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AWS Cloud Practictioner > AWS Cloud Practicitioner > Flashcards

AWS Cloud Practicitioner Flashcards

1
Q

Why is AWS more economical than traditional data centers for applications with varying compute workloads?

A) Amazon EC2 costs are billed on a monthly basis.
B) Users retain full administrative access to their Amazon EC2 instances.
C) Amazon EC2 instances can be launched on demand when needed.
D) Users can permanently run enough instances to handle peak workloads.

A

C) Amazon EC2 instances can be launched on demand when needed.

*The ability to launch instances on demand when needed allows users to launch and terminate instances in response to a varying workload. This is a more economical practice than purchasing enough on-premises servers to handle the peak load.

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2
Q

Which AWS service would simplify the migration of a database to AWS?

A) AWS Storage Gateway
B) AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS)
C) Amazon EC2
D) Amazon AppStream 2.0

A

B) AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS)

*AWS DMS helps users migrate databases to AWS quickly and securely. The source database remains fully operational during the migration, minimizing downtime to applications that rely on the database. AWS DMS can migrate data to and from most widely used commercial and open-source databases.

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3
Q

Which AWS offering enables users to find, buy, and immediately start using software solutions in their AWS environment?

A) AWS Config
B) AWS OpsWorks
C) AWS SDK
D) AWS Marketplace

A

D) AWS Marketplace

*AWS Marketplace is a digital catalog with thousands of software listings from independent software vendors that makes it easy to find, test, buy, and deploy software that runs on AWS.

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4
Q

Which AWS networking service enables a company to create a virtual network within AWS?

A) AWS Config
B) Amazon Route 53
C) AWS Direct Connect
D) Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC)

A

D) Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC)

*Amazon VPC lets users provision a logically isolated section of the AWS Cloud where users can launch AWS resources in a virtual network that they define.

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5
Q

Which of the following is an AWS responsibility under the AWS shared responsibility model?

A) Configuring third-party applications
B) Maintaining physical hardware
C) Securing application access and data
D) Managing guest operating systems

A

B) Maintaining physical hardware

*Maintaining physical hardware is an AWS responsibility under the AWS shared responsibility model.

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6
Q

Which component of the AWS global infrastructure does Amazon CloudFront use to ensure low-latency delivery?

A) AWS Regions
B) Edge locations
C) Availability Zones
D) Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)

A

B) Edge locations

*To deliver content to users with lower latency, Amazon CloudFront uses a global network of points of
presence (edge locations and regional edge caches) worldwide.

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7
Q

How would a system administrator add an additional layer of login security to a user’s AWS Management Console?

A) Use Amazon Cloud Directory
B) Audit AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) roles
C) Enable multi-factor authentication
D) Enable AWS CloudTrail

A

C) Enable multi-factor authentication

*Multi-factor authentication (MFA) is a simple best practice that adds an extra layer of protection on top of a username and password. With MFA enabled, when a user signs in to an AWS Management Console, they will be prompted for their username and password (the first factor—what they know), as well as for an authentication code from their MFA device (the second factor—what they have). Taken together, these multiple factors provide increased security for AWS account settings and resources.

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8
Q

Which service can identify the user that made the API call when an Amazon EC2 instance is terminated?

A) AWS Trusted Advisor
B) AWS CloudTrail
C) AWS X-Ray
D) AWS Identity and Access Management (AWS IAM)

A

B) AWS CloudTrail

*AWS CloudTrail helps users enable governance, compliance, and operational and risk auditing of their AWS accounts. Actions taken by a user, role, or an AWS service are recorded as events in CloudTrail. Events include actions taken in the AWS Management Console, AWS Command Line Interface (CLI), and AWS SDKs and APIs.

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9
Q

Which service would be used to send alerts based on Amazon CloudWatch alarms?

A) Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)
B) AWS CloudTrail
C) AWS Trusted Advisor
D) Amazon Route 53

A

A) Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)

*Amazon SNS and Amazon CloudWatch are integrated so users can collect, view, and analyze metrics for every active SNS. Once users have configured CloudWatch for Amazon SNS, they can gain better insight into the performance of their Amazon SNS topics, push notifications, and SMS deliveries.

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10
Q

Where can a user find information about prohibited actions on the AWS infrastructure?

A) AWS Trusted Advisor
B) AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)
C) AWS Billing Console
D) AWS Acceptable Use Policy

A

D) AWS Acceptable Use Policy

*The AWS Acceptable Use Policy provides information regarding prohibited actions on the AWS infrastructure.

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11
Q

Can I move a Reserved Instance from one Region to another?

a. No
b. Only if they are moving into GovCloud
c. Yes
d. Only if they are moving to US East from another region:

A

a. No

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12
Q

A company has launched a News application within single region but intended for global usage. What service can help provide low latency access with best possible performance globally?

a. AWS Route 53
b. AWS CloudWatch
c. AWS CloudFront
d. AWS Elastic Load Balancer

A

c. AWS CloudFront

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13
Q

A company has several departments with separate AWS accounts. Which feature helps centrally manage multiple accounts to help scale?

a. AWS IAM
b. AWS Billing System
c. AWS Lightsail
d. AWS Organizations

A

d. AWS Organizations

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14
Q

A company wants to implement best practices on AWS. Which implementation would help eliminate “Single Point of failure”?

a. ElastiCache Memcached deployment
b. RDS Single-AZ deployment
c. EC2 instances on a single AZ
d. ElastiCache Redis deployment

A

d. ElastiCache Redis deployment

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15
Q

A company wants to launch an application to support one day campaign which would run for 24 hours without interruptions. The instances would not be required after 24 hours. Which AWS EC2 purchase types would help fulfill the requirement?

a. Reserved Instances
b. Spot Instances
c. Dedicated Instances
d. On-demand instances

A

d. On-demand instances

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16
Q

The concept of elasticity is most closely associated with which of the following?

a. Elastic load balancing
b. Auto scaling
c. Network Security
d. Serverless computing

A

b. Auto scaling

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17
Q

Every user you create in the IAM system starts with _________.

a. Partial permissions
b. Full permissions
c. No permissions
d. None of the above.

A

c. No permissions

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18
Q

From Business support plan and above, how many contacts can open cases?

a. One primary contact
b. Root account holder
c. Unlimited contacts
d. 10 contacts:

A

c. Unlimited contacts

19
Q

From which AWS support plan do the customers get access to the AWS support API as a part of Programmatic Case Management?

a. AWS Basic support plan
b. AWS Developer Support plan
c. AWS Business support plan
d. AWS Enterprise support plan

A

c. AWS Business support plan

20
Q

If you have a set of frequently accessed files that are used on a daily basis and cannot be reproduced, what S3 storage class should you store them in?

a. S3 Standard Storage class
b. S3 Reduced Redundancey Storage
c. S3 Infrequent Access Storage class
d. S3 Fast Access class:

A

a. S3 Standard Storage class

21
Q

In AWS VPC, what is a Security Group?

a. None of these
b. A list of users that can access Amazon EC2 instances c. An Access control List (ACL) for AWS resources
d. A firewall for inbound/outbound traffic, built-in around every Amazon EC2 instance

A

d. A firewall for inbound/outbound traffic, built-in around every Amazon EC2 instance

22
Q

An organization is using AWS since a few months. The finance team wants to visualize the pattern of AWS spending. Which of the below AWS tool will help for this requirement?

a. AWS Cost Manager
b. AWS Cost Explorer
c. AWS CloudWatch
d. AWS Consolidated Billing

A

b. AWS Cost Explorer

23
Q

A user has deployed an application on his private cloud. The user is using his own monitoring tool. He wants to configure that whenever there is an error, the monitoring tool should notify him via SMS. Which of the below mentioned AWS services will help in this scenario?

a. None because the user infrastructure is in the private cloud
b. AWS SNS
c. AWS SES
d. AWS SMS

A

b. AWS SNS

24
Q

A user wants to achieve High Availability with PostgreSQL DB. Which of the below mentioned functionalities helps achieve HA?

a. Read replica
b. Multi AZ
c. Multi Region
d. PostgreSQL does not support HA

A

b. Multi AZ

25
Q

What AWS service allows you to have your own private network in the AWS cloud?

a. Virtual Cloud Network (VCN)
b. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
c. Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)
d. None of the above

A

c. Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)

26
Q

What AWS service can be used for tracking API event calls for security analysis, resource change tracking?

a. AWS CloudWatch
b. AWS CloudFormation
c. AWS OpsWorks
d. AWS CloudTrail

A

d. AWS CloudTrail

27
Q

What AWS service help you estimate the cost of using AWS vs. an on-premises data center?

a. AWS Cost Explorer
b. Consolidated Billing
c. TCO Calculator
d. AWS Simple calculator

A

c. TCO Calculator

28
Q

What AWS service must you use if you want to configure an AWS billing alarm?

a. AWS CloudTrail
b. AWS CloudWatch
c. AWS Consolidated billing
d. AWS CloudMonitor:

A

b. AWS CloudWatch

29
Q

What benefits does Edge location provide? Choose 2 answers

a. Scalable DNS service
b. Caching of resources
c. Low latency access
d. Isolated virtual Network
e. Direct connection to AWS

A

b. Caching of resources

c. Low latency access

30
Q

What circumstances would someone want to use ElastiCache? Choose 2 answers

a. They need in-memory data store service
b. They need to to use Edge Locations to cache content c. They need a NoSQL database option
d. They need to improve the performance of their web application:

A

a. They need in-memory data store service

d. They need to improve the performance of their web application:

31
Q

What does Amazon CloudFormation provide?

a. The ability to setup autoscaling for Amazon EC2 instances
b. None of these
c. A templated resource creation for Amazon Web Services
d. A template to map network resources for Amazon Web Services:

A

c. A templated resource creation for Amazon Web Services

32
Q

What does Amazon EC2 provide?

a. Virtual servers in the Cloud
b. A platform to run code(Java, PHP, Python), paying on an hourly basis
c. Computer clusters in the Cloud
d. Physical servers, remotely managed by the customer:

A

a. Virtual servers in the Cloud

33
Q

What does Amazon ElastiCache provide?

a. A service by this name doesn’t exist. Perhaps you mean Amazon CloudCache.
b. A virtual server with a huge amount of memory
c. A managed In-memory cache service
d. An Amazon EC2 instance with the Memcached software already pre-installed: c

A

c. A managed In-memory cache service

34
Q

What does Amazon Route 53 provide?

a. A global content delivery Network
b. None of these
c. A scalable domain Name system
d. An SSH endpoint for amazon EC2

A

c. A scalable domain Name system

35
Q

What does Amazon SQS provide?

a. An asynchronous message queue service
b. A Simple Query Server, managed directly by Amazon Web Services.
c. A synchronous message queue service
d. None of these

A

a. An asynchronous message queue service

36
Q

What does RRS stand for when talking about S3?

a. Redundancy Removal System
b. Relational Rights Storage
c. Regional Rights Standard
d. Reduced Redundancy Storage

A

d. Reduced Redundancy Storage

37
Q

What is the difference between an availability zone and an edge location? Choose the correct answer

a. Edge locations are used as control stations for AWS resources
b. An edge location is used as a link when building load balancing between regions
c. An availability zone is a grouping of AWS resources in a specific region; an edge location is a specific resource within the AWS region
d. An availability zone is an Amazon resource within an AWS region; an edge location will deliver cached content to the closest location to reduce latency

A

d. An availability zone is an Amazon resource within an AWS region; an edge location will deliver cached content to the closest location to reduce latency

38
Q

What kind of service is provided by AWS DynamoDB?

a. Relational Database
b. NoSL Database
c. Dynamic Database
d. Document Database

A

b. NoSQL Database

39
Q

What should you do if you believe your AWS account has been compromised? Choose the 2 correct answers

a. Delete or rotate all root and IAM access keys
b. Wait 48 hours in case it’s a false alarm
c. Delete your AWS account
d. Contact AWS legal team
e. Delete any resources on your account you didn’t create

A

a. Delete or rotate all root and IAM access keys

e. Delete any resources on your account you didn’t create

40
Q

What use cases would someone want to use ElastiCache? Choose the 2 correct answers

a. Improve the performance of their web application
b. NoSQL database option
c. Use Edge Locations to cache content
d. In-memory data store service
e. Relational database:

A

a. Improve the performance of their web application

d. In-memory data store service

41
Q

Where can a customer find information about prohibited actions on AWS infrastructure?

a. AWS Trusted Advisor
b. AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)
c. AWS Billing console
d. AWS Acceptable Use Policy

A

d. AWS Acceptable Use Policy

42
Q

Which AWS feature allows system administrators to access AWS programmatically?

a. AWS Inspector
b. AWS Config
c. AWS CLI
d. AWS CodeDeploy

A

c. AWS CLI

43
Q

Which AWS features can be used to control network traffic to the AWS resources within a VPC? Choose 2 answers

a. Security Groups
b. AWS Shield
c. NACLS
d. AWSWAF
e. AWS Inspector

A

a. Security Groups

c. NACLS

AWS Cloud Practictioner (55 decks)

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