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Aviation Law 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Define Aerodrome

A

A defined area (including any buildings, installations and equipment) on land or water or on a fixed off- shore or floating structure, intended to be used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of ACFT

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2
Q

Define Runway

A

A defined rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off run of ACFT along its length

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3
Q

Define Taxiway

A

A defined path on a land aerodrome established for the taxiing of ACFT and intended to provide a link between one part of the aerodrome and another

Including

  • ACFT Stand Taxilane - A portion of an apron designated as a TWY and intended to provide access to ACFT stands only
  • APN TWY - A portion of a TWY system located on an APN and intended to provide a through taxi route across the APN
  • Rapid Exit TWY - TWY connected to a runway at an acute angle and designed to allow landing aeroplanes to turn off at higher speeds than are achieved on other exit TWYs thereby minimising RWY occupancy times
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4
Q

Define Apron

A

A defined area, on a land aerodrome, intended to accommodate ACFT for the purposes of loading or unloading passengers, mail or cargo, fueling, parking or maintenance

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5
Q

Define Manoeuvring Area

A

That part of an aerodrome to be used for the TKOF, landing and taxiing of ACFT, excluding the APNs

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6
Q

Define Movement Area

A

That part of an aerodrome to be used for the TKOF, landing and taxiing of ACFT, consisting of the manoeuvring area and the APN(s)

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7
Q

Different types of RWY

A
  • Cross RWYs
  • Parallel RWYs
  • Parallel Offset RWYs
  • Independent Diverging RWYs
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8
Q

What is considered when determining the RWY in use?

A
  • Surface wind (if light & variable consider 2000ft wind)
  • Traffic pattern
  • RWY lengths/landing runs
  • Availability of approach aids
  • Manoeuvring area serviceability
  • Aerodrome lighting
  • Weather

N.B. STRAMAW

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9
Q

How are aerodromes classified?

A
  • Civil (Controlled or uncontrolled)
  • Military (sometimes called government)
  • International aerodromes fly to foreign territories and require customs and immigration on site
  • Regional aerodromes operate within same territory
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10
Q

What is a controlled aerodrome?

A

Any aerodrome at which an air traffic control service is provided, regardless of whether or not a control zone (CTR) exists

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11
Q

What is an uncontrolled aerodrome?

A
  • No control
  • Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS)
  • AGCS (UK), Unicom or other non-ATS as prescribed by the state
  • No service
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12
Q

In a VFR traffic circuit, when is it mandatory to report your position?

A

Downwind and Final

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13
Q

Define Holding Fix

A

A geographical location that serves as a reference for a holding procedure

N.B. May be over a point source nav-aid (e.g. NDB or
VOR) or be defined as an intersection of VOR
Radials or as a VOR/DME position.

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14
Q

Define Holding Procedure

A

A predetermined manoeuvre which keeps an ACFT within a specified airspace while awaiting further clearance

N.B. Located to ensure ACFT remains clear of ground and obstructions, ready to continue flight when authorised to do so

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15
Q

What is a Non-published Hold?

A

ACC controllers may instruct ACFT to hold along ATS routes or within defined controlled airspace

N.B. May be required due to congestion. ATCO to determine inbound axis and direction of the hold.

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16
Q

Reasons for holding?

A
  • Weather
  • Traffic management
  • Accident at airfield
  • Etc

N.B. ACFT should be advised of anticipated delay as early as possible in event of extended delays

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17
Q

Label the following diagram of a standard holding pattern

A
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18
Q

Define Holding Axis

A

The required inbound track to the holding fix

N.B.If this is defined by VOR radials, then the axis must lie on one of the radials although it may be orientated towards or away from the relevant VOR

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19
Q

How are turns made in a holding pattern?

A
  • Turns are made at Rate 1 (3º / sec) or with 25º of bank, whichever requires least angle of bank
  • ACFT holding at greater than 170 kts may therefore turn at less than 3º / sec
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20
Q

Holding speeds

A
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21
Q

What are the ACFT Categories?

A
  • Cat A = Less than 91 knots IAS
  • Cat B = 91 to 120 knots IAS
  • Cat C = 121 to 140 knots IAS
  • Cat D = 141 to 165 knots IAS
  • Cat E = 166 to 210 knots IAS

N.B. For purposes of instrument approaches and obstacle clearance criteria, ACFT categorised by velocity at threshold which is defined as 1.3 x the stalling speed in landing configuration at maximum certificated landing mass

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22
Q

Define Outbound Leg

A
  • Normally 1 minute, or 1.5 minutes above 14,000ft
  • Timing commences either abeam holding fix or on completion of outbound turn, whichever is later
  • Where DME available, limiting range for outbound leg may be specified
  • Limiting radial may also apply
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23
Q

Entry Procedures

A
  • Sector 1 - Parallel entry (Allow 3 minutes)
  • Sector 2 - Offset entry (Allow 3 minutes)
  • Sector 3 - Direct entry (No time penalty)
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24
Q

What are 3 other methods of entry of a holding pattern?

A
  • Along holding radial
  • Via a DME arc
  • Via a secondary fix
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25
Q

What factors affect a holding pattern?

A
  • Wind
  • Speed (rates of turn)
  • Effect of level (temp and pressure)
  • Effect of navigation aid in use
  • Turbulence
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26
Q

What could be the effect of different navigation aids on a holding pattern?

A

Slant range error

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27
Q

Who is responsible for countering wind effect within a hold?

A

Pilots

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28
Q

Pilots are given awareness of delays causing holds. How is this done?

A

Using Expected Approach Time and Expected Onward Clearance Time

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29
Q

What is an EAT?

A

Expected Approach Time

  • Time at which approach control expect to leave the hold to commence an instrument approach
  • Determined for an arriving ACFT that will be
    subjected to a delay of 10 minutes or more (or such other period as has been determined by the appropriate authority)

N.B. When ATC specify a time to leave the holding pattern, the pilot will adjust his timing within the pattern in order to leave at the specified time

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30
Q

What is an expected onward clearance time?

A

Time to leave hold to continue en-route

N.B. When ATC specify a time to leave the holding pattern, the pilot will adjust his timing within the pattern in order to leave at the specified time

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31
Q

What is normal separation from a holding pattern?

A

5 minutes flying time from the flight path of the holding ACFT

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32
Q

What is needed for separation from a holding pattern to be calculated?

A
  • ATC need to be aware of dimensions of holding patters
  • Authority will calculate and determine which of the adjacent holding patterns can be deemed as separated
  • Secondary area around holding pattern is protected
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33
Q

What is a VRP?

A

Visual Reference Point

N.B. Outside of controlled airspace, no holding over VRPs. Does not apply in controlled airspace where know traffic environment exists

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34
Q

In controlled airspace, where may VFR flights be instructed to hold?

A

Over VRPs

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35
Q

Who calculates and issues EATs (Expected Approach Times)

A

Approach control

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36
Q

How are EATs expressed?

A
  • Based on landing intervals
  • Expressed as actual times
  • Revised as often as required until ACFT leaves holding facility
  • Passed to ACFT well in advance
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37
Q

To commence approach sequence…

A
  • Maximise traffic for minimal delay
  • Issue EATs
  • Keep stepping ACFT down to be ready when cleared
  • Lowest level to hold? Check Transition level strip and leave room for Missed Approach Procedure!
  • Apply vertical separation (Wait till 1 landed before second one leaves fix)
  • Think landing interval
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38
Q

What does the following symbol mean

A

No delay expected

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39
Q

What reasons could be given for delay not determined in a holding pattern

A
  • ## ACFT holding ahead for weather improvement
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40
Q

Examples of airspace restrictions (10)

A
  • Danger Area
  • Restricted Area
  • Prohibited Area
  • Small Arms Range
  • Air-to-Air Refueling Area
  • Aerial Tactics Area - ATA
  • Military Training Area - MTA
  • High Intensity Radio Transmission Area - HIRTA
  • Areas Of Intense Aerial Activity – AIAA
  • And various other Hazardous Areas

N.B. Details of activity state of these areas can be obtained from Flight Information Centre

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41
Q

Define Danger Area

A

Airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of ACFT may exist at specified times

N.B. May overlap on occasion as each may be active at different times

N.B.B. Military in nature. Encompass captive balloon sites and weapons ranges. ACFT could be towing targets with cables up to 4 miles long!

N.B.B.B. Military ACFT may be holding outside of a danger area

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42
Q

Is it illegal to enter an active danger area?

A

No

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43
Q

Is it illegal to enter an active prohibited area?

A

Yes

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44
Q

What do prohibited and restricted areas tend to encompass?

A
  • HM Prisons
  • Nuclear power stations
  • Military establishments
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45
Q

Define Restricted Area

A

Airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial waters of a State, within which the flight of ACFT is restricted in accordance with certain specified condition

N.B. Specified conditions normally allow ACFT to TKOF and land at aerodromes or heliports within the areas

N.B.B Occasionally overlap or one within another but are usually permanently established

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46
Q

Define Prohibited Area

A

Airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial waters of a State, within which the flight of ACFT is prohibited

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47
Q

Where can details of small arms ranges be found in the AIP?

A

UK AIP ENR 5-3 with pictorial depiction in CHART OF UK AIRSPACE RESTRICTIONS ENR 6-5-1-1

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48
Q

Define Aerial Tactic Area (ATA)

A

Airspace of defined dimensions designated for air combat training within which high energy manoeuvres are regularly practiced by ACFT formations

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49
Q

Define Military Training Area (MTA)

A

An area of Upper Airspace of defined dimensions within which intense military flying training takes place

N.B. Not possible to provide civil air traffic control service in an AMTA during published hours. Deemed prohibited to civil ACFT when active

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50
Q

Define High Intensity Radio Transmission Area (HIRTA)

A

Airspace of defined dimensions within which there is radio energy of an intensity which may cause interference with, and on rare occasions damage to, communications and navigation equipment

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51
Q

Define Area of Intense Air Activity (AIAA)

A

An airspace within which ACFT, singly or in combination with others, regularly participate in unusual manouevres

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52
Q

What are the 2 main types of aeronautical charts used?

A
  • Aeronautical Charts ICAO (Scale 1:500,000) - Half mil
  • Topographical Air Charts (Scale 1:250,000) - Quarter mil
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53
Q

Examples of procedural and aerodrome charts (6)

A
  • Instrument Approach Charts - ICAO (IAC)
  • Aerodrome Obstacle Charts - ICAO type ‘A’
  • Precision Approach Terrain Charts – ICAO – used for planning purposes only
  • Standard Instrument Departure (SID)
  • Standard Terminal Arrival Route (STAR)
  • Noise Preferential Routes
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54
Q

Examples of plotting charts (Instructional)

A
  • UK/Europe (Instructional)
  • Mercator and Lambert (Instructional)
  • Plotting Charts (Various) (Instructional)
55
Q

Examples of miscellaneous charts in AIP ENR 1.3

A
  • Airspace Restrictions and Hazardous Areas (scale 1:1,000,000)
  • Areas of Military Air Activity, Aerial Tactics Areas and Military Low Flying System.
56
Q

Where are corrections to aeronautical charts published when incorrect information found after publication?

A

The AIP

57
Q

What is IFR?

A

Instrument Flight Rules

  • Electronic equipment-based navigation
  • GPS and other types of equipment
  • Can possibly still see out of the window
58
Q

What is VFR?

A

Visual Flight Rules

  • Look out of the window
  • Use maps and charts to fix location
  • Keep out of cloud
59
Q

What is the SERA definition of Night?

A

Hours between end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight

Evening Civil Twilight ends and Morning Civil Twilight begins when centre of suns disk is 6º below horizon

60
Q

What is controlled airspace?

A

Airspace which has been notified as Class A, B, C, D, E

61
Q

What is choice of flight rules (VFR/IFR) dependent on?

A
  • Type of airspace
  • Weather
  • Pilot qualifications
62
Q

What determines VFR?

A

Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC)

Pilots responsible for determining VMC

Except for

Flights to or from aerodromes, or entering ATZ or traffic circuit in controlled airspace - the reported ground visibility shall be used to make this determination

63
Q

VMC Minima by day

A

(*) = When the height of the transition altitude is lower than 3050m (10000ft) AMSL, FL100 shall be used in lieu of 10000ft

(**) = The VMC minima in Class A airspace are included for guidance to pilots and do not imply acceptance of VFR flights in Class A airspace

(***) = When so prescribed by the competent authority:

(a) Flight visibilities reduced to not less than 1500m may be permitted for flights operating:

(a1) At speeds of 140 kts IAS or less to give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstacles in time to avoid collision

Or

(a2) In circumstances in which the probability of encounters with other traffic would normally be low, e.g. in areas of low volume traffic and for aerial work at low levels

(b) Helicopters may be permitted to operate in less than 1500m but not less than 800m flight visibility, if manoeuvred at a speed that will give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstacles in time to avoid collision. Flight visibilities lower than 800m may be permitted for special cases, such as medical flights, search and rescue operations and fire-fighting

64
Q

VFR Refusal
Except when Special VFR (SVFR), VFR flights shall not…

A

TKOF or land at an aerodrome within a CTR or enter the ATZ or aerodrome traffic circuit

When reported MET conditions at that aerodrome are below following minima:

  • Ceiling <1500ft

Or

  • Ground visibility <5km
65
Q

VFR at night

A

If CAA allow, VFR at night permitted when:
● ●
VMC ● ● ●
●
Flight plan filed when leaving vicinity;
Radio communications maintained with ATS when available.
as per day, except:
Cloud ceiling not less than 450m (1500ft).
Minimum 5km visibility.
Maintain continuous sight of the surface when <900m (3000ft) / or > 300m (1000ft) above terrain whichever higher.
If mountainous, a higher VMC visibility and distance from cloud minima may be prescribed by the competent authority.
Except when take-off or landing, or authorised by the CAA, a VFR flight at night shall be flown not below the minimum flight altitude established by the State, or if not established:
(i) over high terrain/mountainous areas, at least 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8km of the estimated position of the aircraft;
(ii) elsewhere at a level which is at least 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8km of the estimated position of the aircraft

66
Q

VMC on top

A
67
Q

What should be considered for VMC on top at night?

A

A. Destination weather allowing a descent in visual conditions
B. Lighting conditions below and above the cloud layer
C. Descending cloud base, if flight below cloud is chosen, thus
resulting in terrain clearance being lost;
D. The possibility of flight above the cloud leading to flight
between converging cloud layers;
E. The possibility of successfully turning back and returning to
an area where continuous sight of surface can be
maintained; and
F. The possibilities for the pilot to establish their location at
any point of the route to be flown, taking into consideration
also the terrain elevation and geographical and man-made
obstacles.

68
Q

Unless authorised by the competent authority, VFR fights shall not be operated above __________ or at __________ and __________ speeds

A

1.) FL195
2.) Transonic
3.) Supersonic

69
Q

When MUST a pilot fly according to IFR?

A
  • Airspace notified as Class A
  • Meteorological conditions preclude VFR (note differences at night)

N.B. So long as a pilot holds an IR, they can enter Class A airspace, with a clearance from ACC, in any certified aircraft with minimum required equipment, provided they comply with the VMC minima on the following slides

70
Q

IFR Flight appropriate cruise level tracks outside of controlled air space:

A
71
Q

VFR Flight appropriate cruise level tracks outside of controlled air space:

A
72
Q

What must a VFR flight do if they wish to change to an IFR flight

A
  • If a flight plan was submitted, communicate the necessary changed to be effected

If not

  • Flight plan must be submitted and clearance obtained prior to proceeding IFR within controlled airspace
73
Q

When can a pilot cancel an IFR flight plan?

A

When not in Class A airspace or above FL195

N.B. Can only be requested at request of pilot

74
Q

Define Special VFR Flight

A

A VFR flight cleared by air traffic control to operate within a control zone in meteorological conditions below VMC

N.B. Subject to ATC Clearance

75
Q

What are the requirements for SVFR Flights?

A

Subject to ATC Clearance

Except when permitted by the competent authority
for helicopters in special cases e.g. police, medical,
search and rescue operations and fire-fighting
flights, the following additional conditions shall be
applied

76
Q

SVFR

A
77
Q

SVFR

A
78
Q

What are the responsibilities for pilots and ATC with regard to Special VFR?

A

Pilot
- Comply with ATC instructions
- Clear of cloud and surface in sight and VMC minima
- Terrain clearance
- Licence limitations
- Low flying rules
- Avoiding ATZ’s
- Remain below 140kts IAS

ATC
- Separation
- Traffic integration
- Route clearance
- Weather appreciation

79
Q

What is a flight plan?

A

Information relative to an intended flight or portion of a flight, to be provided to air traffic services units

80
Q

What are the types of flight plan?

A

IFR and VFR

N.B. IFR to VFR = Y (IVY)

N.B.B. VFR to IFR = Z (IVZ)

81
Q

What are the contents of a flight plan?

A
  • Addressees
  • Filing time
  • Originator
  • ACFT identification
  • Flight rules
  • Type of flight
  • Number
  • Type of ACFT
  • Wake turbulence category
  • Equipment
  • Departure aerodrome
  • Time
  • Cruising speed
  • Level
  • Route
  • Destination aerodrome
  • Total EET Hr Min
  • Alternate aerodrome
  • 2nd alternate aerodrome

Supplementary info not to be transmitted in flight plan message - Field 19 - transmitted on request
- Endurance
- POB
- Emergency radio
- Survival equipment
- Jackets
ETC

82
Q

When shall a flight plan be submitted? (6)

A
  • Any flight or portion to be provided with an ATC service
  • Any IFR flight within advisory airspace
  • Any flight within or into areas or designated routes, providing flight information, alerting and search and rescue services
  • Any flight within or into designated area or routes facilitating coordination with appropriate military units or with ATSUs in adjacent states in order to avoid the possible need for interception for the purpose of identification
  • Any flight across international borders
  • Any flight planned to operate at night if leaving the vicinity of an aerodrome
83
Q

What are the categories of flight plan?

A
  • Full
  • Abbreviated
84
Q

How is a flight plan submitted?

A

On the RTF or by telephone

Full flight plan required if ADES to be notified and for ATFM

Provides the limited information required to obtain
a clearance for a portion of flight (eg: flying in a
Control Zone, crossing an Airway) filed either on
the RTF or by telephone prior to take-off

85
Q

For which flights can a pilot file a flight plan?

A

Any they choose

86
Q

Flight planned submission times?

A
  • Min 3 hrs before EOBT for (N Atlantic flights & flights subject to Air Traffic Flow Management) or within UK

Or

  • Min 60 mins before EOBT on all other flights

N.B. Airborne flight plans may incur a filing delay due ATCO workload. At least 10 mins. Warning required for controlled airspace entry clearance

87
Q

Who is a DEP sent by?

A

ATC or responsible person (Where no ATSU available. Pilots responsibility to call ATSU with whom flight plan (FPL) is filed

88
Q

When is a DEP not required?

A

If an IFR flight plan has been filed with Integrated Flight Plan Processing system (IFPS) and the flight will operate solely within the IFPS zone

89
Q

When must a DEP always be sent?

A

For VFR FPLs and IFR FPLs operating outside Controlled Airspace (CAS) or outside the IFPS Zone

90
Q

What is IFPS?

A

Integrated Flight Plan Processing System
- Part of EUROCONTROL Air Traffic Flow Control Management (ATFCM) initiative

  • Sole source for distribution of IFR / General Air Traffic (GAT) Flight Plan information within Europe. (Does not cover VFR flights or military Operational Air Traffic (OAT)
91
Q

What are the 2 addresses for FPLs wholly within the IFPS zone?

A

EUCHZMFP
EUCBZMFP

N.B. Flights overflying or exiting IFPS zone - all subsequent ATSU addressees included

92
Q

IFPS will not accept flight plans more that __________ in advance

A

120 hours

93
Q

Flights not commencing within __________, EOBD to be shown

A

24 hours

94
Q

Who is responsible for filing a flight plan for IFR flights?

A

ACFT operators are ultimately responsible

95
Q

What is a CHG message and what cannot be changed with a change message?

A

Change to flight plan

Following cannot be changed - FPL must be cancelled and resubmitted after 5 mins
- ACFT Callsign
- Departure aerodrome
- Destination aerodrome
- EOBT
- EOBD

96
Q

What is a CNL message?

A

Cancel flight plan - can refile corrected flight plan after 5 mins

97
Q

What is a DLA message?

A

Delay message - can be used to revise EOBT later than planned, but not bring it forward

98
Q

What is an ACK message?

A

Acceptance acknowledgement

99
Q

What is a SAM message?

A

Slot allocation message - CTOT used for route restrictions by CFMU

100
Q

What is a REA message?

A

Ready message - ACFT ready for startup. Sent by ATSU at pilots request when CTOT causes more than 20 mins delay to flight

101
Q

What is a SRM message?

A

Slot revision message. Received when new CTOT given by CFMU

102
Q

What is MAN?

A

Message referred for manual repair - accepted but awaiting intervention for possible repair. Details in subsequent ACK message, otherwise: REJ sent

103
Q

What is a REJ message?

A

Message rejected with reasons. Return corrected message without delay

104
Q

What is a DEP message?

A

Departure message - Departure of time of ACFT. Sent by ATSU if required

105
Q

What is an ARR message?

A

Arrival message - arrival time of ACFT. Sent if required or if a diversion

106
Q

What does CFMU stand for?

A

Central Flow Management Unit

107
Q

What does CTOT stand for

A

Calculated Take Off Time - Slot!

108
Q

At aerodromes where SIDs are used, what happens if a flight plan is filed with a non standard route?

A

Referred back to originator for correction

109
Q

What type of flight plan is not covered by IFPS?

A

VFR flight plans - FPL is addressed to destination aerodrome and appropriate foreign FIRs also route charges if applicable

110
Q

What is the purpose of field 19 in a flight plan?

A

Used for search and rescue purposes

111
Q

If the operator or handling agency will close before ETA at destination +1hour, what needs to be done?

A
  • ATSU informed of POB, if not ATSU, Info is passed to parent ACC with name and address of person with access to flight records

N.B. If ATSU at departure aerodrome closes before ETA at dest. +1 Hr, ATCO passes details in Field 19 of FPL including any changes to POB or ENDURANCE to the parent ACC

112
Q

Examples of inadvertent changes to a FPL

A
  • Company file different flight plan to pilot
  • Flight management system input errors
  • ACFT diversion requirement
  • ACFT problem - pressurisation, icing etc
113
Q

Intended changes to a FPL

A

Electronic FPL can be used or made over the radio which can cause issues in a busy environment

Examples:

  • ACFT may request visual approach instead
  • ACFT want to divert
114
Q

Position reporting requirements inside controlled airspace

A

Unless exempted, a controlled flight shall report time and level passing each designated compulsory point and additional points when requested by appropriate ATSU

N.B. Position info via datalink flights shall only provide voice position reports when requested

115
Q

Position reporting outside controlled airspace

A

An IFR flight required to establish two-way communication with the ATSU providing flight information service, shall report position, as specified for controlled flights inside controlled airspace

116
Q

Define Safety Management System

A

A systematic and explicit approach defining the activities by which safety management is undertaken by an Organisation in order to achieve acceptable or tolerable safety

117
Q

Define Safety

A

Freedom from unacceptable risk of harm

118
Q

What is the safety assurance document/safety case?

A

A document which clearly and comprehensively presents sufficient arguments, evidence and assumptions that system hazards have been identified and controlled

N.B. What ifs and mitigation

119
Q

Define Safety critical

A

An item or system the failure of which could lead to, or directly contribute to, the possibility of an accident or serious loss of functionality, integrity, or safety margins, will be identified as “Safety Critical”

120
Q

Define. Safety Objective

A

A safety objective is a planned and considered goal that has been set by a design or project authority. The satisfaction of an objectivity may be demonstrated by appropriate means to be determined in agreement with the Regulator

N.B. Goal

121
Q

Define Safety policy

A

A safety policy is a declaration of a general plan of action set by the authority of management

122
Q

Define Safety related

A

Since the ability to cause a catastrophic incident is often linked to a series of apparently innocuous and seemingly unrelated events, all processes are assumed to be safety-related

If something or some process is to be excluded from this precept, the burden of proof for exclusion lies with the regulated party

123
Q

What are the 3 strands of safety policy?

A
  • Safety achievement
  • Safety assurance
  • Safety promotion
124
Q

What is safety requirement?

A

A statement about the priority ascribed to flight safety relative to commercial, operational, environment and working practice pressures

125
Q

What is general requirement for safety?

A
  • A statement about compliance with safety standards and regulatory requirements
  • A statement about ensuring sub-contractors meet company safety standards and requirements
126
Q

Why do we need a formal SMS? (3)

A
  • Commercial Survival
  • Legal Obligation
  • Moral Necessity
127
Q

What is a safety management system (SMS)?

A
  • Business like approach to safety
  • Systematic, explicit and comprehensive process for managing safety risks
  • Provides for goal setting, planning and measuring performance
  • Is woven into the fabric of an organisation. It becomes part of the culture, the way people do their jobs
  • Used to produce an acceptable level of safety
128
Q

Who has prime responsibility for the safety of an ATM service?

A

ATM Service Provider

Check safety issues and refer to SMS documentation

129
Q

Who regulates safety?

A

ICAO - Internationally
EASA - Regionally in Europe
CAA - Nationally in UK

130
Q

Understanding SMS

A

The object shall ensure that:
- Established level of safety is met
- Safety-related enhancements are implemented whenever necessary
- Safety assessments are carried out
- Mechanism in place to identify the need for safety enhancing measures

131
Q

How are safety significant events reported and investigated?

A

MOR / Airprox etc

132
Q

What are the 4 key functions most safety management function are based on?

A
  • Safety policy and management principles
  • Implementation
  • Organisation
  • Safety
133
Q

What is the safety manager responsible for?

A
  • Development and maintenance of SMS
  • Accountable for deficiencies
  • Ensures safety documentations accurate
  • Monitors effectiveness of corrections
  • Reporting on performance
  • Provide independent advice and reports to senior management
  • Role is therefore of high importance and seniority
134
Q

What should the types of system components should the safety and assessment process address?

A

People
Procedures
Equipment

Basic (8 decks)

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