B P7 C62 Mechanisms of Cardiac Arrhythmias Flashcards

1
Q

Cardiac cells normally have a negative intracellular resting potential, which for most of the heart (working atrial and ventricular muscle, specialized His-Purkinje conducting system) is about __________

A

−80 to −90 mV

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2
Q

RMP of sinoatrial (SA) and central AV (AV) node regions

A

−50 and −65 mV

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3
Q

The cardiac AP is by convention divided into four phases, the_____.

A

Phase 0: AP-upstroke, which depolarizes the cell from its negative resting potential to a potential positive to 0 mV;

Phase 1: the initial rapid repolarization phase;

Phase 2: the so-called plateau, in which the AP voltage changes relatively slowly;

Phase 3: the final rapid repolarization phase, which brings the cell back to its resting potential

Phase 4: Resting potential

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4
Q

Phase 0 happens when there is a rapid increase in membrane permeability to _______ , and K + permeability falls, making Na + the dominant conductance

A

Na+

At the peak of phase 0 (the “overshoot”), the cell moves close to the Na + equilibrium potential, which is quite positive because in contrast to K+ , Na + is more concentrated outside the cell than inside and the Na + chemical force makes it move into the cell, making the interior more positive.

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5
Q

Phase ____ is carried by a transient, rapid exit of K +from the cell.

A

Phase 1

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6
Q

____________ is the portion of the AP during which Ca 2+ enters the cell and causes a large secondary release of Ca 2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR), the main cellular Ca2+ -storage organelle. The SR Ca2+ -release rapidly increases free intracellular [Ca2+ ], which causes cellular contraction and mediates electromechanical coupling.

A

Phase 2

During phase 2, the transmembrane potential is governed by balanced permeabilities to Ca 2+and K+,

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7
Q

Phase ______, a rapid increase in K + permeability offsets the decreasing Ca 2+ conductance and repolarizes the cell.

A

Phase 3

Finally, phase 3 (carried by a rapid egress of K+ ) brings the cell back to its negative resting potential. Because the cell cannot be activated by normal means at voltages positive to −60 mV, from when the cell reaches −60 mV during phase 0 until the time that it repolarizes to −60 mV during phase 3 the cell cannot be fired and is “refractory” to activation.Thus, the timing of phase 3 sets the refractory period (RP)

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8
Q

Finally, phase 3 (carried by a rapid egress of K+) brings the cell back to its negative resting poten- tial.

Because the cell cannot be activated by normal means at voltages positive to −60 mV, from when the cell reaches −60 mV during phase 0 until the time that it repolarizes to −60 mV during phase 3 the cell cannot be fired and is “refractory” to activation. Thus,the timing of phase 3 sets the _____ period

A

Refractory period (RP)

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9
Q

The _____ ions are the major charge carriers, and their movement across the cell membrane through channel pores creates a flow of current that generates excitation and signals in cardiac myocytes

A

Sodium, potassium, calcium, and chloride (Na+, K+, Ca2+, and Cl−)

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10
Q

Functions of the Cardiac Electrical System

A

To initiate rhythmic contraction at a rate appropriate to the needs of the body

To ensure appropriate timing of contraction for each cardiac chamber

To prevent heart rates that are excessively slow or rapid for the body’s needs

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11
Q

Equilibrium is created when the chemical force tending to push K+ out of the cell is balanced by an equal and opposite electrical force created by the net intracellular negative charge tending to pull the K+ back into the cell. The voltage at which these forces balance is called the _____

A

Equilibrium potential

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12
Q

In the case of K+, the equilibrium potential is given by the Nernst equation _____, where R is the universal gas constant, T = absolute temperature, F = Faraday’s constant, and [K+o], [K+i] = extracellular and intracellular K+ concentration, respectively.

This value, designated “EK” for K+ equilibrium potential, is about −__ mV

A

(E = RT/F·ln([K+o]/[K+i])

-95 mV

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13
Q

The _____ ratio is commonly used to define a channel’s ionic selectivity, defined as the ratio of the permeability of one ion type to that of the main permeant ion type.

A

Permeability ratio

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14
Q

Spindle-shaped structure composed of a fibrous tissue matrix containing closely packed cells. In man, it is 10 to 20 mm long and 2 to 3 mm wide, narrowing caudally toward the inferior vena cava (IVC).

A

SA node

The SA node is superficial, lying less than 1 mm from the epicardial surface, laterally in the RA sulcus terminalis at the junction of the superior vena cava (SVC) and right atrium

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15
Q

Resting potential (mV)

A

SA node: -50 to -60
AV nodal cell: -60 to -70

Atrial myocyte: -80 to -90
His Purkinje cell: -90 to -95
Ventricular myocyte: -80 to -90

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16
Q

_____ are the proteins that form the intercellular channels of gap junctions.

A

Connexins

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17
Q

_____, a 43-kDa polypeptide, is the most abundant cardiac connexin in heart cells, with connexins 40 and 45 being found in smaller amounts

A

Connexin 43

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18
Q

Ventricular muscle expresses connexins _____, whereas atrial muscle and the specialized conduction system express connexins _____.

A

Ventricular muscle: 43 and 45

Atrial muscle/specialized conduction system: 40, 43, 45

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19
Q

Alterations in the distribution and function of cardiac gap junctions are associated with increased susceptibility to arrhythmias.

Conduction slowing and arrhythmogenesis have been associated with redistribution of connexin 43 (Cx43) gap junctions from the end of cardiomyocytes to the _____ borders and with decreased phosphorylation of Cx43 in a dog model of nonischemic dilated cardiomyopathy

A

Lateral borders

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20
Q

Artery supplying the SA node in 55-60% of cases

A

RCA

The artery supplying the SAN branches from the right (55% to 60% of the time) or the left (40% to 45%) circumflex coronary artery and approaches the node around the junction of the SVC and right atrium

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21
Q

The artery supplying the SAN branches from the _____ and approaches the node around the junction of the SVC and right atrium

A

RCA (55% to 60%)

or

LCx (40% to 45%)

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22
Q

The proximity to the _____ nerve is an important consideration when catheter ablation or modification of the sinoatrial node (SAN) is contemplated.

A

Right phrenic nerve

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23
Q

Sinoatrial node (SAN) artery variations in the arterial supply of the sinus node.

The SAN blood supply originates from a single coronary artery in __% of cases and from both coronary arteries in __%

A

Single CA: 96%
Both CA: 4%

R anterior atrial artery: 64%
L anterior atrial artery: 22%
L lateral atrial artery: 8%
R lateral atrial artery: 2%

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24
Q

If the origin is from the _____coronary artery, the nodal artery crosses the roof or the anterior wall of the left atrium.

A

Left coronary artery

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25
Q

Anatomic landmarks of the triangle of Koch

A

Superior: Tendon of Todaro
Inferior: Attachment of the septal leaflet of the TV
Base: mouth of the coronary sinus

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26
Q

The normal AV junctional area is composed of multiple distinct structures, including transitional tissue, inferior nodal extension (INE), compact portion, penetrating bundle, His bundle, atrial and ventricular muscle, central fibrous body, tendon of Todaro, and valves

At the level of the AV junction, the tract of nodal tissue is divided into two major components, the ______ and the ____________

A

INE
Penetrating bundle

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27
Q

The ________ is continuous with the penetrating bundle, which penetrates the fibrous tissue separating the atria and ventricles and emerges in the ventricles as the bundle of His. Both structures are covered by connective tissue and are therefore enclosed.

A

INE

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28
Q

The ____________ is a superficial structure lying just beneath the right atrial endocardium, anterior to the ostium of the coronary sinus, and directly above the insertion of the septal leaflet of the tricuspid valve.

It is at the apex of a triangle formed by the tricuspid annulus and the tendon of Todaro, which originates in the central fibrous body and passes posteriorly through the atrial septum to continue with the Eustachian valve.

A

Compact portion of the AV node

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29
Q

In 85% to 90% of human hearts, the arterial supply to the AV node is derived from a branch of the _______________ that originates at the posterior intersection of the AV and interventricular grooves (crux). A branch of the circumflex coronary artery provides the arterial supply to the AV node in the remaining hearts

A

RCA

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30
Q

This structure is the continuation of the penetrating bundle on the ventricular side of the AV junction before it divides to form the left and right bundles

A

Bundle of His

Branches from the anterior and posterior descending coronary arteries supply the upper muscular interventricular septum with blood, which makes the conduction system at this site more impervious to ischemic damage unless the ischemia is extensive.

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31
Q

Branches from the _____coronary arteries supply the upper muscular interventricular septum with blood, which makes the conduction system at this site more impervious to ischemic damage unless the ischemia is extensive.

A

Anterior and posterior descending coronary arteries

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32
Q

The bundle branches begin at the superior margin of the muscular interventricular septum, immediately beneath the membranous septum, with cells of the ______ bundle branch cascading downward as a continuous sheet onto the septum beneath the noncoronary aortic cusp

A

Left bundle branch (LBB)

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33
Q

The _______________ continues intamyocardially as an unbranched extension of the AV bundle down the right side of the interventricular septum to the apex of the right ventricle

A

Right bundle branch

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34
Q

The __________________ connect with the ends of the bundle branches to form interweaving networks on the endocardial surface of both ventricles and transmit the cardiac impulse almost simultaneously to the right and left ventricular endocardium.

A

Purkinje fibers

APs propagate within the thin Purkinje fiber bundles from the base to the apex before activating surrounding myocytes.

Purkinje myocytes have less well-developed transverse tubules which reduces membrane capacitance and thus accelerates AP propagation.

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35
Q

In humans, Purkinje fibers penetrate only the _____of the endocardium, whereas in pigs, they almost reach to the epicardium

A

Inner third

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36
Q

Although conduction of cardiac impulses is their principal function, large free-running Purkinje fibers composed of many Purkinje cells, often called _____, are capable of contraction

A

False tendons

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37
Q

APs propagate within the thin Purkinje fiber bundles from the _____ before activating surrounding myocytes.

A

Base to apex

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38
Q

Purkinje fiber coupling relies on connexins _____.

A

Connexins 40 and 45

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39
Q

In general, autonomic neural input to the heart exhibits some degree of “sidedness,” with the right sympathetic and vagal nerves affecting the __________ and the left sympathetic and vagal nerves affecting the __________ more than the SA node.

A

Right - SA node
Left - AV node

Stimulation of the right stellate ganglion produces sinus tachycardia with less effect on AV nodal conduction, whereas stimulation of the left stellate ganglion generally shifts the sinus pacemaker to an ectopic site and consistently shortens AV nodal conduction time and refractoriness. Left stellate stimulation produces variable and usually smaller degrees of SAN acceleration. Stimulation of the right cervical vagus nerve primarily slows the SA nodal discharge rate, whereas stimulation of the left vagus primarily prolongs AV nodal conduction time and refractoriness. Neither sympathetic nor vagal stimulation affects normal conduction in the His bundle.

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40
Q

Most efferent sympathetic impulses reach the canine ventricles over the ansae subclavia, branches from the stellate ganglia.

Sympathetic nerves then synapse primarily in the caudal cervical ganglia and form individual cardiac nerves that innervate relatively localized parts of the ventricles.

The major route to the heart is the _____ nerve on the right side and the _____ nerve on the left.

A

Right: recurrent cardiac nerve
Left: ventrolateral cardiac nerve

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41
Q

The principal effects of vagus nerve activation are due to opening of _____ channels.

In addition, vagal discharge modulates cardiac sympathetic activity at prejunctional and postjunctional sites by regulating the amount of norepinephrine released and by inhibiting cAMP-induced phosphorylation of cardiac proteins, including ion channels and calcium pumps

A

IK, ACh channels

42
Q

Tonic vagal stimulation thus produces a greater absolute reduction in the SAN rate in the presence of tonic background sympathetic stimulation, a sympathetic-parasympathetic interaction termed _____ antagonism.

A

Accentuated antagonism

43
Q

_____ vagal bursting, as may occur each time that a systolic pressure wave arrives at the baroreceptor regions in the aortic and carotid sinuses, induces phasic changes in sinus cycle length and can entrain the sinus node to discharge faster or slower at periods identical to those of the vagal burst

A

Periodic vagal bursting

44
Q

Because the peak vagal effects on sinus rate and AV nodal conduction occur at different times in the cardiac cycle, a brief vagal burst can _____.

A

Slow the sinus rate without affecting AV nodal conduction

OR

Prolong AV nodal conduction time and not slow the sinus rate

45
Q

Nonuniform distribution of sympathetic nerves—and thus norepinephrine levels—may produce nonuniform electrophysiologic effects during sympathetic activation because the ventricular content of norepinephrine is greater at the _____ of the heart

A

Base than at the apex

46
Q

Afferent vagal activity is higher in the _____ ventricular myocardium, which may account for the vagomimetic effects of inferior MI.

A

Posterior ventricular

47
Q

Sympathetic hypoinnervation has been shown to increase the sensitivity of adrenergic receptors to activation by circulating catecholamines (“_____”)

A

Denervation supersensitivity

48
Q

Enumerate the disorders of impulse formation

A

I. Automaticity
Normal: Sinus tachycardia or bradycardia inappropriate for the clinical situation; possibly ventricular parasystole
Abnormal: Accelerated ventricular rhythms after myocardial infarction

II. Triggered activity:
EADs: Acquired LQTS and associated ventricular arrhythmias
DADs: CPVT; atrial ectopic beats

49
Q

Enumerate the disorders of impulse conduction

A
  • Block and reentry
  • Bidirectional or unidirectional without reentry: SA, AV, bundle branch block
  • Unidirectional block with reentry: Reciprocating tachycardia in WPWS, AVNRT, VT caused by bundle branch reentry
50
Q

Enumerate the combined disorders

A

Interactions between automatic foci: Modulated parasystole
Interactions b/n automaticity and conduction: Similar to experimenta

51
Q

Disorders of ____________ are characterized by an inappropriate discharge rate of the normal pacemaker, the SA node (e.g., sinus rates too fast or too slow for physiologic needs of patient), or discharge of an ectopic pacemaker that then controls the atrial or ventricular rhythm, either as an escape rhythm or accelerated automaticity.

A

Disorders of impulse formation

52
Q

Identify the mechanism

A patient with persistent sinus tachycardia at rest or sinus bradycardia during exertion exhibits inappropriate SAN rates, but the underlying ionic mechanisms responsible can still be basically normal, with changes in the kinetics or magnitude of relevant currents underlying the abnormal rate.

A

Normal automaticity

53
Q

The discharge rate of a latent pacemaker can accelerate inappropriately and usurp control of cardiac rhythm from the SA node, as may occur with a premature ventricular complex (PVC) or a burst of ventricular tachycardia (VT)

A

Normal automaticity

Such disorders of impulse formation can be caused by alteration in a normal pacemaker mechanism (e.g., phase 4 diastolic depolarization that is physiologically normal for SA node or for ectopic site such as a Purkinje fiber, but occurs inappropriately fast or slow) or by a physiologically abnormal pacemaker mechanism.

54
Q

Identify mechanism

Slow atrial, junctional, or ventricular escape rhythms; certain types of atrial tachycardias (ATs) (e.g., those produced by digitalis or perhaps those coming from PVs); accelerated junctional (nonparoxysmal junctional tachycardia) and idioventricular rhythms

A

Abnormal automaticity

Abnormal automaticity can arise from cells that have reduced maximum diastolic potentials, often at membrane potentials positive to −50 mV, in the activation range of both I Kand ICaL. Automaticity at membrane potentials more negative than −70 mV may be caused by If

Partial depolarization and failure to reach normal maximal diastolic potential can induce automatic discharges in most if not all cardiac fibers.

55
Q

Initiated by afterdepolarizations, which are depolarizing oscillations in membrane voltage induced by one or more preceding APs.

A

Triggered activity

Thus, triggered activity is related to the consequences of a preceding impulse or series of impulses, without which electrical quiescence occurs

56
Q

Afterdepolarizations arising before full repolarization of the fiber

A

Early afterdepolarizations

57
Q

Afterdepolarizations occuring after completion of repolarization (phase 4)

A

Delayed afterdepolarizations

58
Q

Identify the mechanism

Arrhythmias precipitated by digitalis, spontaneous atrial ectopic beats, CPVT

A

Delayed afterdepolarization

59
Q

_________ depolarizations result from the activation of a calcium sensitive inward current elicited by spontaneous increases in intracellular free calcium concentration due to aberrant diastolic Ca 2+ release

A

Delayed afterdepolarizations

60
Q

____ afterdepolarizations almost certainly play a central role in the tachyarrhythmias seen in the acquired and congenital forms of LQTS

A

Early afterdepolarizations

61
Q

Mutations in the human RYR2 gene and in CASQ2, which encodes calsequestrin

A

CPVT - DADs

RYR2 and CASQ2 mutations that underlie CPVT increase the sensitivity of the RyR2 channel to luminal Ca 2+activation. Thus, increased catecholamine release due to adrenergic stimulation (e.g., from emotional or physical stress), which increases SR Ca2+ stores and phosphorylates RyR2 (increasing its Ca 2+ sensitivity further), enhances the propensity for spontaneous, diastolic SR Ca 2+ release and DAD-triggered arrhythmias (accounting for the “C” in CPVT)

62
Q

The sentinel finding in clinically identifiable EAD associated syndromes is thus prolongation of the __________________, the macroscopic manifestation of cellular APD prolongation.

A

Electrocardiographic QT interval

63
Q

Identify the mechanism

Acquired and congenital LQTS

A

Early afterdepolarization

64
Q

When the AP is excessively prolonged, the membrane potential remains at levels that allow recovery of enough steady-state Ca 2+ (particularly during ___________) or Na + (during phase 3) current to depolarize the cell, producing an EAD.

A

Phase 2

It appears that, because of their longer APD and unique Ca 2+ handling properties, Purkinje cells are particularly sensitive to EAD-inducing interventions. Purkinje cell EADs raise to threshold adjacent ventricular muscle cells that have already repolarized, producing an unstimulated extrasystole. This activation can initiate tachyarrhythmias either by the induction of unstable transmural reentry or via repetitive rapid EADs inducing repetitive ventricular beats in rapid succession.

65
Q

_____ patients are particularly prone to adrenergic provocation of ventricular arrhythmias and tend to respond well to beta-adrenoceptor blockers.

A

LQT1

66
Q

Acquired LQTS and torsades de pointes from _____, likely mediated by EADs

A

Class III antiarrhythmic drugs like quinidine, sotalol, or dofetilide and Non-cardiac agents like cisapride, erythromycin, moxifloxacin, and psychoactive drugs

67
Q

_______________ occur when the propagating impulse is blocked and is followed by asystole or a slower escape rhythm

A

Bradyarrhythmias

68
Q

_________________ occur when the delay and block produce reentrant excitation

A

Tachyarrhythmias

69
Q

Various factors involving both active and passive membrane properties determine the CV and successful propagation of an impulse.These factors include the _____.

A

(1) Stimulating efficacy of the propagating impulse, which is related to the amplitude and rate of rise of phase 0 (an indicator of the size of the activating phase 0 inward current)
(2) Excitability of the tissue into which the impulse is conducted
(3) Geometry of the tissue

70
Q

Identify the mechanism

Sinoatrial block, AV block, bundle branch block

A

Bidirectional or unidirectional without reentry

71
Q

Identify the mechanism

AVNRT
VT caused by Bundle branch block reentry
Reciprocating tachycardia in WPW

A

Unidirectional block with reentry

72
Q

_______ depolarization has been suggested as a cause of conduction block at slow rates, so-called bradycardia- or deceleration-dependent block; also called as __________ block

A

Diastolic depolarization

Phase 4 block

73
Q

Impulses are blocked at rapid rates or short cycle lengths as a result of incomplete recovery of refractoriness (postrepolarization refractoriness) caused by incomplete time- or voltage-dependent recovery of excitability.

A

Tachycardia-dependent block

For eg, such incomplete recovery is the usual mechanism responsible for a nonconducted premature P wave or one that conducts with a functional bundle branch block.

74
Q

This refers to the phenomenon whereby an impulse with a low safety factor loses activation effectiveness as it spreads anterogradely.

A

Decremental conduction

This property is most typically seen in the AV node, in relation to the relatively small amplitude of phase 0 Ca2+ current in slow channel tissue, especially at fast rates and in the presence of disease.

It is also a feature of diseased tissue with conduction impairment due to cell death, fibrosis, and/or reduced phase 0 activating current.

75
Q

During this absolute RP, the cardiac impulse has “no place to go.” Activation is then reinitiated by the next sinus impulse.

If, however, a group of fibers not activated during the initial wave of depolarization recovers excitability in time to be reactivated before the impulse dies out, the fibers may serve as a link to reexcite areas that were just discharged and have now recovered from the initial depolarization.

A

Reentry

76
Q

_____________ is the capture or continuous resetting of the tachycardia by the pacing-induced activation.

A

Entrainment

Entraining a tachycardia (i.e., increasing the rate of the tachycardia through capture of the reentry circuit by pacing), with resumption of the intrinsic rate of the tachycardia when pacing is stopped, is a clinically accessible way to establish the presence of reentry

77
Q

In _____ reentry, there is a discrete anatomical barrier separating alternate conduction pathways, and allowing reentry to be initiated and maintained.

A

Anatomic reentry

Figure 62.18A Premature beat arriving during the RP of the fast pathway (here designated Pathway 1) but after the shorter-RP pathway (Pathway 2) has recovered excitability.
The impulse then travels antegradely down Pathway 2 to the His bundle entrance, conducting via the His bundle to the ventricles (Fig. 62.18B). If the distal end of Pathway 1 has now had time to recover, the impulse will propagate retrogradely up Pathway 1 (Fig 62.18C). If the circuit time (the time to leave each point in the circuit and get back to the initial point of reference) is longer than the RP of Pathway 2, it will now be reexcited in the antegrade direction and the process can continue indefinitely (Fig 62.18D) if the conditions are right.

78
Q

Fast pathway _______ RP
Slow pathway ______ RP

A

Long RP
Short RP

79
Q

______ reentry lacks confining anatomic boundaries and can occur in contiguous fibers that exhibit functionally different electrophysiologic properties caused by local differences in transmembrane AP, APD, or other determinants of excitability

A

Functional reentry

Dispersion of excitability, refractoriness, or both, as well as anisotropic distributions of intercellular resistance, permit initiation and maintenance of reentry.

80
Q

______________ is the most likely cause of the usual form of atrial flutter, with the reentrant circuit being confined to the right atrium in typical atrial flutter, where it usually travels counterclockwise in a caudocranial direction in the interatrial septum and in a craniocaudal direction in the right atrial free wall

A

Reentry

An area of slow conduction is present in the posterolateral to posteromedial inferior area of the right atrium, along with a central area of block that can include an anatomic (IVC) and functional component.

This area of slow conduction is rather constant and represents the site of successful ablation of typical atrial flutter.

81
Q

AF is characterized by rapid irregular atrial activity

The classical theory is that of multiple disorganized reentrant waves, encapsulated by Moe’s “_____ hypothesis”

A

Multiple-wavelet hypothesis

82
Q

In atrial fibrillation, there is extensive evidence that the __________ are particularly prone to host both focal and reentrant sources

A

Pulmonary veins

PV ablation is the single most effective procedure for AF management

83
Q

________________ results from fibers that bypass the AV node and allow for more rapid communication between atria and ventricles than is normally permitted by the AV node.

These connections can produce the substrate for anatomical reentry involving the atria, AV node, ventricles, and bypass tract, generally referred to as __________

A

Preexcitation

“Atrioventricular reciprocating tachycardia” (AVRT).

84
Q

Example of pre-excitation

A

WPW syndrome

The usual (orthodromic) activation wave during such a reciprocating tachycardia in a patient with an accessory pathway occurs anterogradely over the normal AV node–His-Purkinje system and retrogradely over the accessory pathway, which results in a normal-duration QRS complex.

Occasionally, the activation wave travels in a reverse (antidromic) direction to the ventricles over the accessory pathway and to the atria retrogradely up the AV node.

85
Q

After the ventricles have been excited, the impulse is able to enter the accessory pathway retrogradely and return to the atrium.A continuous conduction loop of this type establishes the circuit for the tachycardia. The usual (_____) activation wave during such a reciprocating tachycardia in a patient with an accessory pathway occurs anterogradely over the normal AV node–His-Purkinje system and retrogradely over the accessory pathway, which results in a normal-duration QRS complex

A

Orthodromic

86
Q

In some patients, the accessory pathway may be capable of only retrograde conduction (“_____”),but the circuit and mechanism of AVRT remain the same

A

Concealed

87
Q

Reentry in ventricular muscle, with or without contributions from specialized tissue, is responsible for many or most VTs in patients with ischemic heart disease.

___________________, macroreentry using the specialized conduction system, can cause sustained VT, particularly in patients with dilated cardiomyopathy.

A

Bundle branch reentry

88
Q

During acute ischemia, various factors, including elevated_____ and reduced _____, combine to create depressed APs in ischemic cells that impede conduction and can lead to reentry

A

Elevated [K+]o
Reduced pH

89
Q

_____________ congenital sudden death syndrome which include typical ST-segment elevation (unrelated to ischemia, electrolyte abnormalities, or structural heart disease) in the right precordial (V 1 to V3 ) leads of the ECG, often but not always accompanied by an apparent right bundle branch block

Single most common genetic abnormality?

A

Brugada Syndrome

loss-of-function mutations in SCN5A which encodes the poreforming cardiac sodium channel alpha subunit Nav1.5

90
Q

In Brugada syndrome, ____ in localized myocardial regions is often a central factor, although conduction abnormalities have also been observed, and the relative role of repolarization versus depolarization abnormalities remains controversial.

A

Early repolarization

91
Q

The single most common genetic abnormality in Brugada syndrome are _____.

A

Loss-of-function mutations in SCN5A

92
Q

________________ inherited arrhythmogenic syndrome characterized by stress-induced, adrenergically mediated polymorphic VT occurring in structurally normal hearts

Genetic mechanism?

A

CPVT

The common mechanism underlying RyR2associated CPVT is spontaneous diastolic Ca 2+ leak from the SR via RyR2, leading to intracellular Ca 2+waves and triggered activity

Beta-adrenergic tone resulting from stimulation by c echolamines has a central role in modulating RyR2 function, both by increasing RyR2-sensitivity to Ca 2+ by enhancing PKA and CaMKIImediated phosphorylation, and by increasing SR Ca2+ -loading through increased I Ca,L and SERCA activity, effects that largely account for the “C” in CPVT.

Thus, beta-adrenergic receptor blockade is the mainstay of CPVT therapy.

93
Q

The common mechanism underlying RyR2- associated CPVT is _____ from the SR via RyR2, leading to intracellular Ca2+ waves and triggered activity.

A

Spontaneous diastolic Ca2+ leak

94
Q

While RyR2 mutations are responsible for about 95% of cases, CPVT can also occur because of mutations in genes encoding _____, all proteins that interact with RyR2 and regulate its function.

A

Calsequestrin
Calmodulin
Triadin

95
Q

_________________ is an inherited myopathy characterized by sustained monomorphic VT and sudden death

Mutations?

A

ARVC

The majority are mutations in genes encoding proteins of the cardiac desmosome, a component of the intercalated disc essential for mechanical coupling between cardiomyocytes.

96
Q

Approximately 20% to 45% of the pathogenic mutations linked to ARVC are in the gene encoding _____, which interacts with other cytoskeletal proteins to stabilize the desmosome.

A

Plakophilin 2 (PKP2)

97
Q

Loss of _____ expression in ARVC reduces the voltage-gated sodium current and connexin 43 expression at the intercalated disc and thus results in slowed AP propagation

A

Loss of PKP2 expression

98
Q

While the reentry underlying VF was classically thought to be randomly maintained by _____, more recent investigations have suggested underlying spatiotemporal organization and pointed to the role of _____ reentry in maintaining VF.

A

Wandering wavelets of activation

Spiral-wave reentry

99
Q

The hallmark of cardiac fibrillation is ongoing ________________

A

Wave break (or wave splitting)

Wave break is caused by conduction block occurring at a specific site along the wavefront while the remaining portions of the front continue to propagate. This localized block, wave break, causes splitting of a primary spiral wavefront into two daughter wavelets. The daughter wavefronts can collide and annihilate each other, or can form independent reentry-supporting spiral-wave generators.

100
Q

Give the mechanisms:

AFlutter
AFibrillation
LQTS
VT post MI
WPW Syndrome
AVNRT
CPVT
Ventricular Fibrillation
AV Block
SA Block

A

AFl - Reentry
AF - Reentry +++
LQTS - Early afterdepolarization
VT post MI - BBB reentry; unidirectional block with reentry
WPW - unidirectional block with reentry
AVNRT - unidirectional block with reentry
CPVT - Delayed afterdepolarization
VF - reentry
AV/SA block - bidirectional or unidirectional without reentry