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B200 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. When conducting the Primary Governors, Overspeed Governors and Rudder Boost Check, the power levers are increased until the propeller RPM stabilises at
A

c) 1800-1910 RPM

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2
Q
  1. When the PROP GOV switch is held to TEST
A

a) A solenoid is actuated and resets the overspeed governor to 1830 - 1910 rpm for test purposes

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3
Q
  1. When conducting the Autofeather check and retarding the left power lever the correct indications are
A

b) At approximately 410 ft-lbs the R AUTOFEATHER annunciator extinguishes and at approximately 260 ft-lbs both annunciators are extinguished and the left prop starts to feather

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4
Q
  1. The AUTOFEATHER system is armed by
A

b) The autofeather switch being in the ARM position and Power Lever microswitches (approximately 90% N1)

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5
Q
  1. The battery charge current should be 10 amps or less before take-off. The reason for this is
A

c) The battery duration time cannot be guaranteed if the charge is greater than 10 amps

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6
Q
  1. Take-off with a battery charge rate of greater than 10 amps
A

d) Is at the discretion of the pilot

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7
Q
  1. With the right and left engines started and the right generator online, an indication of 24 volts on the left load meter indicates
A

b) The right current limiter is blown

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8
Q
  1. On initial indication of a R DC GEN caution
A

c) Follow the QRH which will lead to a generator reset

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9
Q
  1. The Flight Guidance System
A

b) Is a dual system made up of two Flight Guidance Computers, a Flight Guidance Panel and four servos

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10
Q
  1. To make sure of a successful initialisation of the AHS the pilot should
A

a) Not initialise in a hanger
b) Not change the position of the flaps until the initialisation is complete
c) Not change the position of the nose wheel by operating the nose wheel steering system until initialisation is complete
d) All of the above
Reference: Collins Pro-Line 21 Avionics System 13-1

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11
Q
  1. Environmental bleed air volume is controlled by the ENVIR BLEED AIR – NORMAL-AUTO-LOW switch. On aircraft fitted with the Keith Environmental System, if selected to the AUTO position
A

The ECS should also be selected to AUTO

The flow setting will switch to NORMAL if a red ALT WARN annunciator is detected by the controller
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12
Q
  1. The LSALT specified on a ERC or TAC is valid for
A

b) RNP 2 operations

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13
Q
  1. Aerodrome forecasts for the destination and alternate aerodromes must be valid for the period of
A

c) 30 minutes before and 60 minutes after the planned ETA

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14
Q
  1. If planning to an airport at night where the runway lighting is pilot activated
A

c) An alternate is not required if standby power is available and a responsible person is in attendance

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15
Q

Display range of the Weather radar is?

A

5-300nm

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16
Q

Tilt range of the weather radar is?

A

30 degrees, +15 to -15

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17
Q

During Icing conditions the stall warning is?

A

Unrealiable

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18
Q

Illumination of the red indicator lights in the LDG GEAR CONTROL show that the gear is?

A

In transit or unlocked

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19
Q
  1. What is the minimum oil pressure at low idle
A

c. 60psi

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20
Q
  1. What is the minimum quantity of engine oil prior to flight
A
  1. What is the minimum quantity of engine oil prior to flight?

Minimum is 4 quarts down

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21
Q
  1. When is the appropriate time to check the oil quantity
A

To avoid overservicing of oil tank, and high oil consumption, an oil level check is recommended within 30 minutes after engine shutdown. Ideal interval is 15 to 20 minutes. PT6A-42 Maintenance manual

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22
Q
  1. You notice that the oil temperature rises to 101 degrees. What is the time allowed at this temperature
A

b. 10 minutes

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23
Q
  1. What are the actions for “Chip Detect” caution
A

a. Engine instruments monitor.
b. If, abnormal, shutdown engine at pilot’s discretion

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24
Q
  1. The engine oil scavenge pump shares an accessory drive with which of the following
A

c. N1 tachogenerator

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25
Q
  1. Refer to Part 61 subpart M division 1 for the following questions.
    61.855 What are the privileges of the rating
A

the holder of an instrument rating is authorised to pilot an aircraft: (a) under the IFR; or (b) at night under the VFR

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26
Q

What are the limitations on exercising the privileges of single pilot

A

The holder of an instrument rating is authorised to pilot an aircraft under the IFR in a single pilot operation only if the holder has conducted a flight or simulated flight under the IFR in a single pilot operation within the previous 6 months.
(2) For subregulation (1), the flight or simulated flight must:
(a) have a duration of at least one hour; and
(b) include at least one instrument approach or simulated instrument approach.

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27
Q

Area is QNH is used for an approach. What must the minima be increased by

A

50 feet,

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28
Q

Minimum visibility for a visual approach by day is

A

Not less than 5000m.

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29
Q

Landing minima for an aerodrome without an approved instrument approach procedure is

A

Day – visual approach requirements. Clear of cloud, in sight of ground or water, visibility 5km or greater
Night – VMC from LSALT within 3nm

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30
Q

A missed approach provides a minimum obstacle clearance of…?

A

100 feet

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31
Q

After the IAF during a RNAV approach you receive a RAIM warning. What are your actions?

A

Carry out a missed approach (if in IMC)

32
Q

Is an alternate required when landing at an aerodrome by day with an instrument approach procedure with no forecast

A

Yes

33
Q

You receive a “GNSS REVERTED” message on the PFD and FMS, what does this mean

A

This shows when the FMS is using the cross-side GPS sensor instead of the same side sensor, while the same side sensor is enabled. This could be the result of invalid data from the same side GPS sensor or a failed same side sensor.

34
Q

A “GNSS NOT AVAILABLE” message is displayed on the CDU, what does this indicate

A

It depends on what colour the message is…
If it is yellow – This shows when the FMS is not using GPS/GNSS position data as part of its calculations to determine position. Shows if the GPS/GNSS has been unavailable for at least 2 minutes in the terminal environment of the destination airport, or at least 30 seconds in the approach environment of the destination airport and the GPS sensors are enabled (v4.0 addition…for non-SBAS approaches. SBAS LPV approaches will show this message within 2.5secs when flying approaches requiring the GNSS sensors.)
If it is White - This shows when the FMS is not using GNSS position data as part of its calculations to determine position. Shows when the GNSS has been unavailable for at least 5 minutes in the oceanic, remote or enroute environment.

35
Q

Whilst conducting an RNAV approach you receive a green GPS APPR annunciation on the PFD. What does this mean?

A

Shows when the lateral and vertical deviation is set to the approach sensitivity level and a GNSS approach is active. Lateral +/-0.3nm, Vertical +/-250ft.

36
Q

How many GPS are installed in the aircraft and what TSO do they comply with

A

2x GPS-4000S units. They are Technical Standard Order (TSO)145 beta 3. This is equivalent to TSO146. TSO 145 means the GPS units are integrated into the total nav solution. TSO146 are stand alone GPS units.

37
Q

When are Airstrip Clearance runs required and who can conduct them?

A

2B1.17.2 Airstrip Clearance Run (Strip Run) 1. The RFDS has experienced a high number of animal strikes while landing at rural, remote and smaller regional airstrips. As a result of this, RFDS crew are to apply the following Airstrip Clearance Run (Strip Run) procedure to try to avoid animal strikes: (a) Day Operations - No requirement for a strip inspection prior to operation (b) Night Operations - The RFDS requires that a ‘strip run’ be made prior to operating to the following locations at night: (i) All locations where a known heightened or potentially heightened risk of animal hazard exists (ii) Any location where a published animal hazards exist (iii) Any location where an animal proof fences exists and there is knowledge that the fencing has been compromised. At any Aerodrome designated CTAF(R) the aerodrome operator must be contacted to conduct the strip run. QAS, QPS and SES are not equipped with aviation VHF radios and as such cannot enter the runway area of a mandatory radio required aerodrome. At aerodromes where the carriage of radio is not mandated (CTAF) the RFDSQ can request runway inspections for the purpose of animal hazard reduction. The person coordinating the request shall ask that any personnel conducting the inspection shall monitor UHF channel 5 for communication between ground staff and the aircraft.

38
Q

When are sterile cockpit procedures required

A

2B4.6 STERILE COCKPIT A sterile flight deck policy is to be observed at all times below 10,000 ft AGL, within 1000 ft of an assigned altitude during level-off including ground operations. Only matters essential and directly related to the conduct of the flight will be permitted to be discussed. Other non-essential conversation will be deferred until an appropriate time.

39
Q

9 According to RFDSQ Vol 2 what are the recommended procedures for avoiding downdraft and turbulence from thunderstorms

A
  1. Thunderstorm Avoidance — In the interests of safety and passenger comfort, the avoidance of severe thunderstorms is of paramount importance. The following procedures and distance separation standards are to be adhered to at all times.
  2. Take Off — To avoid wind reversal and down draughts, take-off is not to be commenced if, in the opinion of the PIC, an active thunderstorm is approaching and will be within 5 NM of the position of the aircraft directly after take-off. Where available, radar should be used prior to take-off, but no attempt is to be made to monitor it until the aircraft is cleaned up and established on climb.
  3. After Take Off — If a clear path is not available on the allotted departure track, the aircraft should hold clear of thunderstorms until the allotted departure track is clear or an alternative track is allotted by ATC. The following distances clear of active storms will be complied with: (a) 5 nm during climb or descent while below the freezing level. (b) Above the freezing level, gradually increase the minimum distance to 20 nm until above FL200. Use 20 nm for all operations above FL200.
  4. Flight crew should also avoid areas of electrical activity including flight immediately below the base of storms. These areas are prone to microbursts, severe turbulence, hail and lighting strikes.
  5. Descent and Approach to Land — The aircraft must be flown clear of thunderstorms either by holding or adopting an alternative Approach Track. Circuit and approach to land should be not closer than 5 NM to an active storm.
  6. Flight In Turbulence — When entering an area of anticipated moderate to severe turbulence, captains must take the following action. Use of the autopilot in accordance with the Aircraft Flight Manual procedures is preferred: (a) Switch on the seat belt sign. (b) Ensure the shoulder harness is in place. (c) Establish correct penetration speed. (d) Maintain constant attitude with reference to the AI, correcting in pitch and roll; avoid over-correction as excessive loads may be applied to the aircraft structure. (e) Avoid power alterations unless high or low speed limits are exceeded but avoid operation in the lower ranges. (f) Avoid turns, as they increase the load on the aircraft structure & also increase the stalling speed. (g) Do not chase IAS or altitude. Advise ATC if altitude cannot be maintained. (h) Both flight crew members must monitor flight instruments. (i) Turn cockpit lights to bright to reduce blinding effect in the event of a lightning strike.
40
Q

What are the Meteorological conditions required before the term CAVOK can be included in a Take-off and Landing report?

A

. CAVOK is included in reports (from staffed stations only) or forecasts when the following conditions are observed, or forecast to occur, simultaneously: visibility of 10 km or more; nil significant cloud, that is, no cloud below 5000 ft or below the highest 25 nm minimum sector altitude, whichever is greater, and no cumulonimbus or towering cumulus at any height and nil significant weather.

41
Q

You receive a Loss of Integrity warning after passing the Initial Approach Fix on an RNAV approach. Describe your actions

A

ENR 1.5 Para 1.12 Immediately carry out the missed approach. If LOI ceases when missed approach is selected the GNSS may be used for missed approach guidance. If LOI continues or there is doubt about the accuracy of the GNSS then an alternative means of guidance or DR must be used to fly the missed approach.

42
Q

Is a crack in a side widow acceptable

A

AFM Limitations: Limited to 25 hours of flight time. Aircraft must be depressurised and dump switch in the dump position

43
Q

You notice the cockpit blower is pulsing between high and low settings within a time period of approximately 5 seconds. What may this be indicating?

A

AFM section 7 ENVIRONMENTAL CONTROLS, If the controller detects an open or erratic reading from one or more of the temperature sensors throughout the airplane and the Environmental Control knob and COCKPIT BLOWER are selected to AUTO, the cockpit blower will pulse between high and low setting.

44
Q

Selection of flaps beyond approach with undercarriage retracted will cause what indications

A

AFM section 7 LANDING GEAR WARNING SYSTEM. Gear warning horn and LDG GEAR CONTROL lights will be activated and regardless of the power setting and neither can be cancelled.

45
Q
  1. When must contingency fuel be planned for
A

a. In accordance with CASA CAAP 234 contingency fuel must be carried to cover: (a) loss of pressurisation (b) engine failure

b. In addition, for RFDS operations, contingency fuel will also be carried for aerodromes with standby power and reliant on responsible persons to mitigate PAL failure where ATC is not in operation.

c. Pilots reliant on ‘a responsible person’, as a contingency for PAL failure, at an aerodrome with standby power available, but without ATC in operation and in lieu of an alternate, will carry 30 minutes contingency fuel calculated at the low level holding fuel flow applicable to the aircraft type. This is to cover the response time for ‘the responsible person’ to attend the aerodrome post PAL failure.

46
Q

Contingency fuel Is calculated at what rate

A

30 minutes at the low level holding rate of 500lb/hr

47
Q

When are you required to print out a completed ARM and attach it to the flight plan for record keeping

A

It is a requirement to record the ARM Score for each leg on the Aircraft Flight Record (AFR). Any flight leg where the risk score is 6 or above must have a completed risk matrix attached to the flight plan to be kept as a record for the prescribed period of 3 months

48
Q
  1. Sustained Prop RPM over 2120 indicate failure of what
A

-Both the primary and Overspeed Governor

49
Q

When Prop Heat is in Auto mode. What is the heating period for each propeller

A

90 seconds entire right propeller, 90 seconds entire left propeller

50
Q

Below 1600 Prop RPM, torque is limited too

A

1100ft lb

51
Q

When the FLAP OVRD is active what functions are supressed?

A

Disables the GPWS mode 4b alert, TOO LOW FLAPS and desensitizes the mode 1 alert boundaries.
Reference, POH 7-107
Mode 1 excessive descent rate boundaries are desensitised to allow higher rates of descent with flaps in the non landing configuration (a 300feet/min bias is applied). The system is forced into Mode 2b which is a desensitised alerting envelope, normally only when flaps are selected down. Also desensitises mode 3 (altitude loss after takeoff). Also prevents/silences the too low flaps callout which is Mode 4B. EGPWS Mk VI and VIII pilots guide.

52
Q

You arrive at a remote airfield where there is no VHF coverage and you cannot get through to flight watch on HF. What is the elapsed time from your ETA that ATS will start to commence communication checks?

A

10 minutes

53
Q

What buffers apply to an INTER period that reduces weather below the alternate minima on a TAF 3?

A

No buffers apply if it’s within the first 3 hours of the TAF 3 – Refer AIP ENR 1.1-75 para 10.7.2.

54
Q

A “Qualifying Multi Engine Aeroplane” as defined by the AIP must be capable, after failure of the critical engine have a minimum climb gradient of _ % and _% above the obstacle free gradient for the runway length required?

A

1.9% and 0.3% - Refer AIP ENR 1.5-31 para 4.3.1

55
Q

You are at the Holding Point and Tower tells you to line up but the Stop Bars have not gone out, can you proceed

A

-If Stop Bars cannot be deselected, ATC may instruct pilots and drivers of vehicles to cross an illuminated Stop Bar. Instructions will be issued via Voice or on the ATIS

56
Q

What are the RFDSQ requirements when Conducting Visual Approaches during Parallel Runway Ops?

A

When given Visual Approach instructions to either RWY, pilots are to use RNAV or ILS for guidance to avoid crossing Non-Transgression Zone

57
Q

What are the limits on the use of AVGAS and what factor should you use to obtain the correct fuel quantity when using AVGAS?

A

-Ops limited to 150hrs between engine overhauls.
-Ops limited to FL200 or below if either STBY pump inop,
-Crossfeed capability is required for climbs above FL200.
-Ops above FL310 prohibited.
-When using AVGAS, multiply the fuel quantity by 0.94 to obtain corrected fuel quantity.
AFM- Section 2, Limitations on use of AVGAS
AFM- Section 4, Normal Procedures on use of Jet B, JP-4 & AVGAS.

58
Q

The Phase 1 actions for [ALT WARN] are

A
  1. Oxygen Mask(s) DON
  2. Mic Switch(es) OXY
  3. Passenger Manual Drop Out PULL ON
  4. Descend AS REQUIRED
59
Q

The Phase 1 actions for EMERGENCY DESCENT are

A
  1. Power Levers IDLE
  2. Prop levers FULL FORWARD
  3. Flaps (max 200) APPROACH
  4. Landing Gear (181 max) DOWN
  5. Airspeed 181 max
60
Q

While cruising at FL320, you notice the oil pressure is falling rapidly, and elect to shut down the offending engine. As the aircraft will not maintain FL320 on one engine, what power setting and speed would you ‘Drift down’ at?

A

Answer, max allowable power, 2000 rpm, 135 kts. FCTM2 section 11.4.4
Note: If 121kts were set as the drift down speed, the aircraft will have minimum rate of descent, however will level out slightly above single engine service ceiling and maintain 121 kts. This final speed and cruise altitude would be rather slow and high respectively in regard to terrain considerations in Australia. Drifting down at 135kts would still provide a final cruise altitude well above any terrain in Australia

61
Q

Auxiliary fuel is transferred to the Nacelle Tank by what means

A

b) Motive Flow via a jet pump – Flight Safety Manual 5-3

62
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage required for engine starting

A

23

63
Q

With Flap in UP or APR position and the landing gear NOT down and locked. The gear warning horn and gear handle red light will activate below approximately

A

c. 85% N1

64
Q

At the bottom of the audio control panel is an AUDIO ALT/NORM switch. When would you use it? List the limitations (if any) of the audio system when selected.

A

The Alternate Audio switch is normally left in the NORM position. If the audio
amplifier fails, the audio panel will not function normally and the Alternate audio
switch must be placed to the ALTN position. When the ALTN mode is selected,
the pilot can transmit and receive on COMM 1 using a boom mic, cockpit Speaker or headphones. The volume of radio receptions is not controllable.
NOTE
Transmissions may be made on COMM 2 and the PA, but
COMM 2 receptions are not possible.

65
Q

The ESIS amber light indicates

A

The ESIS is using its own battery

66
Q

The CABIN ALT HI (warning) and PAX OXYGEN ON (advisory) annunciators will illuminate when

A

The cabin pressure altitude reaches a value 12,000ft for the warning then 12,500ft for the pax oxy masks and they have deployed

67
Q
  1. State the approved commercial grade fuel types for the B200
A
  • Jet A, A1, B, Chinese No.3
  • Avgas – Any
68
Q

Which fuel pump failed to cause the FUEL PRES to illuminate?

A

The engine driven low pressure pump

69
Q
  1. With the AFX switch set to ARM. AFX will arm as power on both engines is increased above
A

c. 90%N1

70
Q
  1. What does holding the AFX switch to TEST do?
A

Disables the 90%N1 switches in the power lever quadrant.

71
Q
  1. The AFM and QRH specifically state that in the event of an engine failure, the failed engine’s power lever should not be retarded. Why?
A

This will de-activate the AFX circuit (via the 90% switch in the power lever quadrant) and prevent automatic feathering

72
Q
  1. Max prop RPM of 2120 would indicate failure of the
A

a. Primary governor

73
Q
  1. Max propeller RPM in reverse is limited by the
A

c. Fuel topping governor

74
Q
  1. Split flap protection is activated when flap asymmetry is detected at an angle between
A

3 and 6 degrees.

75
Q
A

B200 Study (5 decks)

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