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CIMA E2 > B. Managing people performance > Flashcards

B. Managing people performance Flashcards

1
Q

what is the difference between leadership and management?

A

leadership:

  • providing direction, creating vision then influencing others to share them towards the achievement of organisational goals
  • get people to do things WILLINGLY
  • dynamic process

management:

  • process of getting things done through the efforts of others
  • focus on procedures and results
  • react to specific problems, short-term issues solved
  • ‘manager’ seen as position
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2
Q

what 5 common features of management did Fayol identify in 1916?

A 
Planning
Organising
Co-ordinating
Commanding
Controlling
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3
Q

what 3 groups and 10 roles did Mintzberg say managers fulfil in their job?

A

Interpersonal:

  • figurehead
  • leader
  • liaison

Informational
-monitor
-disseminator
spokesperson

Decisional

  • entrepreneur
  • disturbance handler
  • resource allocator
  • negotiator
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4
Q

What are the roles within the interpersonal group of Mintzberg’s theory?

A

Figurehead: symbolic, obliged to carry out duty
Leader: relationship with subordinated in allocating, hiring, training etc
Liaison:must develop network of contacts outside the chain of command through which information and favours can be traded for mutual benefit

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5
Q

What are the roles within the informational group of Mintzberg’s theory?

A

Monitor:collect and sort info for decision making
Disseminator:responsible for information distribution
Spokesperson:responsible for transmitting information to various external groups

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6
Q

What are the roles within the decisional group of Mintzberg’s theory?

A

Entrepreneur: continually look for problems and opportunities
Disturbance handler:respond to pressures over which dept has no control
Resource allocator:must choose from competing demands
Negotiator:take charge when org engages in negotiations i.e. act as figurehead, spokesperson and resource allocator

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7
Q

what is power?

A

the capacity to exert influence, to make someone act according to your own preferences

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8
Q

what are the 5 different types of power according to French and Raven?

A

REWARD: incentives
COERCIVE:give punishments e.g. dismiss, suspend
REFERENT:good personality, want to imitate or impress
EXPERT:listen as they are expert i.e. experience or qualification
LEGITIMATE:job title, hierarchy, agreement or commonly-held values

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9
Q

which management power is seen as the most extensive?

A

referent as it can be exercised when the holder is not present or has no intention of exercising influence

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10
Q

what is authority?

A

the right to exercise power

i.e. the right to do or act

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11
Q

what does Weber suggest as the 3 bases of authority?

A

Charismatic authority:based on personality
Traditional authority: based on custom/practice
Rational-legal authority:position in hierarchy, expertise

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12
Q

how can you link authority and power bases?

A

Traditional:coercive and legitimate
Charismatic:reward and referent
Ratinonal-legal:expert

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13
Q

what is reponsibility?

A

obligation of an individual who occupies a particular position in the organisation to perform certain duties, tasks or make certain decisions
-use authority to see duties performed

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14
Q

how are responsibility and authority related?

A

scope of responsibility must correspond to the scope of the authority given

  • responsibility without authority: manager powerless to achieve levels of performance
  • authority without clear responsibility:HR hires but not responsible for quality, no clear targets or not using authority wisely
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15
Q

what is accountability?

A

need for individuals to explain and justify any failure to fulfil their responsibility to their superiors in the hierarchy

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16
Q

what is empowerment?

A

where employees are given autonomy and responsibility to undertake tasks without being directed at each step by management
-management must have trust in their skills and willing to allow them to make decisions within set limits

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17
Q

How can managers promote empowerment?

A
  • set clear boundaries and ensure employees know what is expected from them
  • actively encourage employee development
  • communicate openly with employees and adopt and open-door policy
  • allow employees to contribute and listen to their views
  • offer regular feedback
  • lead by example
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18
Q

what is delegation?

A

process whereby a manager assigns part of his authority to a subordinate to fulfil his duties
-one of the main functions of effective management

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19
Q

when can responsibility be delegated?

A

NEVER

-superior is always responsible for the actions of his subordinates and cannot evade this responsibility by delegation

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20
Q

what are the benefits of delegation?

A
  • senior relieved of less important activities
  • greater flexibility
  • allows career development and planning
  • brings together skills and ideas
  • greater motivation:more interesting for subordinates
  • better decision making:closer to problem
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21
Q

what are the issues with delegation?

A
  • over-supervision can waste time and is de-motivating
  • passing the buck
  • manager only delegates boring work or impossible tasks
  • manager reluctant to delegate
  • inadequate training
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22
Q

Koontz and O’Donnell state that to delegate effectively a manager must:

A
  • define the limits of authority delegated to the subordinate
  • satisfy themselves that the subordinate is competent to exercise that authority
  • discipline themselves to permit the subordinate the full use of that authority without constant check and interference
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23
Q

In planning delegation, what must a manager ensure?

A
  • too much is not delegated to totally overload a sub
  • sub has reasonable skill and experience in area
  • appropriate authority is delegated
  • monitoring and control are possible
  • not a feeling of ‘passing the buck’ or ‘opting out’
  • all concerned know that the task has been delegated
  • time is set aside for coaching and guiding
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24
Q

what are the different methods of delegation?

A

ABDICATION:no formal delegation, crude and ineffective
CUSTOM AND PRACTICE: old-age system, most junior members open mail, get coffee etc
EXPLANATION:managers brief subordinates on how and what to do
CONSULTATION:prior consultation is considered important and very effective. sometimes good ideas come from subs as they are closer to action

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25
Q

what is the classical theory of management?

A

emphasis the technical and economic aspects of organisations, assumes that behaviour in organisations is rational and logical

  • developed during mass production
  • EoD seen as central to business success
  • Scientific Management (Taylor)
  • Bureaucracy (Weber)
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26
Q

what are some common interests all the different management theories focus on?

A
  • purpose and structure of organisations and planning of work
  • the technical requirement of each job
  • principles of management
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27
Q

What is the Scientific Management theory?

A

objective of management is to secure the maximum prosperity for both employer and employee:

  • one best approach to the job, using work study methods and break down jobs
  • once employees were trained in the best approach then payment should be based on piece-rate (believed money to be a motivator)
  • well-trained employees delivered high productivity
  • win:win for both employee and organisation
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28
Q

how is the Scientific Management method relevant today?

A

provided basis for time and motion studies and work study that seek to define the ‘best’ way of performing a task

  • but many firms now recognise that for some tasks there may not be a single best way and that a more flexible approach is needed
  • now we see money as just one factor in a more complex understanding of motivation
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29
Q

Who developed the Bureaucratic Management?

A

Max Weber developed this model of the ‘ideal type’ of bureaucracy, in which he explored the characteristics of a rational form of organisation
-believed this to be the most efficient form of organisation

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30
Q

What is the bureaucracy model based on?

A

based on formalisation and standardisation:

  • based on hierarchy of authority
  • strict rules and regulations govern decision making
  • specialisation in duties, segregated ‘offices’ and levels

NOT suitable for dynamic changing environment

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31
Q

how is Bureaucracy management relevant today?

A

most large organisations have some form of bureaucracy, particularly with repetitive admin tasks.
usually has negative connotations as:
-slow response to change
-lack of speedy communication
-little need for involving staff in decision-making
-rules stifle initiative and innovative ideas, preventing development
-no recognition of important informal relationships

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32
Q

what are the main characteristics of bureaucracy?

A
  • specialisation
  • hierarchy
  • rules
  • impersonality; objective, rational decisions
  • appointed officials
  • career officials
  • full-time officials
  • public/private division:limited liability to encourage risk taking
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33
Q

how did the Human Relations School start?

A

1930s, started studying behaviour of people in groups

-move from focus on employees as assets to effects of social interaction on productivity and motivation

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34
Q

What did Hertzberg’s hygiene and motivation theory? i.e. 2 need system

A

only motivational factors satisfy a need for personal growth and encourage action, hygiene factors, based on a need to avoid unpleasantness don’t.

Poor hygiene will lead to demotivation.

‘you can’t motivate dissatisfied people’

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35
Q

What are hygiene factors to avoid dissatisfaction?

A
  • policies and procedures for staff treatment
  • suitable level and quality of supervision
  • pleasant physical and working conditions
  • appropriate level of salary and status
  • team working
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36
Q

what are motivational factors?

A
  • sense of accomplishment through targets
  • recognition of good work
  • responsibility
  • career advancement
  • attraction of the job
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37
Q

what is Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

A

each individual has a set of needs which can be arranged in a hierarchy

  • lowest needs must be satisfied first then move up
  • can be used as motivational tool
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38
Q

what is a systems theory?

A

approach to organisational work design which takes account of social aspects and technical aspects. Looks at the interaction between people and technology within the organisation

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39
Q

what is a contingency theory?

A

suggests that the effectiveness of various managerial practices, styles and techniques will vary according to the particular circumstances of the situation
-contradicts classical theories which only had one way

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40
Q

what is Burns and Stalker contingency theory?

A

mechanistic vs organic organisations

  • opposite ends of a continuum, with various combinations in between
  • studied the way in which high-tech industries were being introduced into Scotland
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41
Q

what are the features of a mechanistic organisation? what environment is it most suitable for?

A
  • high degree of task specialisation
  • responsibilities and authority clearly defined
  • coordination and communication
  • selectivity in the release of top-level info to subs
  • great emphasis of the of hierarchy’s ability to develop loyalty and obedience
  • employees locally recruited

most suitable for FAIRLY STABLE conditions
-relationship with Weber’s bureaucracy

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42
Q

what are the features of an organic organisation?

A
  • skills, experience and specialist knowledge is valuable
  • integration of efforts via lateral, vertical and diagonal communication channels
  • leadership based on consultation and involvement in problem-solving
  • commitment to task achievement, survival and growth more important than loyalty and obedience
  • employees are recruited from a variety of sources
  • organic system seen to be more responsive to change and is therefore recommended for organisations moving into periods of rapid changed in tech, market orientation or tasks
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43
Q

why is it important to view organisations in different ways?

A

to search for effectiveness:

  • viewing as machine can help us design efficiently e.g. early classical theories
  • viewing as machine doesn’t allow adaption to change, needed bureaucracy, dehumanising
  • could also view as orgs as organisms and as cultures
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44
Q

how does leadership come about?

A
  • elected
  • emerge by popular choice
  • manager appointed
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45
Q

what are the different types of leaders?

A

charismatic-influence from personality
traditional-from social order e.g. director
situational-only effective by being in right place at right time
appointed-influence from the position held
functional-doing things well

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46
Q

what are the benefits of leadership?

A
  • reduce employee dissatisfaction
  • encouraging effective delegation
  • creating team spirit
  • helping to develop skills and confidence in the group
  • helping to enlist support and co-operation from people outside the group or organisation
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47
Q

what skills do leaders require?

A

ability to:

  • use power effectively and in a responsible manner
  • comprehend that humans have different motivation forces at different times and situation
  • to inspire
  • act in a manner that will develop a climate conducive to responding to and arousing motivations
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48
Q

what are the differences in attitudes between managers and leaders?

A
  • managers tend to adopt impersonal and passive attitudes towards goals, leaders more persona and active
  • in other relationships, managers maintain a low level of emotional involvement, leaders have empathy and give attention to what actions mean
  • managers perceive themselves as regulators, leader’s sense of identity doesn’t depend work roles and search for opps of change
  • managers seen more in terms of planning, organising, directing activities of subs but leaders concerned more with attention to communicating with, motivating, encouraging and involving people
  • managers react, leadership transforms and makes a difference
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49
Q

what is the personality, trait or qualities theory of leadership?

A

compiled list of leadership qualities such as physical, personality or social traits

some writers selected qualities of leaders who are ‘born and not made’ e.g. above-average intelligence, initiative, motivation, self-assurance and self confidence, helicopter factor i.e rise above situation and other essential qualitied

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50
Q

what is the issue with personality or trait theories?

A

there is always a counter example that can be given

-shows good leadership is more than simply possessing particular physical or psychological attributes

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51
Q

what are the 3 styles of leadership?

A

AUTOCRATIC: do this now
DEMOCRATIC:let’s work together and solve this
FREE REIGN/delegate: you go and solve problem

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52
Q

which styles of leadership are more likely to create resentment or lead to innovation?

A

autocratic: creates resentment but can be necessary
democratic: innovation and motivation

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53
Q

what theories deal with style approached to leadership?

A

McGregor- Theory X and Theory Y
Lewin
Blake and Mouton-managerial grid

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54
Q

What is the McGregor theory X/Y?

A

Theory X:

  • people are lazy, dislike work and responsibility and will try to avoid both
  • autocratic approach:incentives and punishment

Theory Y:

  • employees enjoy work, are self motivated and willing to work hard to meet goals
  • have real potential
  • democratic approach:participative
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55
Q

where do firms usually fall between theory X and Y?

A

in between 2 extremes, don’t give it conscious thought but set upon assumptions that are largely implicit

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56
Q

What did Lewin say about different leadership styles?

A

DEMOCRATIC:most productive and satisfying
LAISSEZ FAIRE:2nd most productive but not in satisfaction
AUTOCRATIC-least productive of all with much frustration

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57
Q

how is Lewin’s leadership model relevant today?

A
  • could be viewed as simplistic but shows how critical leadership is and that it can be taught, learned and adapted
  • terminology and ideas still useful

e.g. Warren Buffet has hands-off L-F management style as he hired capable people, Steve Jobs had authoritarian approach but Apple still successful

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58
Q

what are the 2 extremes on the managerial grid?

A

task centred: main concern is getting job done, achieving goals, staff seen as machines
group centred: main concern is maintaining group, stressing factors such as trust, friendship, support

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59
Q

what is the best style of leadership theory?

A
  • they all ignore the influence of context
  • no best style that is equally effective in all circumstances

best leadership style is the one that fulfils the needs of the group the most, while at the same time satisfying the need of the organisation

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60
Q

what is situational leadership?

A

more advanced version of simple trait theories
-leaders are products of particular situations

e.g. bring in new, more experienced CEO to deal with financial difficulties

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61
Q

what are the 2 theories dealing with contingency or situational approaches to leadership?

A

Adair-action centred leadership

Fielder-contingency model

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62
Q

What is Adair’s action-centred leadership?

A
  • takes grid ideas one step further by adding individual needs
  • stressed that effective leadership lies in what the leaders does to meet the needs of task, group and individuals
  • 3 needs can conflict so need a good balance
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63
Q

how are Adair’s ideas relevant today?

A
  • still form key element of many management and leadership training programmed
  • not isolated, must be part of an integrated approach to managing and leading
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64
Q

What is Fiedler’s contingency model?

A

-best example of integrating individual characteristics with the structural and task properties of the situation

Psychologically distant managers(PDMs)
-formal, withdrawn, impersonal, task oriented

Psychologically close managers (PCMs)
-informal, person oriented, close to subs

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65
Q

how does Fiedler suggest that the most effective style of leadership is determined?

A
  • leader/member relations: nature of relationship
  • task structure: extent to which task is structured
  • leader position power: degree of formal authority/responsibility allocated to the position
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66
Q

what leadership style does Fiedler suggest?

A
  • can only be high on one aspect at a time
  • suggest PDM works best in favourable and unfavourable situations
  • suggest PCM when situation is only moderately favourable for the leader
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67
Q

What are the two types of leaders according to Bennis?

A

Transactional leaders:relationship based on trade, rewards, more passive

Transformational leaders: inspire, motivate, lead more proactive, better for dynamic environment

implement based on business environment

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68
Q

what skills are relevant to transformational leaders according to Boyd?

A

anticipatory-provide foresight
visioning skills-induce to act
value-congruence skills-in touch with needs
empowerment skills-share power effectively
self-understanding-understand own and followers’ needs

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69
Q

what is distributed leadership?

A

more modern perspective

-shared leadership i.e. multiple leaders

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70
Q

what is a virtual team?

A

team working separately physically and must interact electronically

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71
Q

what are some challenges for virtual teams?

A
  • communication
  • performance management
  • cultural sensitivities
  • hard to inspire without meeting
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72
Q

what is business ethics?

A

set of moral rules that govern how businesses operate, how business decisions are made and how people are treated

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73
Q

what are examples of poor business ethics?

A

Nestle found link with infant-formula and mortality rates of babies
ASDA not respecting working conditions in supplier factories, discrimination accusations etc

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74
Q

how does an organisation ensure that it is developing its business leaders to become ethical activists?

A
  • create and maintain strong ethical culture
  • role of managers to embed ethics throughout
  • quality and style of leadership
  • tone from middle i.e. line managers
  • tone from top i.e. leadership
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75
Q

what did (Goleman) suggest are the 6 key types of leadership styled that leaders move across in Leadership in context?

A 
visionary
coaching
affiliative
democratic
pacesetting
commanding
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76
Q

when is a visionary leadership style useful? (Goleman)

A
  • good communication skills, big picture, forward looking
  • when in need of new direction

e.g. Steve Jobs Apple

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77
Q

what is coaching leadership style and when is it suitable? (Goleman)

A
  • aim:develop people for the future, 1-on-1 teaching

- when you have employee with strong initiative who want to develop personally

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78
Q

what is affiliative leadership style and when is it suitable? (Goleman)

A
  • designed to create strong bonds between people, gives positive feedback and promotes team building
  • when there is a need to build trust and morale
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79
Q

what is democratic leadership style and when is it suitable? (Goleman)

A
  • builds consensus by encouraging participation (like Lewin)
  • most effective when direction is weak and org can benefit from tapping into skills and opinions of staff
  • can’t use in crisis
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80
Q

what is pacesetting leadership style and when is it suitable? (Goleman)

A
  • lead by example and set high standards
  • help motivate staff and achieve strict deadlines and tight schedules
  • should use sparingly as can poison culture
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81
Q

what is commanding leadership style and when is it suitable? (Goleman)

A
  • military style where the leader demands compliance

- should be used only in crises requiring rapid redirection and change

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82
Q

what is the definition of control?

A

primary task and is the process of ensuring the operations proceed according to plan

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83
Q

what is management control?

A

usually includes control as a key function

ensure objectives of the organisation are met

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84
Q

in CIMA’s framework of control, the control system consists of what?

A

the control environment:includes management philosophy operating style and management policies

control procedures:includes control mechanisms such as segregation of duties, authorisation, reconciliation and so on

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85
Q

what is poor delegation?

A

job is done twice, usually by a more expensive resource

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86
Q

what is management by objectives?

A

delegation by setting a more global sense of direction while leaving it up to staff to sort out the minutiae of how they actually do the work

‘setting a clear direction and aims without necessarily predetermining how that will be achieves and delegating much of the responsibility for making the ‘how’ decision’

-linked with empowerment

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87
Q

what is health and safety?

A

a legal requirement which management must adhere to

  • manage risks in workplace
  • identify risks within org
  • how to control them
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88
Q

what are the benefits of H&S control?

A
  • employers’ legal obligations for health and safety are being met
  • cost savings-accidents/illness cost the employer money in legal and operating costs
  • company image-doesn’t want to be associated with poor conditions
  • to preserve the well-being of employees and others, improves employee morale, trust and motivation
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89
Q

Do all companies in the UK abide by HASAWA 1974?

A

Health and safety at Work Act

only companies of 5+workers must prepare and regularly revise policy statement of:

  • their policy for health and safety
  • the organisation to enforce it
  • the arrangements to implement and monitor it
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90
Q

what are the key areas of HASAWA?

A
  • provision and maintenance of risk-free plant and systems of work
  • ensuring the safety in use, handling, storage and transport of articles and substances
  • provision of information, training, instruction and supervision
  • maintenance of a safe workplace
  • provision of a safe working environment
  • adequate facilities
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91
Q

who is responsible for implementing HASAWA?

A

a senior member of the organisation

  • employees have basic responsibilities
  • most have a safety committee and representatives with some experience
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92
Q

what is the HSE?

A

Health and Safety Executive
-independent regulator

  • make adequate provision for HASAWA enforcement
  • provide workplace inspections to ensure compliance
  • provide advisory service to employers and unions
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93
Q

how should establish a safety committee?

A
  • larger employers
  • method of communicating and evaluating safety and health issues brought up by firm
  • smaller firms have choice to establish or hold meetings
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94
Q

what is the difference between a safety committee and safety meeting?

A

safety committee: org struct where members represent a group, gives everyone a voice but keeps meeting size to effective number, better for larger org

safety meeting:all employees and a management person to ensure issues addressed, better for smaller employer

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95
Q

HASAWA imposes duty on employers to provide training on H&S. What does this entail?

A
  1. problems or training needs identified by inspection, by accident reports and through discussion at the H&S committee
  2. planning, execution and evaluation of training takes place
  3. as training has short-term effects on behaviour, refresher courses organised
  • top management support is key ingredient in the availability and success of health and safety courses
  • INDUCTION for new staff
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96
Q

what is discipline?

A

discipline means learning

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97
Q

what is the main purpose of taking disciplinary action?

A

to achieve a change in behaviour of employees so that future action is unnecessary

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98
Q

what are several situation where work norms might not be adhered to if there were no remedial action?

A

-leaving work early, lateness, absenteeism
-defective and/or inadequate work performance
-breaking safety or other rules, regulations and procedures
-refusing to carry out a legitimate work assignment
poor attitudes which influence the work of others or which reflect on the public image of the firm, such as improper personal appearance

-rules cover these issues and should be clear and understood

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99
Q

what is the process of handling disciplinary procedures?

A
  • the informal talk
  • the oral warning
  • the written or official warning - first and second
  • suspension
  • demotion
  • dismissal

standards must be set for the right to appeal against these
good policies avoid tribunal claims

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100
Q

what us the statutory procedure?

A

thought orgs can be flexible with procedures, there needs to be a statutory procedure followed as a minimum if they are contemplating dismissal or or penalties such as suspension without pay or demotion

  • without this, employment tribunals will automatically find dismissals unfair
  • minimum standard
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101
Q

what are the 3 steps of the statutory procedure?

A
  1. a statement in writing of what it is the employee is alleged to have done
  2. a meeting to discuss the situation
  3. the right of appeal
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102
Q

what is the ACAS cost of practice?

A
  • set of advisory booklets about various employment practices published by the Advisory Conciliation and Arbitration Service (ACAS)
  • used as benchmark around which internal procedures are judges to be fair or reasonable
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103
Q

what does the ACAS disciplinary code of practice state?

A

that procedures should be:

  • in writing
  • specific to whom they apply
  • provide for matters to be dealt with quickly
  • indicate the disciplinary actions which may be taken
  • specify management who have authority to take disciplinary action
  • provide opportunity to reply to complaints
  • give right to be accompanied by trade union rep or fellow employee
  • ensure that, except for gross misconduct, no employees are dismissed
  • ensure that disciplinary action is not taken until the case has been investigated
  • ensure that individuals are given an explanation for any penalty imposed
  • provide a right of appeal and specify the procedure to be followed
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104
Q

how to handle discipline?

A
  • encourage improvement
  • act promptly
  • gather the facts:stay objective, keep open mind
  • stay calm:take thought and care when conducting
  • be consistent
  • consider each case on merits
  • follow the disciplinary procedure:don’t exceed authority
  • suspension without pay?
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105
Q

what is self-discipline?

A

based on socialisation, producing norms which follow reasonable standards of acceptable behaviour

  • want to do the right thing
  • becomes part of collective attitude and group norm i.e. responsible autonomy
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106
Q

what is McGregor’s ‘hot stove rule’?

A

comparison between touching hot stove and experiencing discipline

hot stove: reaction is immediate, consistent, impersonal and with warning
-immediate:after noticing offence, supervisor proceeds to take disciplinary action ASAP, normally the preliminary informal investigation

comparison: discipline should be directed against action not person

107
Q

what is a grievance?

A

when an employee feels superiors or colleagues are wrongly treating them

e.g. unfair appraisal, discrimination, prevented from advancing, being picked on etc

108
Q

what is the usual grievance procedure?

A
  • employee discusses grievance with colleague, staff or union representative
  • if grievance is warranted, it is taken to the employee’s immediate superior
  • if that superior cant help, then it is referred to the superior’s manager, at which stage HR should be informed
  • distinction should be made between an individual and a collective grievance
  • the colleague, staff or union representative should be permitted to be involved
  • timeframes and deadlines should be stated to resolve the issue or submit an appeal
109
Q

what happens if a company finds that an employee is not happy with the outcome of a grievance procedure?

A

the individual may want to make a claim to an employment tribunal

110
Q

what is an employment tribunal?

A
  • independent judicial body
  • less formal than court
  • established to hear and determine claims to do with employment matters
111
Q

what is the aim of an employment tribunal?

A

resolve disputes between employers over employment rights

112
Q

what are some examples of tribunal disputes?

A
  • unfair dismissal
  • breach of contract
  • discrimination
  • equal pay
113
Q

what are some techniques that can be used instead of resolving disputes with a tribunal?

A

arbitration
mediation
concilliation

114
Q

what is a arbitration? what are the benefits?

A

independent arbitrator hears case and delivers a legally binging decision in favour of one party
used to decide cases of alleged unfair dismissal or claims under flexible working legislation

  • speedy private informal hearing
  • no cross-examination
  • limited grounds for review of the arbitrator’s decision
115
Q

what is mediation? what are the benefits?

A

an impartial third party facilitates discussion between the parties and encourages them to reach a mutually satisfactory conclusion

  • speedy resolution
  • avoids the stress of a formal hearing
  • parties can express their views directly to each other
116
Q

what is concilliation?

A

settle disputes before it gets to a tribunal hearing
-involves trying to build a positive relationship between the disputing parties

  • confidentially
  • avoid time, stress and cost of tribunal
  • lessening damage to the employment relationship
  • reaching an agreement that satisfies both parties
117
Q

what are the benefits of discipline and grievance procedure?

A
  • employers legal obligations are being met
  • cost savings: fewer costs for legal and operating costs
  • reputation:don’t want to be associated with them
  • preserve well-being of employees and others, improves employee morale, trust and motivation
118
Q

what is dismissale?

A

termination of employment with or without notice by the employer

119
Q

what is constructive dismissal?

A

resignation by the employee because the conduct of the employer was sufficient to be deemed to have terminated the contract by the employer’s actions

120
Q

what is wrongful dismissal?

A

termination without notice, breach of employment contract

-may or may not be unfair dismissal

121
Q

what is fair dismissal?

A

fair if employer can prove one of the following:

  • reason related to employee CONDUCT
  • reason related to the employee’s CAPABILITY or qualifications for the job
  • because a STATUTORY DUTY or restriction prohibited the employment being continued
  • some other substantial reason of a kind which justifies the dismissal and that the employer acted reasonable in treating that reason as sufficient for dismissal
  • because the role was REDUNDANT
122
Q

what is redundancy?

A

type of dismissal which is fair if:

  • cessation of business
  • cessation of business in the place where the employee was employed
  • cessation of the type of work for which he or she was employed
123
Q

in the law relating to redundancy, when does the right to be consulted apply?

A

when 20+ redundancies will be made over a period of 90 days or less
-must be made for reasons not related to individual or a number of reasons all of which are not so related

124
Q

how has globalisation changed the nature of companies in terms of staff?

A
  • end of ‘job for life’ ideal
  • move from employee’s effort due to loyalty to the company towards effort expecting appropriate rewards
  • employees willing to look outside of the company for advancement opportunities

commitment from employees is seen as competitively important but harder to retain

125
Q

what is the psychological contract?

A

Rosseau and Greller looked into the relationship between what employees believed was expected of them and what they expected in return from employer:

  • coercive
  • calculative
  • cooperative
126
Q

what did Rosseau and Geller identify as the 3 types of psychological contract?

A
  • coercive: employees feel forced to action, rewards seen as inadequate
  • calculative:employee acts voluntarily and works in exchange for an identifiable set of rewards
  • cooperative:employees contribute more than would normally be expected from them. They actively seek to contribute further to the achievement of company goals
127
Q

in a psychological contract, when is motivation highest?

A

when the contract was viewed in the same way by the organisation and the individual

  • lowest for coercive
  • in calculative, in proportion with increase in rewards
128
Q

What did Salomon find when looking into achieving equity in relation to pay?

A

difficulty due to:

  • a living wage:compare needs and their income
  • rate for the job
  • output rewards
  • responsibility
  • differentials
  • comparability
  • statues
  • contribution
  • supply and demand:ability to pay and need for labour
129
Q

what is the UK Equality Act 2012?

A

brings together and significantly adds to and strengthens a number of previous existing pieces of legislation including race and disability
-strengthen protection, advance equality and simplify the law

130
Q

what key changes does the Equality Act extend to encompass?

A
  • age
  • disability
  • gender reassignment
  • marriage and civil partnership
  • pregnancy and maternity
  • race
  • religion or belief
  • sex
  • sexual orientation
  • part time workers
131
Q

what is diverstiy?

A
  • maximising potential
  • relevant to all employees
  • a managerial role responsible
  • does not rely on proactive action
132
Q

what is equal opportunities?

A
  • removing discrimination
  • issue for disadvantaged groups
  • an HR role
  • relies on proactive action
133
Q

what is the objective of providing equal oppurtunities?

A

ensure fair and non discriminatory treatment is given by management to all job applicant and existing employees

134
Q

what does a positive approach to equal opportunities include?

A
  • secure the best recruits from the widest available range of candidates
  • ensure the best use is made of the skills and abilities of all employees
  • reinforce the professionalism and image of the organisation itself
135
Q

what are the main points of a typical Equal Opportunities Policy?

A
  • shall mean fairness for all:recognition for talents
  • fairness will run through every aspect of business
  • does not just relate to sex or marital statues
  • no one shall receive unfavourable treatment on grounds of being part of discriminated group
  • selection criteria and procedures will be frequently reviewed
  • training is important part of implementation
136
Q

according to Schein, what are the levels of culture?

A
  1. Artefacts
  2. Espoused Values
  3. Basic assumptions
137
Q

what are Artefacts?

A

things that can be seen, heard of observed such as the public experience

  • dress code
  • patterns of behaviour
  • physical symbols
  • office layout
138
Q

what are Espoused Values?

A

identified from stories and opinions

  • language
  • behaviour
  • how people justify what they do
139
Q

what are Basic Assumptions?

A

deeply embedded in a culture that members are no longer consciously aware of them:

  • beliefs on environmental issues
  • how people should be treated
140
Q

what is the organisational iceberg?

A

idea of hidden elements in culture

2 levels:

  • formal aspects (visible) above water
  • behavioural aspects (hidden) below water which is usually larger part
141
Q

what are some influences on culture?

A
  • size of org
  • technological advanced
  • diversity
  • age and experience
  • history
  • ownership
142
Q

what are some above the surface elements of culture?

A
  • goals
  • technology
  • procedures
  • structure
  • skills
143
Q

what are some hidden elements of the organisational iceberg?

A
  • attitudes
  • style
  • communication patterns
  • values
  • feelings
  • beliefs
144
Q

why is culture important?

A
  • gives an individual unique identity
  • culture of a community gives its people a character of their own
  • culture shapes the personality of a community
145
Q

what are the advantages of having a strong culture?

A
  • facilitate good communication and co-ordination within the organisation
  • provide a framework of social identity and a sense of belonging
  • reduce differences amongst the members of the organisation
  • strengthen the dominant values and attitudes
  • regulate behaviour and norms among members of the organisation
  • minimise some of the perceptual differences among people within the organisation
  • reflect the philosophy and values of the organisation’s founder or dominant group
  • affect the organisation’s strategy and ability to respond to change
146
Q

what are the disadvantages of having a strong culture?

A
  • if it doesn’t have positive attributes, hinderance to effectiveness
  • difficult to change as too deep-rooted
  • may have a blinkered view which could affect the org’s ability or desire to learn new skills
  • may stress inappropriate values
  • when two cultures merge then conflicts arise
  • may not be attuned to the environment e.g. strong innovation culture in a static environment
147
Q

what are some subtle factors that could influence culture?

A
  • degree of individual initiative
  • degree of risk tolerance
  • clarity of direction
  • degree of integration between groups
  • reward system
  • conflict tolerance
  • communication patterns
  • formalisation of clothing and office layout
  • kind of people employed
148
Q

how can organisations influence behaviour?

A
  • encourage employees to adopt best practice to do ‘the right thing the right way’
  • motivating employees to improve productivity
  • motivating employees to improve quality
  • preventing employees making mistakes and ensuring that mistakes are detected quickly if made
  • trying to limit the likelihood and impact of employee malfeasance, such as theft or fraud
  • encouraging employees to act ethically
  • motivating managers to make decisions that are in the best interests of the organisation
149
Q

how can control mechanisms be used in an organisation?

A
  • organisational structure
  • target setting and budgeting
  • direct supervision of staff
  • culture of organisation
  • self-control:encourage independent working
  • specific control processes
  • control systems:budget and variances
  • policies and guidelines
150
Q

what are the 4 main types of organisational control?

A
  • personal centralised control:small owner-managed, centralised decision making
  • bureaucratic control:based on formalised rules, hierarchy, procedures, standardisation, reward and punishment
  • output control:based on the measurement of outputs and the results achieved, manufacturing
  • clan or culture control:development of strong identification with management goals
151
Q

what are the problems with formal control?

A

her classical style of management that fails to take account of the human element and could lead to:

  • motivation problems:low morale, no transferable skills
  • quality problems:no overall responsibility
  • little understanding of people:not rational, do not always work harder to simply earn money
152
Q

what is trust?

A

the belief that someone is reliable and honest

153
Q

what factors must be in place for control based on trust to work?

A

-manager must be confident that the employee has the knowledge and the skills to undertake the task
the objective must be clear and agreed by both parties
-the employee must be motivated to work hard and use initiative to achieve the objective

154
Q

what is performance appraisal?

A

regular and systematic review of performance and assessment of potential, with the aim of producing action programmes to develop both work and individuals

aim: to improve efficiency of the organisation

155
Q

what benefits can performance appraisal systems being to individuals?

A
  • feedback about performance at work and an assessment of competence through comparison of performance against established standards and agreed targets
  • identifies work of particular merit done during the review period
  • provides a basis for remuneration
  • may be used as opportunity to discuss future prospects and ambitions
  • identifies training and development needs
156
Q

what benefits can performance appraisal systems being to organisation?

A
  • provides a system for assessing competence of employees and identifies areas for improvement
  • provides a fair process for reward decisions
  • helps identify and formulate training needs
  • improves communication between managers and subordinates
  • provides clear targets linked to corporate objectives
  • provides a basis for HR planning
  • monitors recruitment and induction process against results
157
Q

what is the TARA process for performance appraisal?

A

TARGET:set, understood and agreed upon
ACTUAL results monitored:feedback, rewards, support
REVIEW:at end of period, formal appraisal interview
ACTION plan:agree on new targets that will be set for new period

158
Q

what are the approaches to performance appraisal?

A

the Ranking system
the Unstructured format
Self Rating
360 approach

159
Q

what is the ranking system?

A
  • formal and structures
  • measured against objectives and results
  • gives ranking for actual against target
160
Q

what the Unstructured format of performance appraisal?

A
  • essay/short answer to grade employee
  • all and any variable used
  • captures all aspects rather than restricting to targets
  • open ended and all encompassing
161
Q

what is the Self Rating method of performance appraisal?

A
  • individual rates themselves on a certain agreed criteria
  • fed back to manager to review
  • individual gets chance to review performance and remind manager what they have done
  • forms basis for appraisal interview where they can discuss ratings
162
Q

what is the 360 approach of performance appraisal?

A
  • allows participation by the individual
  • employee and manager appraise each other
  • confidential and anonymous assessments
  • help senior management to build up a more accurate picture of performance
  • encourages individuals to work together for good of dept
163
Q

what constitutes an effective performance appraisal?

A
  • be applied fairly and consistently
  • have the commitment and support from senior managers
  • be carried out with serious intent
  • relate to the main objectives of organisatin
  • be clearly understood by all parties
  • be cost effective to operate
164
Q

what are some barriers to effective performance appraisal?

A

-poor performance interviews can confrontational, judgemental, just a chat, a paper exercise, a substitute for the management process that should be undertaken during the year or/out of date and irrelevant because its only held annually

165
Q

how can the barriers to effective appraisal be overcome?

A
  • there is commitment from all parties involved
  • there is a system of follow up and feedback
  • recorded agreement between manager and employee about future training and development. Training should be arranged within an agreed time period
  • alternative method of appraisal, such as self rating or 360 approach could be used
166
Q

what is a reward?

A

given to an individual or group in recognition of their services, efforts or achievements

167
Q

what is an intrinsic reward?

A
  • arise from the performance of the job itself
  • include feeing of satisfaction from good job, more responsibility or being interested in job
  • linked to Hertzberg motivators
168
Q

what is an extrinsic reward?

A
  • separate from the job itself
  • dependent on the decisions of others i.e. management
  • e.g. pay, working condition and benefits
  • linked to Hertzberg hygiene factors
169
Q

what should carefully designed rewards ensure?

A
  • are fair and consistent for all employees, even for those workers with different job sizes or required levels of skill
  • are sufficient to attract and retain staff
  • maintain and improve levels of employee performance
  • reward progression and promotion
  • comply with legislation and regulation e.g. min wage
  • control salary costs
170
Q

What incentive schemes can firms use to tie performance to pay?

A

performance related pay (PRP)-performance of comp
piecework-pace/amount of output
points system-point system from improvement
commission- on top of salary, sales related
bonus schemes-one off, unlike PRP, beating target
profit sharing-wide group for overall profitability

171
Q

what is the criteria for an acceptable target?

A

fair
measurable
achievable
controllable by people

172
Q

what are the types of targets?

A
  • volume of work produced
  • knowledge of work
  • quality of work
  • management skills
  • personal skills
173
Q

what are Drucker’s key objectives?

A
  1. Profitability
  2. Innovation
  3. Market standing
  4. Productivity
  5. Financial and physical resources
  6. Managerial performance and development: e.g rewards
  7. Worker performance and attitude eg. relations
  8. Public responsibility
174
Q

what does Drucker say managers have to responsibility to when setting objectives?

A
  • agree their own departmental targets with their superiors
  • discuss and agree targets for their staff that are achievable
  • ensure that there is a balance between the goals and needs of departments and individuals
  • apply the control system and discuss progress with staff at regular intervals. Where staff jointly set objectives with their manager they achieve valuable feedback on performance, a motivating factor acknowledged by Herzberg
  • ensure continual review and appraisal of results
175
Q

what is Drucker’s management by objectives?

A

control strategy which focuses on controlling outputs

  • corporate objectives must be stated in behavioural and measurable terms to be effective
  • this is so deviations can be highlighted at an early enough stage to permit corrections to be made
176
Q

what is the Balanced Scorecard too created by Kaplan and Norton?

A
  • focus on both financial and non-financial objectives
  • cover areas such as Financial, Learning and Growth, Internal Business Process and Cust
  • set at organisational level and cascaded down
  • helps identify areas of weakness
177
Q

what are the main benefits of using the Balanced Scorecard?

A

-avoids management reliance on short-termist or incomplete financial measures
-identifying the non-financial measures can help detect problems sooner
-can ensure that divisions develop success measures for their division that are related to the overall corporate goals of the organisation
-can assist stakeholders in evaluating the firm if measures are communicated externally
-

178
Q

what are the drawbacks of the Balances Scorecard?

A
  • does not provide single overall view of performance e.g. like ROCE
  • no clear relation between the BS and shareholder analysis
  • measures may give conflicting signals and confuse management e.g. finance vs customer
  • involves a substantial shift in corporate culture in order to implement it
179
Q

what is mentoring?

A
  • one helps another improve their knowledge, work or thinking
  • valuable development tool for mentee and mentor
180
Q

what are the benefits of mentoring?

A
  • faster career progress
  • excellent value for money for the organisation as the financial cost is relatively small
  • enhances company image: lower turnover
  • improved motivation:builds trust and motivation
181
Q

who is a mentor?

A
  • give practical support and advice
  • give technical, ethical and general business guidance
  • help with development of interpersonal and work skills
  • impartial sounding board-no direct reporting responsibility
  • good guide, counsellor
  • role model who can help improve career goals
  • usually similar function
182
Q

what is coaching?

A
  • another method of enhancing performance
  • focuses on meeting specific objectives, usually within a defined time period
  • more about improving performance of someone that is already competent, rather than establishing it in the first place
  • 1-1 basis
  • gently encouraging performance improvement
  • carried out by a more senior person or manager, needs sufficient expertise
183
Q

what is Schein’s definition of a group?

A

any number of people who:

  • interact with one another
  • are psychologically aware of one another
  • perceive themselves to be a group
184
Q

what is a team?

A

a formal group

  • has a leader
  • distinctive culture
  • geared towards a final result
185
Q

what are the types of groups?

A

self directed and autonomous groups
reference groups
formal groups
informal groups

186
Q 
what are the definitions of the following groups?
self directed and autonomous groups
reference groups
formal groups
informal groups
A

self directed and autonomous groups

  • interaction of the task with the indiv is best served by groups
  • manage own work

reference groups
-groups the individual is not in but wants to join

formal groups

  • formal membership
  • constrained or determined by org in dept/divisions

informal groups

  • voluntary and informal membership
  • dependent on each-other
  • influence each-other’s behaviour
187
Q

why should managers pay attention to informal groups?

A

can’t ignore or suppress them. important to:

  • let employees know managers understand and accept them while discouraging dysfunctional behaviour in groups
  • try to anticipate how decisions will influence informal grups
  • keep formal decisions from unnecessarily threatening informal groups
188
Q

what are multi-skilled and multidisciplinary teams?

A

multiskilled: bring together individuals who can perform any of the group’s tasks, can be shared out flexibly
multidisciplinary: bring together individuals with different specialisms so that their skills, knowledge and experience can be pooled or exchanged

189
Q

what are the following roles?

completer finisher
specialist

A

completer finisher

  • anxious and conscientious
  • scrutinises the work of the team for errors
  • quality control

specialist

  • single-minded and dedicated
  • brings in-depth specialist knowledge to solve technical problems
190
Q

what are the benefits of groups?

A
  • increased productivity
  • synergy
  • improved focus and responsibility
  • improved problem solving
  • greater creativity
  • increased satisfaction
  • increased motivation: collective responsibility
  • improved information flows
191
Q

what are the problems with groups?

A
  • conformity:persuaded to to wrong
  • Abilene paradox:end up with unwanted outcome for all
  • ‘risky shift’ or group polarisation:take on more or less risk than individually
  • groupthink: quickly consensus without conflict
192
Q

what are some symptoms of groupthink?

A
  • raising of protective barriers and the illusion of impregnability
  • a negative attitude towards competing projects
  • an unwavering belief in the group and its decision
  • a sectarian emphasis on agreement
193
Q

how can leadership avoid groupthink?

A
  • critical evaluation of alternatives
  • independent sub-groups to work on solutions
  • external testing of proposed solutions
  • avoidance of stereotypes of the opposition
  • the leader avoiding domination of the group (can be unconscious)
194
Q

what factors affect the cohesiveness of the group?

A

membership factors
environmental factors
dynamic factors

195
Q

what are membership factors of group cohesiveness?

A

HOMOGENEITY

  • simple tasks need similar members
  • complex tasks need more diverse workforce

ALTERNATIVES

  • if replaceable, less dependence on worker
  • high turnover shows lack of cohesion
  • management can change awkward groups

SIZE OF GROUP

  • nature of tasks
  • larger groups result in less productivity of members
  • less opportunities in big groups
  • cliques form
  • social noise increases
196
Q

what are environmental factors of group cohesiveness?

A

TASK
-nature of task and org must be compatible

ISOLATION OF THE GROUP
-external threats and incentives are lower, more isolated group is

CLIMATE OF MGMT AND LEADERSHIP
-should be appropriate to task

197
Q

what are dynamic factors of group cohesiveness?

A

GROUPS ARE CONTINUALLY CHANGING
-changing in membership, understanding of eachother and task

SUCCESS AND FAILURE
-tendency for groups to persist in failure

198
Q

what is the level of group performance affected by?

A

the manner in which teams come together

  • Tuckman’s 4 stages of development
  • not always in sequence
  • may not pass through every stage
  • some get stuck in the ineffective stages
199
Q

what are the 4 stages of team development?

A

Forming
Storming
Norming
Performing

Adjourning

200
Q

what is the forming stage of development?

A
  • initial stage
  • collection of individuals
  • unsure of roles
201
Q

what is the storming stage of development?

A
  • conflict stage
  • test managers authority and team preconceptions
  • leadership is vital to resolve conflict and tension
202
Q

what is the norming stage of development?

A
  • establish team norms
  • relationships settled
  • refine procedures and control
  • now a cohesive team
203
Q

what is the performing stage of development?

A
  • final stage
  • operating at full potential
  • progress made towards the set objectives
  • team feels confident and empowered
204
Q

what is the adjourning stage of development?

A
  • spends too long in performing stage
  • groupthink kicks in in autopilot mode
  • might need to suspend or ‘adjourn’
205
Q

what does Belbin suggest about team roles?

A
  • success of group depends on balance of individual skills and personality types within the group
  • devised personality test which highlighted 9 key character traits
  • helps allocate people to roles that suit them
206
Q

what are the main character types?

A 
co ordinator
shaper
plant
monitor evaluator
resource investigator
implementer/company worker
teamworker
completer finisher
specialist
  • can adopt multiple roles
  • absence of one can reduce effectiveness
207
Q

what are the 4 roles?

co ordinator
shaper
plant
monitor evaluator

A

co ordinator

  • mature and confident
  • ensures team focuses on objectives
  • delegates well

shaper

  • challenging and dynamic
  • provides the drive to keep the team moving
  • promotes activity

plant

  • thoughtful and creative
  • generates original ideas

monitor evaluator

  • logical and analytical
  • evaluates options in an impartial manner
208
Q

what are the following roles?

resource investigator
implementer/company worker
teamworker

A

resource investigator

  • enthusiastic and inquisitive
  • find ideas from outside

implementer/company worker

  • practical and reliable
  • deals with planning and scheduling
  • drives efficiency

teamworker

  • co-operative and diplomatic
  • concerned with relationships within the team
  • diffuses conflict
209
Q

what is role theory?

A

the roles that individuals adopt

-assists in the understanding of how productive teams are formed and operated

210
Q

what are the following terms in role theory?

role ambiguity
role conflict
role incompatibility
role signs
role set
role behaviour
A

-role ambiguity: unsure about role
-role conflict:clash between roles
-role incompatibility:expectations from outside groups of
role different to own
-role signs:visible indications of role e.g. dress code
-role set:support a lead e.g. clerk
-role behaviour:certain types of behaviour can be associated with a role in an office

211
Q

what is Vaill’s theory for high-performing teams?

A

high performing teams may be defines as human systems that are doing dramatically better than other systems

212
Q

what are the common characteristic’s of Vaill’s high performing teams?

A
  • clarification of board purposes and near term objectives
  • commitment to purposes
  • teamwork focused on the task at hand
  • strong and clear leadership
  • generation of inventions and new methods
213
Q

what did Peters and Waterman identify as 5 key aspects of successful teams?

A
  • small: easier and faster to manager
  • limited duration:only for particular task
  • voluntary:want to be part of group
  • informal and unstructured communication
  • action-oriented:have a plan
214
Q

what areas does team building aim to develop?

A
  • improved communication
  • building trust
  • social interaction
215
Q

other than formal team building, how can managers attempt to reinforce the individual identity of the team?

A
  • giving team its own name
  • own space
  • own uniform
216
Q

how can team effectiveness be measured?

A
  • degree to which the team achieved its stated objectives and the quality of its output
  • team member satisfaction
  • the efficiency of the team which can be measured by the resources used to achieve team objectives
217
Q

what is distributed leadership?

A
  • multiple leaders
  • shared or COLLECTIVE LEADERSHIP
  • sharing of power base
  • more horizontal
  • positive relationship between shared leadership and team effectiveness
218
Q

what 3 dimensions did Carson propose that shared leadership is facilitated by an overall team environment?

A

SHARED PURPOSE
-similar understanding of objectives and collective goals

SOCIAL SUPPORT
-extent to which team members actively provide emotional and psychological strength to one another

VOICE
-degree to which a team’s members have input into how the team carries out its purpose

-highly interrelated

219
Q

what is inter-group conflict?

A

behaviour that occurs between organisational groups when participants identify with one group and perceive another wants to block goal achievement

220
Q

what is intragroup conflict?

A

conflict between team members, which can be caused by disagreements or misunderstandings thus reducing group productivity

221
Q

what re the 3 ingredients for inter-group conflict?

A
  1. group identification: part of group
  2. observable group difference
  3. Frustration
222
Q

how can inter-group conflict be managed?

A
  • confrontation: negotiations
  • 3rd party consultants
  • inter group training
  • member rotation
  • superordinate goals: management require cooperation
223
Q

what intergroup resolution techniques can be used to solve intra-group conflicts?

A

confrontation
3rd party consultants
training

224
Q

what are the long term effects of inter-group competition?

A

camp study:

  • causes conformity
  • winners get complacent
  • losers allocate blame

-might be beneficial but in LT causes conflict and reduction in efficiency

225
Q

how can inter-group conflict be managed via training?

A

attend external workshop that is expensive but can improve company wide attitudes. Steps typically include:

  • groups brought into training setting with stated goal of exploring mutual perceptions and relationships
  • groups separated and invited to make list of perceptions
  • both groups share their perceptions
  • privately discuss opinions with group
  • representatives of each group will speak on issues
  • mutual exposure followed by exploration of any distortions
  • joint explorations on how to manage future conflicts
226
Q

what is the difference between formal and informal communication?

A

formal

  • planned
  • intentional
  • professional tone

informal:

  • casual
  • generally unplanned/unstructured
227
Q

what is communication?

A

process that is used to transmit a message from sender to a receiver
can be words, numbers, gestures or non-verbal cues such as body language

228
Q

what are the stages from sender to receiver?

A
  1. sender
  2. encoding:message is symbolised
  3. channel: medium .g. email, call
  4. receiver
  5. decoding:translate message, interpretation
  6. feedback: receiver sends response
229
Q

why is feedback an important part of the communication process?

A

helps eliminate misinterpretation and confirmation that message was received
-sender should ask for feedback

230
Q

what is noise in communiaction?

A

anything which interferes with the communication process and stops the message being received and understood by the receiver

231
Q

what are the different types of noise that interfere with commmunication?

A

environmental/physical-prevents hearing or seeing message e.g. loud music

physiological noise-actual physical barriers within sender/receiver e.g. hearing loss, poor eyesight

semantic noise-different understanding of words e.g. jargon, language

psychological noise-attitude of sender e.g. anger, sadness, prejudice

232
Q

how important is non-verbal communication?

A

Mehrbian:
7% of message transmitted though actual words, other 93% through non-verbal elements

  • very important
  • can vary through cultures and regions
233
Q

what are some examples of digital communication tools?

A

intranet-private hub through organisation
chat and private messaging
discussion forums-archiving knowledge, reference
tracking and case software-online help desk system
internal blogs:share ideas informally

234
Q

what are the advantages of an internal blog?

A
  • broadcasting and highlighting an employee’s knowledge about a certain topic or area of the organisation
  • creating a searchable and permanent archive of articles, knowledge and expertise
  • promotes open discussion and collaboration among the workforce
  • connects employees across departments and locations
  • keeps the staff up-to-date on important information and company updates
235
Q

what is data visualisation?

A

allows large volumes of complex data to be displayed in a visually appealing and accessible way that facilitates the understanding and use of the underlying data
e.g. dashboard

236
Q

what are the steps to ensure meetings are successful and effective?

A
  • determine purpose
  • establish who needs to attend
  • determine the agenda in advance
  • make suitable arrangements for location and time
  • facilitate discussion
  • manage the plan of action
  • summarise
  • publish results/minutes
237
Q

what is the rule of thumb of facilitation of a successful meeting?

A

80% preparation and 20% execution

238
Q

what are the roles in a meeting?

A

chairperson, secretary and protagonist/antagonist

239
Q

what do the following roles do?

A

chairperson

  • set agenda and objectives
  • ensure agenda is followed

secretary

  • send out agenda
  • take minutes/summary

team members

  • protagonists are positive
  • antagonists are challenging and disruptive
240
Q

what are the problems with meetings?

A
  • inappropriate chairperson
  • objectives are undefined and unclear
  • lack of enthusiasm or interest in meeting
  • attendees talk too much w/o regard to chair’s request
  • attendees cannot reach an agreement concerning issues on the agenda
  • action points from previous meetings not done
  • minutes too long or too brief
241
Q

what are solutions to the problems with meetings?

A
  • select chair who has the right skillset
  • ensure agenda is circulated prior to meeting
  • ensure only those with interest in meeting are there
  • impose order if members are disruptive
  • exercise negotiation skills to come to agreement
  • obtain reasons if items not actioned
  • ensure minutes are either of resolution or edited to flavour the discussion
242
Q

what is the difference between influence and persuasion?

A

persuasion is a deliberate and direct change to another’s attitude, can be coercive

influence is the ability to change through direct or indirect inspiration

243
Q

what are Cialdini’s 6 principles of influence?

A

reciprocity-return favour
commitment-follow through initial thought
social proof-peer pressure
liking-due to likability
authority-due to authority, trust, respect
scarcity-want something limited, FOMO

-stronger versions used for persuasion

244
Q

what is negotiation?

A

ability to discuss an issue in the attempt to establish ways to reach an agreement

245
Q

what are the 3 characteristics of negotiation?

A
  1. conflict of interest between 2 parties
  2. no established set of rules for resolving conflict or preference to work outside them
  3. parties prefer to search for an agreement rather than fight openly or break off contact or escalate issue
246
Q

what skills are required by a negotiator?

A

interpersonal skills
analytical skills
technical skills

247
Q

what are the 4 stages of negotiation?

A

preparation
-info gathering

opening

  • both present their starting positions
  • good opp to influence other

bargaining

  • narrow gap between starting positions
  • persuade other party to your case

closing
-reach agreement

248
Q

what is the guidance for successful negotiation?

A
  • focus initially on each side’s primary objective, trivialising/bikeshedding point can be distracting
  • be prepared to settle for what is fair, stay flexible
  • listen to what the other side wants and make efforts to compromise on the main issues so that both sides can begin to attain their goals
  • seek to trade-off wins and losses so each side gets something in return for everything they give up
249
Q

what are Mainwaring’s causes of conflict?

A

History:self-perpetuation
Differences
Limited resources
Win/lose situation:one must fail for other to win
Interdependencies:boundaries not clearly defined/fair
Misunderstanding
Conviction beliefs
Stress and failure:causes fault finding, denial, irrationality
Change

250
Q

what are the symptoms of conlict?

A
  • problems, even trivial ones, being passed up the hierarchy because no one wants to take responsibility for them
  • hostility and jealousy between groups
  • poor communications up and down the hierarchy and between departments
  • widespread frustration and dissatisfaction because it is difficult to get even simple things done efficiently
  • problems constantly being polarised around people, usually in different groups, and personalities rather than issues
251
Q

what are the negative consequences that may arise from conflicts according to Daft?

A
  • diversion of energy resulting in time and effort wasted
  • altered judgement: less accurate as focus is lost
  • lower effects:loser may deny or distort the reality and seek scapegoats
  • poor co-ordination:decrease, maybe intentionally
252
Q

what is horizontal conflict?

A

between groups at the same level in the hierarchy

253
Q

what are the main sources of horizontal conflict?

A
  • environment:goal and target pressures
  • size:growth can cause conflict, isolation
  • technology
  • structure:divisionalisation
  • goal incompatibility:probably greatest source
  • task interdependence
  • rewards systems
  • differentiation
254
Q

what is vertical conflict?

A

conflict among groups at different levels

255
Q

what are the primary sources of vertical conflict?

A
  • power and status:subs feel alienated
  • ideology:different values held
  • psychological distance:isolation
  • scarce resources
256
Q

what is constructive conflict?

A

useful, positive, beneficial to the organisation

  • creates an environment of innovation and change
  • facilitates bringing problems to the surface so that they can be dealt with
  • settles and defines boundaries of authority and responsibility
257
Q

what is destructive conflict?

A

tends to be ad hoc and personal:

  • harmful to the org and those involved
  • causes alienation between groups, within groups and between individuals
  • can be demoralising for those involved
258
Q

what are the 5 conflict handling strategies?

A

competing:
-goal is to win, max own interest

avoiding:

  • goal is to delay
  • ignore or suppress conflict

collaborating

  • find win-win situation
  • problem solver

accommodating

  • goal is to yield
  • put others’ needs first

compromising

  • find a middle ground
  • meet halfway
  • each party may lose something when there is a better alternative
259
Q

what 4 broad strategies did Mainwaring suggest for managing conflict?

A

conflict stimulation and orchestration
-encourages conflict

conflict suppression

  • avoidance of recognition it exists
  • use or threatened use of force

conflict reduction
-building on areas of agreement

conflict resolution
-eliminate root causes of conflict

260
Q

What is Trist and Bamforth’s systems theory?

A

research:

  • carried out research on ‘longwall’ method of mining in Durham in 1940s
  • to highlight the interaction between social needs and technological activities
  • longwall method:new cutting equipment which widened the narrow coal face
  • resulted in low morale, absenteeism and deteriorating relos

findings:

  • close-knit groups had been broken up
  • communication was difficult because of the geographical spread of workers
  • new payment schemes caused jealousy among the workforce
  • too much specialisation and individuality was built into the jobs

why?

  • owners hadn’t considered effects on workforce, especially close-knit group
  • social and technological factors can’t be isolated
261
Q

what do unions tackle?

A

vertical conflict

priority for representatives is loyalty to their group

262
Q

what are some avoidance or individualistic approaches used to deal with unions?

A
  • union avoidance strategies:double breasting
  • individualistic approached
  • collective bargaining: using procedural methods to reach agreement
  • partnership agreements
  • gain sharing
  • labour-management teams
  • employment security
263
Q

what is double breasting?

A

setting up new plants in areas of high unemployment or low union activity

CIMA E2 (3 decks)

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