Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Medical Technology Board Exam > Baby - Micro > Flashcards

Baby - Micro Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

Chain of infection

A

6 components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Shaeffer-Fulton stain

A

Used for Spores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Acridine orange

A

Stains Nucleic Acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Fungal elements with acridine orange

A

Fluoresce green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Trypticase Soy Broth (TSB)

A 
Used for subcultures
Contains soybean and casein
Uses sodium chloride for osmotic stability
contains glucose as fermentable CHO
contains dipotassium phosphate as buffer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Thioglycollate broth

A

Casein, soy broth, glucose

supports growth of anaerobes, aerobes, microaerophilic and fastidious organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Thioglycollate broth boiled for 10 minutes

A

To drive off oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Todd-Hewitt broth

A

Selection and enrichment for S. agalactiae in female genital specimens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

MacConkey agar

A

Most frequently used primary selective and differential agar; Contains crystal violet dye to inhibit g(+) bacteria and fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Culture media sterilization

A

Autoclave sterilization, membrane filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Methods that directly measure antimicrobial activity

A
  • in board exams 1,2,3

Broth dilution, agar dilution, disk diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Incubation for disk diffusion method

A

Incubation is at 35°C in air but increased CO2 is used when testing certain fastidious bacteria; incubation time may be increased beyond 16 hours to enhance detection of certain resistance patterns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

CLSI performance standard for antimicrobial disk susceptibility

A

Susceptible, intermediate and resistant, definitions same as those for dilution methods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Automated antimicrobial susceptibility test systems

A
  1. Vitek
  2. WalkAway system
  3. Pheonix system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Advance Expert System (AES) software (in VITEK)

A

A category interpretation is assigned, and organisms antimicrobial resistance patterns are reported

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

_______ is an antimicrobial agent and is not an antibiotic because it is not produced by a microorganism

A

Sulfanilamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Methods for testing production of beta-lactamase

A
  1. Chromogenic cephalosphorin method
  2. Acidometric method
  3. Iodometric method
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Positive for the beta-lactamase chromogenic cephalosporin method

A

Color change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Half a dose of antibiotic to disappear from the blood

A

Half-life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Acid-fast stained smear

A

1000x magnification (OIO is 100x while the ocular has 10x magnification) for 300 fields

AFB is red
Background is blue or blue-green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Grade A milk

A

Bacterial count 75,000 per mL when raw and will not exceed 15,000 bacteria per mL once pasteurized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Milk borne disease for human

A

B. anthracis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Milk borne disease for cow

A

S. typhi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

SPS, 0.025%

A

Anticoagulant for microbiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Heparin

A

Commonly used especially for viral cultures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Type of filter that can give 100% sterility

A

Millipore (0.22um)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Capsule can be used for

A

Serotyping by swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Staphylococcal protein A

A

Coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

DNase positive

A

S. aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

DNase negative

A

S. epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Positive control for acetamide test

A

P. aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Positive control for acetate test

A

E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Incubation for acetamide, acetate test

A

35°C for up to 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Positive malonate test

A

Blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Negative malonate test

A

Green, yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Diagnosis is based on patient history

A

Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis (PAM) Naegleria fowleri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Added to MAC to inhibit g+ fungi

A

Crystal violet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

MR and VP result for Enterobacteriaceae

A

Opposite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Most common pathogen in throat cultures

A

Group A Streptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Destroyed by oxygen

A

Streptolysin O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Bacitracin, 0.04 units

A

Taxo A, S. pyogenes sensitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

G+ cocci, S to Bacitracin, R to SXT

A

S. pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Optochin

A

Sensitive, zone of inhibition 14 mm or greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

PPNG

A

Penicillinase-producing gonococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Inhibitor in Salmonella Shigella Agar (SSA)

A

Bile salt, brilliant green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Approproate specimen for culturing N. gonorrhoeae

A

Eyes, rectum, oral cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Preferred medium for isolation of Brodetella pertussis

A

Charcoal-perplexin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Nasopharyngeal swab

A

*ans. board exams is AOTA

H. influenza, N. meningitides, B. pertussis, MRSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Clear medium for mycobacteria

A

Middlebrook 7H11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Selective media suitable for isolation of C. dipthariae

A

Tinsdale’s, CTBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Confirm laboratory diagnosis of diphtheria

A

Demonstrate toxin production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Final diagnosis of diphtheria is made from

A

Virulence test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Woolsorter’s disease

A

B. antracis

54
Q

Confirm laboratory diagnosis of tetanus

A

Demonstrate toxin production

55
Q

Antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis and diarrhea

A

C. difficile

56
Q

Patientes in the intensive care unit (ICU) who are mechanically ventilated may quickly become colonized with:

A

P. aeruginosa

57
Q

Fungi should be incubated

A

25 to 30°C

58
Q

Fungal culture be held before reporting as negative

A

30 days

59
Q

Temperature for fungi is 30°C, and the suggested incubation time is:

A

21 days

60
Q

Candida albincans produces

A

Blastosphores, chlamydosphores and psedohyphae

61
Q

Cornmeal agar plus Tween 8- is used to identify Candida albicans through the organisms production of

A

Chlamydospores

62
Q

Candida albicans in sterile serum

A

Germ tube

63
Q

Macroconidia that are large, multicellular and club-shapred with smooth walls

A

Epidermophyton floccosum

64
Q

Farmer’s lungs; Aflatoxin

A

Aspergillus

65
Q

Stain in Aman’s medium

A

Lactophenol cotton blue

66
Q

Storage of viral specimen

A

4°C

67
Q

Transport of viral specimen (several days)

A

-70°C

68
Q

Difference of enterovirus from rhinovirus “EAR”

A

Enterovirus is acid resistant

Rhinovirus is acid sensitive

69
Q

Specimen collected from a patient with

A

Stool, throat swab and CSF

70
Q

Specimen collected from a patient with influenza

A

Throat swab

71
Q

Severe Acute Respiratory syndrome (SARS)

A

RT-PCR, cell culture using the Vero-E6 cell line (CPE: rapid cell rounding, refractivity and detachment)

72
Q

First intermediate host of flukes

A

Snail

73
Q

Second intermediate host of flukes

A

Crabs, crayfish

74
Q

Echinostoma ilocanum egg

A

straw-colored, operculated and ovoid.

75
Q

Non-operculated egg with small lateral spine

A

S. japonicum

76
Q

Non-operculated egg with lateral spine

A

S. mansoni

77
Q

Non-operculated egg with terminal spine

A

S. haematobium

78
Q

Schistosomal egg recovered in rectal biopsy

A

S. mansoni, S. japonicum

79
Q

Schistosomule

A

Cercaria minus tail

80
Q

Characterized by an undulating membrane

A

Trichomonas, Trypanosoma

81
Q

Vector for African sleeping sickness

A

Tsetse fly, Glossina sp.

82
Q

Definitive host of Plasmodium sp.

A

Anopheles mosquito

83
Q

Gay bowel syndrome

A

G. lamblia

84
Q

Unholy 3/ triad of infection (HAT)

A

Hookworm, Ascaris, Trichuris

85
Q

Nematode with parasite with heart to lung migration (ASH)

A

Ascaris, Strongyloides, Hookworms

86
Q

Ascaris egg lacking its mammillated coat

A

Decorticated

87
Q

First stage larva of intestinal nematodes

A

Rhabditiform larva

88
Q

Hermaphroditic

A

Flukes, tapeworms

89
Q

First intermediate host of D. latum

A

copepods

90
Q

Second intermediate host of D. latum

A

Fresh water fish

91
Q

Taenia saginata scolex

A

4 cuplike suckers, No rostellum

92
Q

Taenia solium scolex

A

4 cuplike suckers, armed rostellum

93
Q

Tree-like, dichotomous uterine branches: 15-20

A

T. saginata

94
Q

Finger-like, dendritic branches: 7-12

A

T. solium

95
Q

Hexacanth embryo in a radially striated shell

A

Taenia

96
Q

Hexacanth embryo that lacks polar filaments

A

H. diminuta

97
Q

Stain for Naegleria and Acanthamoeba

A

H & E, Wright’s

98
Q

Trophozoites what color with iodine

A

Iodine destroys trophozoites, nigggaaaahhh

99
Q

Cytoplasm for protozoan cysts in iodine

A

Yellow-brown

100
Q

Chromotoidal bodies of protozoan cysts in iodine

A

Do not stain, niggaaaaahhh

101
Q

Trophozoite structures with trichrome stain

A

Glycogen: colorless
Nucleus: red-purple
Charcot-Leyden crystals: bright red

102
Q

Chromatoid bodies with trichrome stain

A

Bright to red

103
Q

Preservative in trichrome staining

A

Polyvinyl alcohol

104
Q

Entamoeba polecki nucleus

A

One nucleus

105
Q

Trophozoite with achromatic granules surrounding its karyosomal chromatin

A

Iodamoeba butschlii

106
Q

Granulomatous encephalitis

A

Acanthamoeba

107
Q

Mistaken for cysts of amoeba

A

Blastocystis hominis

108
Q

Found within the reticuloendothelial cells

A

Leishamania donovani, Histoplasma and Toxoplasma

109
Q

90% cases of malaria

A

P. vivax and P. falciparum

110
Q

Definitive host to Plasmodium

A

Female Anopheles mosquito

111
Q

Synchronized rupture of RBC’s every 72 hours

A

Plasmodium malariae

112
Q

Parasite associated with AIDS

A

Cryptosporidium

113
Q

Preferred blood specimen for blood smear for protozoa

A

Finger puncture

114
Q

To detect stipplings, prepare blood fimls

A

30 min to 1 hour after being drawn

115
Q

Direct fecal smear, 2 mg stool

A

0.85% NaCL (NSS)

116
Q

Kato-thick smear

A

Cellophane paper soaked in mixture of glycerine and malachite green solution

117
Q

Definitive diagnosis

A

Demonstration of the parasite

118
Q

Presumptive evidence of infection only

A

Detection of immune response

119
Q

Basic knowledge of the biology of parasite

A

Proper procedure can be determined

120
Q

Study of parasite life cycle

A

Determines frequency and timing of specimen collection

121
Q

For quality control when monitoring reagents, how often should reagent disks be checked

A

When container is first opened and once each week of use

122
Q

How often should catalase, oxidase and coagulase reagents be tested

A

Once each day of use and when vial is first opened

123
Q

Record temperatures of incubators, water baths, heating blocks, refrigerators, freezers and thermometers

A

At each time of use, at the beginning of each day and at the end of each day

124
Q

Check the face velocity of safety cabinets each

A

Month

125
Q

Settings of RPMS marked on the face of the rheostat control on the centrifuge should be checked once every:

A

Month

126
Q

Free chlorine in water sample of swimming pool

A

Neutralized with sodium thiosulfate

127
Q

Commonly transmitted in water

A

Salmonella,. Shigella and Vibrio

128
Q

Not commonly transmitted in water

A

Pasteurella

129
Q

Bacteriological examination of water

A

Total plate count

MPN* Most probable number

130
Q

Milk-borne Diseases

A

Bovine origin or Diseased human handlers

Medical Technology Board Exam (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions