORR 70% CR 30% Time to response 4.5m MST 8.5m (not SS diff from CTX) DLT: neutropenia; d/c in 63%

Answer 475

ORR 83% CR 50% Time to response 45d MST 13m (not SS diff from melphalan) Toxicity common but mild, none required d/c Authors recommend as first line therapy*

Answer 476

ORR/CR 50%

Answer 477

ORR 60% Most die within 4m Occasional long-term survivors >1yr Europe study: 9.5m

Answer 478

88% (most common BW abnormality in 1 study) 80% monoclonal 20% biclonal Biclonal gammopathies cats>dogs

Answer 479

Cats: IgG (more common in some studies) Dogs: IgG or IgA

Answer 480

The presence of a malignant clonal protein (M-protein or M-spike) reflecting production of a single Ig

Answer 481

Cholesterol Hypocholesterolemia in 70% of cases

Answer 482

PV: low or low-normal EPO and normal blood O2 PNS: increased EPO, normal O2

Answer 483

Rule out everything else

Answer 484

NOTCH; necessary for maintenance of stem-cell properties Inhibition via y-secretase inhibitors suppresed cell growth

Answer 485

Shistocytes - seen with microangiopathic hemolysis Acanthocytes - 10% of dogs with them have HSA

Answer 486

< 20kg liver > 20kg spleen Spleen

Answer 487

Troponin I If > 0.25 ng/mL more likely to be cardiac HSA

Answer 488

Von Willebrand factor (factor VIII-related antigen CD31/PECAM) Other markers that could be used: - CD117 (KIT) - Claudin 5 - VEGFA and its receptor Flk-1 - no difference when compared to non-neoplastic endothelial cells - Ang 2 - may be useful - Tie 2 - less reliable

Answer 489

Poorly differentiated tumors may not express vWF CD31 is not a consistent marker as cross labeling can occur with other tumors (AGASACA, nodular hyperplasia, mammary Ca, plasmacytoma, RCC, cutaneous histiocytoma)

Answer 490

27% Heavier body weight Splenic mass, BCS, were NOT

Answer 491

Concurrent doxo and metronomic chemo with CTX = shorter MST

Answer 492

Thalidomide TTM and MST not reached *CTX alone has not been shown to increase anything after doxo*

Answer 493

MST 6m (172d) PI: Stage II dz longer MST vs stage III (40d) 33% 1-yr SR (vs usual 10% 1-yr SR)

Answer 494

No improvement in ANYTHING over doxorubicin alone. Same numbers as with everything else. Overall DFI 140 Palladia DFI 160 Overall MST 170 Palladia MST 170 ~5.6m 80%

Answer 495

Paclitaxel

Answer 496

Tetrathiomolybdate - Cu binding agent that may reduce resistance Resveratrol - naturally occurring polyphenolic compound in red wine; induces autophagy via activation of MAPK

Answer 497

Cationic liposome and DNA complex, which is an immune stimulant added to vaccines, combined with pooled cells from 2 HSA cell lines. 8 doses were administered along with doxorubicin chemo Vaccine elicited strong humoral immune response to a control antigen and most dogs also mounted an Ab response against canine HSA cell lines DFI 3m MST 6m 20% GI AE; diarrhea and anorexia most common

Answer 498

Increased activity of caspases 3 and 7 Increased clot strength on TEG Improved DFI in dogs with HSA

Answer 499

``` Sx alone Stage (I vs II-III) Mets at dx MI (<11 MST 10m, 11-20 MST 7m, >21 4m) Administration of allogenic blood products ```

Answer 500

Light pigmented dogs with thin coats Ventral abdomen and preputial region most common location Breeds: Whippets, Salukis, bloodhounds, beagles, white bulldogs, English pointers, Staffies, Italian greyhound Dalmatian

Answer 501

Equally distributed between visceral and cutaneous forms

Answer 502

77% multifocal disease ``` Liver 35% Small intestine 31% Large intestine 31% Abdominal LN 31% Mesentery 27% Spleen 23% ```

Answer 503

Visceral (vs cutaneous/SQ)

Answer 504

33% pulmonary at dx 60% extrathoracic mets

Answer 505

Behaves similar to other STS Local recurrence in; 60-80% Cutaneous - MST not reached SQ - MST 384d (12.8m)

Answer 506

SQ location (vs cutaneous) Visceral form (poor progn and high met rate) MI>3 (MST 2m) Incomplete tumor excision (MST 9m)

Answer 507

10-15m; can be less, not a lot out there, usually palliative; IC chemotherapy can be beneficial

Answer 508

Diffuse nodular masses that cover the surface of body cavities (depends on histo type) Similar to epithelial cells; CANNOT be diagnosed cytologically Epithelial, mesenchymal, biphasic (combination) Epithelial most common

Answer 509

Any sort of inflammation

Answer 510

Sclerosing: resembles a sarcoma Causes restriction

Answer 511

True metastasis is rare. Fluid accumulation results in exfoliation and implantation of cells, which results in seeding and multiple tumor formation.

Answer 512

Pleural thickening

Answer 513

Normal fibronectin concentration; usually increased with MSA

Answer 514

2-3mm; consider debulking sx for large masses before IC

Answer 515

Overall 4-12m 11m w/chemo <1m if no therapy Tx dogs live longer than w/o tx NO PI identified; presence of effusion, thoracic disease, chemotherapy drug used, or metastasis did not affect MST

Answer 516

Lymphocytes

Answer 517

Cystic; better prognosis

Answer 518

Thymoma - >10% of lymphocytes co-express CD4+ and CD8+ Lymphoma - <2% co-express Carcinoma <1% co-expression and samples usually have a low lymphocyte count (<40%)

Answer 519

Presence of another tumor at dx; MST 282 vs 586d Lack of sx excision; MST 76 vs 635d Masaoka stage III+ MST 224 vs 1045d Presence of PNS (MG or hypercalcemia) Incomplete margins Tx with adjuvant chemo and/or RT *PNS did not influence outcome in a study*

Answer 520

Thymomas - more likely to have heterogenous contrast enhancement LSA - more likely to be homogeneous

Answer 521

100%; all achieved a PR 5% regression/day GTV and PTV 30% Why replanning may help protect organs at risk

Answer 522

Tumor highly conserved, as TVT They downregulate expression of MHC genes, but NOT through upregulation of TGF-B1 as TVT Downregulation of MHC can be restored by treating with IFN-y Metastatic rate 65% to LN, lungs, kidneys It is a PNST of Schuwann cell origin, so IHC positive for: S-100, vimentin, periaxin Periaxin 100% sensitive and the most specific marker No response to chemo Most die within 6 months of infection

Answer 523

Anemia Thrombocytopenia Hypoalbuminemia Palliative therapy (12-40d)

Answer 524

High ferritin (not necessarily outside the reference range) - early in dz/asymptomatic Lower total WBC count - early in dz/asymptomatic High MCP-1 (monocyte chemoattractant protein); it is a chemokine produced by DCs and macrophages; serves to recruit mononuclear cells from the marrow to sites of inflammation

Answer 525

CD204 Class A macrophage scavenger receptor, expressed on normal tissue macrophages. HS samples and normal macrophages will be CD204+. Lymphoid neoplasms, sarcomas, and cutaneous histiocytomas (Langerhans origin) will be CD204-. 50/50 HS samples were positive, including EHS

Answer 526

Min Schnauzer; OR 4.8 for HS

Answer 527

``` Flat coated retreivers (OR 34) Bernese Mountain dog (OR 15) Sharpeis (OR 16) Miniature Schnauzers (OR 4.8) Golden retreiver (OR 3.9) Rottweilers ```

Answer 528

Positive for: CD1a, CD1c, CD11b, CD18, MHC II +/-, E-cadherin 87% express PDGFR-b (of FPH and HS) Almost all cats surviving > 300d had high PDGFR-b expression

Answer 529

Initially occurs in skin and progresses over time to involve multiple organs (LN, lungs, abdominal viscera) Multiple firm, haired or hairless, dermal papules or nodules, that can coalesce into plaques and become ulcerated Head, feet, legs Unresponsive to steroids, effective medical tx not available; can consider removal of solitary masses, but development of more is expected Disease progresses over months to years (median 13.4m)

Answer 530

CDKN2A/B deletions - 63% PTEN deletions - 40% RB1 - FCR 2x more likely to have deletions vs BMD TP53 - FCR 2x more likely to have gain of function mutations vs BMD

Answer 531

PTPN11 gene - exon 3 BMD with HS had a higher prevalence of this mutation (37%) compared to other breeds with HS (9%)

Answer 532

BMD: - 225x higher risk of HS - 17x more likely to die from tumor causes - 2x as likely as FCR to develop disseminated dz - FCR 7x more likely than BMD to have localized dz - Prev orthopedic dz increases risk of HS in BMD, but risk is lower in those receiving medications for >6m

Answer 533

MMP 2, 9, 14 | TIMP 1

Answer 534

16% pulmonary | 46% intrathoracic

Answer 535

Diffuse enhancement of meninges Forebrain most common location Solitary extra-axial mass with moderate to marked CE Iso or hypointense on T2 (vs meningioma, hyperintense)

Answer 536

Multivariate: - Thrombocytopenia - Disseminated dz - Palliative therapy - Concurrent use of steroids Univariate: -Elevated survivin levels- also associated with chemoresistance

Answer 537

ORR 29% Rescue specific ORR 19% TTP 2m MST 6m 30% due to GI toxicity primarily

Answer 538

CD11d (macrophages from the splenic red pulp and BM)

Answer 539

Regenerative anemia - 94% Hypoalbuminemia - 94% Thrombocytopenia - 88% Hypocholesterolemia - 70% days to 1-2m

Answer 540

Philadelphia - BCR-abl 9 ->22 translocation - Chrom 9 encodes abl gene for a TKR involved in growth and differentiation - Chrom 22 encodes bcr gene - Abl gene moves close to the bcr gene (9->22 translocation) and a new fusion gene bcr-abl is formed; this allows for constitutive activation of the abl tyrosine kinase, which promotes CML; present in 90% of CML cases and occasionally AML and ALL Raleigh: BCR-ABL translocation affects chromosomes 9 and 26

Answer 541

Typically B-cell CD34+, CD21+, CD3-, CD4-, CD8- <10% T-cell: CD3+, CD4-, CD8-, CD21-

Answer 542

CD45+, CD34+, CD11b+, CD11c+, CD14+, MPO+, CD4+ (+/- ) Granulocytes can sometimes express CD4 so it may be CD4+ Strong ALP (none in LSA or CLL); weak on some ALL Negative for B and T cell markers; 30% can express them

Answer 543

T-cell: CD8+ with large granular morphology . MOST COMMON. MST 930d B-cell: CD21+, CD34- SMALL BREED DOGS/Bulldogs MST 480d

Answer 544

Increased risk of CLL Median age of 6 yrs Low MHC class II and CD25 expression Higher % of hyperglobulinemia