Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ADI Written > Aviation Law - Publications, Documents and ATS > Flashcards

Aviation Law - Publications, Documents and ATS Flashcards

1
Q

What does MATS Part 1 contain?

A

Procedures, Instructions and Information which are intended to form the basis of Air Traffic Services within the UK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What Air Traffic Services are Provided?

A

Air Traffic Control Service
Air Traffic Advisory Service
Flight Information Service
Alerting Service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

For what purposes is an Air Traffic Control Service Provided?

A
  • For preventing collisions between aircraft in the air
  • Assisting in preventing collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area and apron
  • Assisting in preventing collisions between aircraft and obstructions on the manoeuvring area
  • Expediting and Maintaining a Safe, Orderly flow of Air Traffic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is an Air Traffic Control Unit?

A

The place from which instructions and advice are given by radio signals to aircraft in the interests of safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does MATS Part 2 contain?

A

Instructions which apply to a particular unit. They amplify and interpret, at a local level, the MATS Part 1 instructions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the AIP?

A

Aeronautical Information Publication. Contains aeronautical information of lasting nature essential to air navigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

According to ICAO, what the 5 basic Freedoms which apply to aviation?

A

Right to overfly without landing
Right to land for non-commercial reasons
Right to put down passengers, freight, mail from the home country
Right to pick up passengers, freight, mail and take to home country
Right to pick up and drop off from anywhere to anywhere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where are the differences between UK Law and ICAO SARPS listed?

A

UK AIP GEN 1.7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What regulations may the secretary of state prescribe?

A

The manner in which aircraft move or fly, including military priority
Lights and other signals to be show by aircraft and persons
Lighting and Markings of Aerodromes
Provisions for securing the safety of aircraft in flight and in movement and for the safety of persons or property on the surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does Notified Mean?

A

Set forth with the authority of the CAA and in a document published by, or under arrangement with, the CAA and entitled United Kingdom NOTAM or Air Pilot and for the time being in force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How are rules and regulations made public?

A

Incorporated into UK Parliament by the Civil Aviation Act. This permits the ANO. This then enables the Rules of the Air. Changes are published in AIR or NOTAM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

To which aircraft so the UK rules of the air apply

A

All aircraft in the UK and in the neighbourhood of off-shore installations
All UK registered aircraft, wherever they may be

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When may the Rules of the Air be departed from?

A

Avoiding immediate danger (details passed to authority within 10 days)
When complying with the law of any country within which the aircraft is operating
When complying with MOD flying regulations abut only when the aircraft commander is acting as a member of the UK armed forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Most of the ANO does not apply to small aircraft. What is a small aircraft?

A

A balloon of less than 2 metres diameter
A kite of not more than 2kgs
A model aircraft of not more than 20kgs without fuel
Any parachute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the definition of Flight?

A

In the case of piloted flying machine, from the moment when the crew first embark for the purposes of taking off the aircraft first moves under its own power to the moment when it next comes to rest after landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does Articles 73 and 74 state?

A

A person shall not recklessly or negligently act in a manner likely to endanger an aircraft or person therein. A person shall not recklessly or negligently permit an aircraft to endanger any person or property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Before granting a licence to provide ATC, what must the CAA Consider? (SOME)

A

Staffing
Organisation
Maintenance of Equipment
Whether the equipment is appropriate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the legal standing of a MATS Part 2

A

Every unit must produce a MATS part 2
If requested it must be presented to the CAA within reasonable time of the request being made
It must be amended and added to as directed by the CAA
The ATC Service provided must be in accordance with the MATS Pt 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

At an Aerodrome with an Approach Aid, what are the duties of the ‘person in charge’?

A

Inform the CAA of the operating times of all approach aids
Provide an Approach Control Service at the times notified
Provide ATC, AFIS or A/G service as directed by the CAA
Ensure details of proceudres, aids and hours of watch are notified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What 6 qualities do the CAA Consider when determining if a person is fit to become and ATCO? (CEKSPM)

A 
Competence
Experience
Knowledge
Skills
Physical Fitness
Mental Fitness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the minimum age for the issue of a Student Air Traffic Controller’s License?

A

18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How long is a Student Air Traffic Controller’s License valid?

A

2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the minimum age for the issue of a Full Air Traffic Controller’s License?

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

For a person to provide an Air Traffic Control Unsupervised, What must the holder of an Air Traffic Controller License have?

A

An Appropriate Rating in their license
An appropriate unit endorsement
A valid medical certificate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How many days may a person be ill or incapacitated before their license is deemed to be suspended?

A

20 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When does Suspension of the license cease?

A

When pronounced fit following a medical examination by the CAA or, if exempt from a medical, upon meeting conditions which the CAA deems necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What should a Woman do if she suspects she is pregnant?

A

Notify the CAA and her line manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the prescribed Alcohol Limit for ATCOs?

A

9 microgram’s / 100ml in breath
20 microgram’s/100ml in blood
27 microgram’s/100ml in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What should a controller do if they are suffering, or suspect they will be suffering, from fatigue?

A

Not control if they know or suspect they are suffering from, or are likely to suffer from fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When may a signal or marking be used?

A

A signal or marking which has a meaning under the rules of the air shall only be used according to its meaning in the rules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are an aircraft commanders responsibilities with regards to visual signals?

A

The commander of a powered flying machine on, or in the traffic pattern, at an aerodrome must observe and obey visual signals displayed from the aerodrome made with the authority of the person in charge of the aerodrome. The commanders of non-powered flying machines should obey visual signals as far as reasonably possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are an Aircraft Commanders responsibilities with regards to Marshaller’s signals?

A

The Commander is not required to obey marshallers signals if, in his opinion, it is inadvisable in the interests of safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the Meaning of a red pyrotechnic light or red flare when signalled from an aircraft in flight to an aerodrome?

A

Immediate assistance is required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the meaning of a continuous green light, green flashes or a green pyrotechnic flare when signalled from an aircraft in flight to an aerodrome?

A

By Day - May I land in a direction other to that indicated by the T
By Night - May I land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the meaning of a white pyrotechnic light or switching on/off navigation and/or landing lights?

A

I am compelled to land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the meaning of a continuous red light when signalling from an aerodrome to an aircraft in flight?

A

Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the meaning of a flashing red light when signalling from an aerodrome to an aircraft in flight?

A

Aerodrome is unavailable for landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the meaning of a red pyrotechnic flare when signalling from an aerodrome to an aircraft in flight?

A

Do not land, wait for permission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does a continuous green light mean when signalling from an aerodrome to an aircraft in flight?

A

You may land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What does a flashing green light mean when signalling from an aerodrome to an aircraft in flight?

A

Return to aerodrome and wait for permission to land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What does a flashing white light mean when signalling from an aerodrome to an aircraft in flight?

A

Land at this aerodrome after receiving a continuous green light, then after receiving green flashes proceed to the apron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What does a flashing green light mean when signalling from an aerodrome to an aircraft on the ground or to a vehicle?

A

Aircraft - You may move on the manoeuvring area and apron

Vehicle - You may move on the manoeuvring area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What does a continuous green light mean when signalling from an aerodrome to an aircraft on the ground or to a vehicle?

A

Aircraft - You may take off

Vehicle - Not Applicable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What does a flashing white light mean when signalling from an aerodrome to an aircraft on the ground or to a vehicle?

A

Aircraft - Return to starting point

Vehicle - Return to Starting point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What does a flashing red light mean when signalling from an aerodrome to an aircraft on the ground or to a vehicle?

A

Aircraft - Move clear of the landing area

Vehicle - Move clear of the landing area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What does a continuous red light mean when signalling from an aerodrome to an aircraft on the ground or to a vehicle?

A

STOP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is distress?

A

When an aircraft is threatened by grave and immediate danger and requires immediate assistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How is distress communicated?

A

R/T - M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When does Suspension of the license cease?

A

When pronounced fit following a medical examination by the CAA or, if exempt from a medical, upon meeting conditions which the CAA deems necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What should a Woman do if she suspects she is pregnant?

A

Notify the CAA and her line manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the prescribed Alcohol Limit for ATCOs?

A

9 microgram’s / 100ml in breath
20 microgram’s/100ml in blood
27 microgram’s/100ml in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What should a controller do if they are suffering, or suspect they will be suffering, from fatigue?

A

Not control if they know or suspect they are suffering from, or are likely to suffer from fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

When may a signal or marking be used?

A

A signal or marking which has a meaning under the rules of the air shall only be used according to its meaning in the rules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are an aircraft commanders responsibilities with regards to visual signals?

A

The commander of a powered flying machine on, or in the traffic pattern, at an aerodrome must observe and obey visual signals displayed from the aerodrome made with the authority of the person in charge of the aerodrome. The commanders of non-powered flying machines should obey visual signals as far as reasonably possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are an Aircraft Commanders responsibilities with regards to Marshaller’s signals?

A

The Commander is not required to obey marshallers signals if, in his opinion, it is inadvisable in the interests of safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the Meaning of a red pyrotechnic light or red flare when signalled from an aircraft in flight to an aerodrome?

A

Immediate assistance is required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the meaning of a continuous green light, green flashes or a green pyrotechnic flare when signalled from an aircraft in flight to an aerodrome?

A

By Day - May I land in a direction other to that indicated by the T
By Night - May I land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the meaning of a white pyrotechnic light or switching on/off navigation and/or landing lights?

A

I am compelled to land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the meaning of a continuous red light when signalling from an aerodrome to an aircraft in flight?

A

Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the meaning of a flashing red light when signalling from an aerodrome to an aircraft in flight?

A

Aerodrome is unavailable for landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the meaning of a red pyrotechnic flare when signalling from an aerodrome to an aircraft in flight?

A

Do not land, wait for permission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What does a continuous green light mean when signalling from an aerodrome to an aircraft in flight?

A

You may land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What does a flashing green light mean when signalling from an aerodrome to an aircraft in flight?

A

Return to aerodrome and wait for permission to land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What does a flashing white light mean when signalling from an aerodrome to an aircraft in flight?

A

Land at this aerodrome after receiving a continuous green light, then after receiving green flashes proceed to the apron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What does a flashing green light mean when signalling from an aerodrome to an aircraft on the ground or to a vehicle?

A

Aircraft - You may move on the manoeuvring area and apron

Vehicle - You may move on the manoeuvring area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What does a continuous green light mean when signalling from an aerodrome to an aircraft on the ground or to a vehicle?

A

Aircraft - You may take off

Vehicle - Not Applicable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What does a flashing white light mean when signalling from an aerodrome to an aircraft on the ground or to a vehicle?

A

Aircraft - Return to starting point

Vehicle - Return to Starting point

68
Q

What does a flashing red light mean when signalling from an aerodrome to an aircraft on the ground or to a vehicle?

A

Aircraft - Move clear of the landing area

Vehicle - Move clear of the landing area

69
Q

What does a continuous red light mean when signalling from an aerodrome to an aircraft on the ground or to a vehicle?

A

STOP

70
Q

What is distress?

A

When an aircraft is threatened by grave and immediate danger and requires immediate assistance

71
Q

How is distress communicated?

A

R/T - “MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY”
Red parachute flare or pyrotechnic light
Sound Signalling “SOS” - - - . . . - - -

72
Q

What is urgency?

A

When an aircraft has difficulties which compel it to land but immediate assistance is not required

73
Q

How is urgency communicated?

A

R/T - “PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN”

White pyrotechnic flares or repeated switching on / off landing or navigation lights

74
Q

What is a safety message?

A

When an aircraft has an urgent message to pass concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft, vehicle or property or of a person on board or in sight of the aircraft

75
Q

What is the meaning of the Sound Signalling “XXX”?

A

Urgency or Safety

76
Q

What is an ATZ

A

Airspace of defined dimensions established around an aerodrome for the protection of aerodrom etraffic

77
Q

When is an ATZ active?

A

At a government aerodrome - At such times as are notified
At an aerodrome with ATC or AFIS - During the notified hours of watch of the ATC or AFIS unit
At an aerodrome with an A/G unit - During the notified hours of watch of the A/G unit

78
Q

What is the Class of Airspace of an ATZ

A 
They don't have a class of their own.
They assume the class of airspace within which they are located
79
Q

What are the dimensions of an ATZ?

A

If the longest runway is greater than 1850m, radius of 2.5nms, surface to 2000ft aal

If the longest runway is 1850m or less, radius of 2nms, surface to 2000ft aal

(If this produces an ATZ which is less than 1.5nms from the end of any runway, the radius is increased to 2.5nms)

80
Q

What are the dimensions of an ATZ for an off-shore installation?

A

Horizontally 1.5nms from the installation. Sea level to 2000ft amsl

81
Q

What happens to an ATZ if it extends into the ATZ of another aerodrome?

A

One of the aerodromes will be nominated as the controlling aerodrome for the combined ATZ. The controlling aerodrome will have a full ATZ, that part of the other aerodromes ATZ will be assumed by the controlling aerodrome

82
Q

What are the rules for flight within an ATZ?

A

An aircraft shall not fly, take-off or land within an ATZ without either:-

  • Permission from the ATC unit
  • Information from the AFIS or A/G unit
83
Q

What are the pilots responsibilities within an ATZ?

A

Maintain a listening watch on the appropriate frequency. (if non-radio watch out for visual signals)
Report position and height on entering the zone and immediately prior to leaving it

84
Q

Where must all public transport flights and training flights for pilots licenses or ratings take place?

A

They must only take-off and land from a licensed aerodrome

85
Q

What is the exception?

A

Non-scheduled public transport flights, to/from another aerodrome, by day, in an aircraft of 2730kgs or less

86
Q

What does scheduled mean?

A

One of a series of journeys undertaken between the same 2 places which together form a systematic service

87
Q

What does public transport mean?

A

Where valuable consideration is given or promised in exchange for the carriage of passengers or cargo

88
Q

What are the rules for towing?

A
  • Aircraft must have an appropriate certificate of airworthiness
  • Towing must only be carried out at aerodromes
  • Not at night or in visibility less than 1nm (unless towing gliders)
  • Length of combination must not exceed 150 metres
89
Q

What are the rules for Helicopters carrying extended loads?

A
  • A helicopter with an extended load must not fly over the built up areas of cities, towns or settlements unless permission has been granted from the CAA
  • When carrying a suspended load only the helicopter crew may be onboard
90
Q

What are the rules for dropping banners etc, at an aerodrome?

A

Only in the area specifically marked for the purpose and when the aircraft is flying in the direction appropriate for landing

91
Q

What does article 98 state?

A

A person shall nto cause or permit any object or animal, whether or not attached to a parachute, to fall from an aircraft in such a manner so as to endanger person or property

92
Q

What regulations apply to the person in charge of a small aircraft greater than 7kgs?

A

The person shall not fly the aircraft: -
- Unless the flight can be made safely
Within Class A,B,C,D or E airspace without the permission of the appropriate ATCU
- Within an aerodromes ATZ without the permission of the appropriate ATCU
- Above 400ft agl unless operating in accordance with the previous 2 conditions
- For aerial work unless permission has been granted from the CAA

93
Q

What is the definition of an aerodrome?

A

An area of land or water, designed, equipped, set apart or commonly used for affording facilites for the landing and departure of aircraft and includes any area of or space, whether on the ground, on the roof of a building or elsewhere, designed, equipped or set apart for affording facilites for the landing or departure of aircraft capable of descending and climbing vertically but shall not include any area, the use of which for affording facilities for the landing and departing of aircraft has been abandoned and has not been resumed

94
Q

What is the definition of a manoeuvring area?

A

The part of an aerodrome provided for the take-off and landing of aircraft and for the movement of aircraft on the surfae, excluding the apron and any part of the aerodrome provided for the maintenance of aircraft

95
Q

What parts of an aerodrome constitute the manoeuvring area?

A

The runway(s) and taxiways

96
Q

What is the definition of an apron?

A

That part of the aerodrome provided for the stationing of aircraft for the embarkation and disembarkation of passengers, for loading and unloading of cargo and for parking

97
Q

What are a Commander’s Responsibilites regarding avoiding collisions?

A

A commander must take all reasonable means to ensure that his aircraft does not collide with any other aircraft

98
Q

What are the rights of way on the ground

A
  • Aircraft and vehicles give way to aircraft taking off and landing
  • Aircraft and vehicles give way to vehicles towing aircraft
  • Vehicles give way to aircraft
99
Q

When two aircraft are approaching head on, how should the pilots avoid each other?

A

Each aircraft should turn to the right

100
Q

Which aircraft should give way in the air?

A

The aircraft which has the other on its right, should give way (The one of the right has the right!)

101
Q

How should aircraft overtake each other on the ground?

A

The aircraft which is overtaking the other should over take on the left hand side

102
Q

How should vehicles overtake?

A

The vehicle overtaking, should overtake on the right hand side (i.e. in accordance with normal road driving procedures)

103
Q

How should vehicles proceed if approaching head on?

A

Each turn to the left

104
Q

What does rule 16 state (In relation to weather reports and forecasts)?

A
  • Before every flight a pilot must check all current and forecast weather that it is reasonably practicable to obtain
  • If non-radio in a CTZ and visibility is less than 10kms or cloud ceiling is less than 1500ft permission to enter the ATZ is required prior to departure
105
Q

What is Instrument Meteorological Conditions?

A

Weather which precludes flight in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules

106
Q

What is the definition of night?

A

The time from half an hour after sunset to half an hour before sunrise both times inclusive. Sunset and sunrise being determined at the surface

107
Q

What is IFR

A

A flight conducted in accordance with the Instrument Flight Rules

108
Q

What is VFR

A

A flight conducted in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules

109
Q

If notice of intended arrival has been given, what should a pilot inform ATC of?

A

Any change of destination and any delay of 45 minutes or more

110
Q

What is the speed limit and where does it not apply?

A

250kts of less below FL100

Does not apply -

  • In Class A or B airspace
  • To IFR flights in Class C airspace
  • When authorised by ATC to VFR flights in Class C airspace
  • When authorised by ATC to IFR/VFR flights in Class D airspace
  • To authorised flying displays and test flights
111
Q

When might the Secretary of State prohibit or restrict flying?

A
  • If there is an intended gathering or movement of large numbers of personnel
  • If there is an intended holding of a flying display or air race
  • National defence or other reason affecting the public interest
112
Q

Visual Flight Rules

In class B, C or D airspace, what is the flight visibility?

A

The visibility passed from an ATCU

113
Q

Visual Flight Rules

What are the VMC Minima in Class B airspace?

A

At or above FL100 - 8km flight vis, clear of cloud

Below FL100 - 5km flight vis, clear of cloud

114
Q

Visual Flight Rules

What are the VMC minima in Class C,D and E airspace?

A

At or above FL100 - 8km flight vis, 1500m horizontal and/or 1000ft vertical from cloud
Below FL100 - 5km flight vis, 1500m horizontal and/or 1000ft vertical from cloud

115
Q

Visual Flight Rules

What deemed VMC applies in UK Class C, D and E airspace?

A

At or below 3000ft amsl:

For a/c 140kt or less - 5km vis, clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
For Helicopters - Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface

116
Q

Visual Flight Rules

What are the VMC Minima in Class F and G airspace?

A

At or above FL100 - 8km flight vis, 1500m horizontal and/or 1000ft vertical from cloud
Below FL100 - 5km flight vis, 1500m horizontal and/or 1000ft vertical from cloud

117
Q

Visual Flight Rules

What deemed VMC applies in UK Class F and G airspace?

A

At or below 3000ft amsl:-
For aircraft greater than 140kts:- 5km visibility, clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
For aircraft 140kts or less:- 1500m visibility, clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
For Helicopters:- Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface and at a speed compatible with the visibility

118
Q

What is an ATC clearance?

A

Authorisation from an ATC unit for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by that unit

119
Q

What are the Visual Flight Rules?

A

Rule 24 - The VFR
Inside CAS - Rule 25, Flight within CAS and Rule 27, VFR Flight Plan and ATC clearance
Outside CAS - Rule 26, Flgith outside CAS

120
Q

When may aircraft fly in formation?

A

When all commanders involved agree to do so

121
Q

How should an aircraft overtake another in the air?

A

Pass well clear to the right and avoid passing over or under the other

122
Q

How does this rule differ for Gliders?

A

Gliders may overtake to the left or right

123
Q

For the purposes of avoiding collisions, how are a glider and a tug considered?

A

As one aircraft under the command of the tug commander

124
Q

What are the rights of way in the air?

A

Conventionally powered aircraft must give way to airships, gliders and balloons
Airships must give way to gliders and balloons
Gliders must give way to balloons

125
Q

What are the rules for flight in the vicinity of an aerodrome?

A
  • Aircraft must conform to the traffic pattern or keep well clear
  • Turns must be made to the left unless ground signals indicate otherwise
126
Q

Who has the right of way if 2 aircraft are approaching the same runway to land?

A

The lower aircraft has priority over the other, unless the other has an emergency or
ATC has communicated an order of landing.

127
Q

If movements are not confined to a runway, where should aircraft taking off and
landing position themselves?

A

Take-off:- To the right of other aircraft taking off

Landing:- To the right of aircraft that have just landed

128
Q

When should an aircraft vacate a runway after landing

A

ASAP unless ATC say otherwise

129
Q

Where can aerobatics be conducted?

A
  • NEVER over the congested areas of towns, cities or settlements
  • Inside CAS only with the permission of the ATCU responsible for the CAS
130
Q

What is the Right hand Traffic Rule?

A

Aircraft that are following a line feature should keep the line feature on their left unless flying inside CAS and instructed otherwise by ATC

131
Q

What is the lowest an aircraft can fly?

A

Except with the permission in writing from the CAA, aircraft must not fly closer than 500ft to any person, vehicle, vessel or structure

132
Q

Navigation Lights

What are the standard navigation lights carried by an aircraft?

A

Port - Red, 5 candela, visible from dead ahead to 110 degrees astern

Starboard - Green, 5 candela, visible from dead ahead to 110 degrees astern

Tail - White, 3 candela, visible 70 degrees either side of line astern

Anti-collision lights above and below the fuselage if fitted

133
Q

How are the rules different for helicopters?

A

Helicopters must not fly lower than 1000ft above the highest obstacle within 600m, however, in the event of a power unit failure, helicopters do not have to be able to alight clear but must be able to alight without causing danger to persons or property

134
Q

What are the rules concerning flight over open-air assemblies?

A

Except with the permission in writing from the CAA, aircraft must not fly lower than 1000ft above an open-air assembly of more than 1000 people

135
Q

What are the rules concerning taking-off and landing near open-air assemblies?

A

An aircraft must not take-off or land within 1000m of an open-air assembly of more
than 1000 people unless:-
i) At an aerodrome and flying in accordance with procedures notified by the CAA
ii) At a landing site other than an aerodrome with written permission from the event organisor

136
Q

What low flying regulations apply to captive balloons and kites?

A

None of them

137
Q

Who is exempt from the 500ft rule?

A
  • Any aircraft taking-off and landing
  • Police Air Operators Certificates
  • Flying Displays when within 1000m of the crowd gathered for the display
  • Gliders hill soaring
  • Any aircraft picking up / dropping off banners at an aerodrome
  • Helicopters hover taxing within the boundaries of an aerodrome provided they are 60m away from people outside the boundary
  • Any aircraft dropping articles with CAA permission, e.g. public health drops
138
Q

Who is exempt from the 1000ft over congested area rule?

A
  • Balloons landing because they are becalmed
  • Any police air operator’s certificate (land clear still applies)
  • Any aircraft flying Special VFR (land clear still applies)
139
Q

Who is exempt from both open air assembly prohibitions?

A

Police Air Operator’s Certificates

140
Q

Instrument Flight Rules

What are the Instrument Flight Rules?

A 
Rule 28 - The Instrument Flight Rules
Inside Controlled Airspace:-
Rule 29 - The Minimum Height Rule
Rule 31 - Flight Plan and ATC Clearance
Rule 32 - Position Reports
Outside Controlled Airspace:-
Rule 29 - The Minimum Height Rule
Rule 30 - Quadrantal and Semi-circular Rule
141
Q

Instrument Flight Rules

What is the minimum Height Rule?

A

Without Prejudice to Rule 5, aircraft must fly 1000ft above the highest fixed obstacle within 5nms unless:-

  • It is necessary for taking-off and landing
  • They are operating on a route notified for this part of rule 29
  • They are authorised to fly lower by a competent authority
  • They are not above 3000ft amsl, clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
142
Q

Instrument Flight Rules

What does Rule 31, flight plan and ATC clearance, instruct a pilot to do?

A
  • File a Flight Plan
  • Obtain ATC Clearance
  • Comply with the Clearance
  • Fly the Instrument Departure, holding and instrument approach procedures
    unless they elect to continue VFR
  • Report landing and leaving CAS
  • Pilots may depart from any Clearance for the purposes of avoiding danger
143
Q

May a pilot conduct a visual approach in a Class A Control Zone?

A

Yes, but they remain IFR the whole time

144
Q

What does the position report rule state?

A

Pilots must report position, level and time of aircraft at notified mandatory reporting points and some requested reporting points

145
Q

What is Special VFR?

A

A flight at any time in a control zone which is Class A airspace, or in any other control zone in IMC or at night, in respect of which the ATCU has given permission for the flight to be made in accordance with special instructions instead of in accordance with the IFR and in the course of which flight, the pilot complies with any instructions given by the ATCU and remains clear of cloud and in sight of the surface

146
Q

Can a pilot fly Special VFR in an Airway?

A

No. Only in Class A control zones not in Class A airways

147
Q

What is the Quadrantal Rule?

A

Based on aircraft’s magnetic track.
Aircraft tracking between 360 and 089 degrees should select odd flight levels
Aircraft tracking between 090 and 179 degrees should select odd + 500ft flight levels
Aircraft tracking between 180 and 269 degrees should select even flight levels
Aircraft tracking between 270 and 359 degrees should select even + 500ft flight levels

148
Q

What is the Semi-circular rule?

A

In the UK used above FL245.
Aircraft tracking between 360 and 179 degrees should select odd flight levels
Aircraft tracking between 180 and 359 degrees should select even flight levels
Above FL410, 2000ft vertical separation is required!

149
Q

When may aircraft be flown at non-quadrantal/semi-circular levels?

A
  • When flying in accordance with ATC Instructions
  • When flying notified en-route holding patterns
  • When flying notified aerodrome holding patterns
150
Q

Rule 40 specifies the use of radio navigation aids. What is the rule aimed at achieving?

A

Aimed at preventing collisions between aircraft in uncontrolled airspace where one aircraft is using a radio navigation aid for en-route flying and the other is using it as an aerodrome approach aid.

151
Q

What does Rule 40 state?

A

Aircraft using a radio navigation aid must comply with notified procedures unless other authorised by ATC

152
Q

Navigation Lights

What lights should an aircraft display during the day?

A

An anti-collision light if fitted

153
Q

Navigation Lights

What colour are anti-collision lights?

A

On rotor craft - A flashing red

On other aircraft - A flashing red or a flashing white

154
Q

Navigation Lights

What are the standard navigation lights carried by an aircraft?

A

Port - Red, 5 candela, visible from dead ahead to 110 degrees astern

Starboard - Green, 5 candela, visible from dead ahead to 110 degrees astern

155
Q

If an aircraft has a MTWA of 5700kgs os less, and was registered before 1st April 1988, which of the standard navigation lights may be omitted?

A

Anti-collision lights may be omitted

156
Q

When would more than 1 port or starboard light be fittered?

A

If the lamps are located more than 2m from the wing tips a 2nd set of lights must be fitted to indicate the tips. They must comply with the standard fit

157
Q

What lights are required to be illuminated when an aircraft is on the ground?

A

Same as in the air unless the aircraft is stationary on the apron or a parking area

158
Q

When is a red ant-collision light required to be on when an aircraft is on the ground?

A

When the engines are running

159
Q

When can a helicopter switch off the anti-collision light?

A

When stationary on an off-shore installation, and in accordance with the operations manual to indicate that it is safe to approach the helicopter

160
Q

When may an aircraft commander switch off a flashing light?

A

If it is likely to adversely affect the performance of any member of the flight crew or if the light would subject an outside observer to unreasonable dazzle

161
Q

What are the actions to be taken if a navigation light or anti-collision light fails at night?

A

On the ground - Unless the light can be repaired or replaced immediately the aircraft must not be allowed to depart
In Flight - Land as soon as it is safe to do so unless ATC permit the flight to continue

162
Q

What about light failure during the day?

A

Aircraft may continue to fly providing the anti-collision light is repaired at the earliest opportunity

163
Q

What lights should a glider carry?

A

Either the standard fit, or one steady red light of at least 5 candela visible in all directions

164
Q

What light should an airship carry?

A

The standard fit plus a white light on the nsoe visible from dead ahead to 110 degrees astern. All lights, including the tail, must be at least 5 candela

165
Q

What do 2 black balls suspended from an airship indicate?

A

It is not under command, has voluntarily switched off its engines or is being towed

ADI Written (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions