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Aviation Law 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is IFATCA?

A

International Federation of Air Traffic Controllers Association

  • Protection and safeguarding of the interests of the air traffic control profession and to promote safety, efficiency and regularity in air navigation
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2
Q

What is CANSO?

A

Civil Air Navigation Services Organisation

  • Global voice of companies that provide ATC and represents the interests of ANSPs worldwide
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3
Q

What is IATA?

A

International Air Transport Association

  • Helps airlines help themselves by simplifying processes and increasing passenger convenience while reducing costs and improving efficiency
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4
Q

What is WMO?

A

World Meteorological Organisation

  • UN specialised agency which facilitates the exchange of weather information across national borders
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5
Q

Name 3 European agencies

A
  • ECAC - European Civil Aviation Conference
  • EASA - European Aviation Safety Agency
  • Eurocontrol
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6
Q

How does brexit affect new changes to aviation rules?

A
  • Withdrawal from Europe on 31st December 2020
  • All european law adopted and transposed into UK law
  • Accepted Means of Compliance (AMC)
  • Alternative Means of Compliance (ALTMOC)
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7
Q

What is ECAC?

A

European Civil Aviation Conference
- Unique European forum of 44 member states for discussion of every major civil aviation topic
- Seeks to harmonise civil aviation policies across member states
- Promotion of a safe, efficient and sustainable air transport system

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8
Q

What is EASA?

A

European Aviation Safety Organisations
- European regulator
- Set up to promote highest common standards of safety and environmental protection in civil aviation

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9
Q

What is Eurocontrol?

A
  • European organisation for the safety of air navigation
  • SESAR - Single European Sky ATM Research
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10
Q

What is the Network Manager Function?

A
  • From Network Manager Operations Centre (NMOC)
  • Where ACFT slots come from
  • Stops ATCOs from becoming overloaded when there are too many flights at a time in a particular area
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11
Q

What happened at the Chicago convention?

A
  • Initial Paris Conference held in 1910
  • 52 states signed in December 1944
  • Unable to agree on commercial rights of civil aviation but gave rise to supplementary agreements
  • International air services transit agreement (2 of these)
  • International air transport agreements (3 of these)
  • Above are known as the 5 freedoms
  • Freedoms not automatically granted to an airline and have to be negotiated
  • All freedoms beyond 1st and 2nd have to negotiated by bilateral agreements e.g. 1946 between UK and USA permitting 5th freedom rights
  • There are currently 9 different freedoms
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12
Q

What are the 5 freedoms?

A

The privilege to…
1. Overfly without landing
2. Land for non-commercial reasons
3. Put down passengers, mail and cargo take on in the territory of registration of the ACFT
4. Take on passengers, mail and cargo bound for the territory of registration of the ACFT
5. Take on passengers, mail and cargo destined for the territory of any other contracting state and to put down passengers, mail and cargo coming from any such territory

N.B. 1 and 2 pertain to International Air Services Transit Agreements

N.B.B. 3-5 pertain to International Air Transport Agreements

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13
Q

What are the unofficial 4 freedoms?

A

The freedom to…
1. Carry traffic between two foreign countries via carriers home country (combines 3rd and 4th freedoms)
2. Base ACFT in a foreign country for use on international services, establishing a defacto hub
3. Carry traffic between two domestic points in a foreign country on a flight that either originated in or is destined for the carriers home country. Known as cabotage
4. Carry traffic between two domestic points in a foreign country. Also knows as full cabotage or open skies privileges

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14
Q

What is cabotage?

A

Freedom to carry passengers between two domestic points in a foreign country, on a flight that either originated or is destined for the carriers home country

N.B. ICAO states can ban cabotage but only for all other states, not selectively

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15
Q

What is ICAO and when was it formed?

A
  • International Civil Aviation Organisation
  • Formed 4th April 1947
  • 193 member states as of June 2020
  • Headquartered in Montreal - regional offices in Bangkok, Cairo, Dakar, Lima, Mexico City, Nairobi and Paris
  • Composed of three main bodies - Assembly, Council and Secreteriat
  • Aims/Objectives - Safe and Orderly growth of International Civil Aviation worldwide
  • Aircraft design for peaceful purposes
  • Develop Airways, Airports, Navigation Facilities for International Civil Aviation
  • Promote Safe, Regular, Efficient and Economical Air Transport
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16
Q

What is ICAO composed of?

A
  • Assembly - 193 member states
  • Council - 36 contracting states
  • Secreteriat - 6 committees
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17
Q

What is the Secreteriat composed of?

A
  • Air Navigation Commission
  • Air Transport Committee
  • Legal Committee
  • Finance Committee
  • Committee on Unlawful Interference
  • Committee on Joint Support of Navigation Services

N.B. Air Navigation Commission is most relevant to ATS

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18
Q

What are the 11 technical divisions of the Air Navigation Commission?

A
  1. AGA - Aerodromes, Air Routes, Ground Aids
  2. AIG - Accident Investigation
  3. AIS - Aeronautical Information Service
  4. COM - Aeronautical Communications
  5. MAP - Aeronautical Charts
  6. MET - Meteorology
  7. OPS - Operation of aircraft
  8. SAR - Search & Rescue
  9. PEL - Personnel Licensing
  10. AIR - Airworthiness
  11. RAC Rules of the Air and Air Traffic Control

N.B. 3 As in alphabetical order, COMMAPMET, OSPAR

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19
Q

What are SARPs?

A
  • Standards and Recommended Practice
  • A standard practice is any specification, the uniform application of which is agreed necessary for the safety or regularity of international civil air navigation. Differences are lodged by member states with ICAO (AIP GEN 1.7)
  • A recommended practice is any specification, the uniform application of which is agreed desirable for the safety and regularity of international civil aviation. Differences are not lodged with ICAO

N.B. They are written in ICAO Annexes

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20
Q

How many ICAO Annexes and what are they?

A

19

1. Personnel Licensing
2. Rules of the Air
3. Meteorological Services
4. Aeronautical Charts
5. Units of Measurement
6. Operation of Aircraft
7. Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks
8. Airworthiness of Aircraft
9. Facilitation
10. Aeronautical Telecommunications
11. Air Traffic Services
12. Search and Rescue
13. Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation
14. Aerodromes - contains 2 parts (Aerodromes and heliports)
15. Aeronautical Information Services
16. Environmental Protection
17. Security
18. The Safe Transportation of Dangerous Goods by Air
19. Safety Management

N.B. Contain international standards and recommended practices (SARPs)

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21
Q

What is ICAO Annex 1?

A
  • Personnel Licensing
  • These standards are used to write our ANO Schedules relating to licensing of many disciplines including Pilots and controllers
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22
Q

What is ICAO Annex 11?

A
  • Air Traffic Services
  • Defines air traffic services and specifies the worldwide Standards and Recommended Practices applicable in the provision of these services
  • Pertains to establishment of airspace, units and services necessary to promote a safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic
  • Clear distinctions made between air traffic control service, flight information service and alerting service
  • Supplements ICAO Doc 4444 - PANS ATM
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23
Q

What are the contents of an annex?

A
  1. Definitions
  2. Standards
  3. Recommended Practices
  4. Appendices (White Pages)
  5. Explanation of 1 and 2
  6. Attachments (Green Pages)
  7. Guide to use 1 and 2
  8. Supplement (State differences and why)
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24
Q

Where are UK differences found?

A

AIP GEN 1.7

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25
Q

What is ICAO Annex 2?

A
  • Rules of the air
  • General rules, visual flight rules and instrument flight rules and apply without exception over the high seas and over national territories to the extent that they do not conflict with the rules of the State being overflown
  • Contains standards only. Together with the SARPs of Annex 11 this document governs the application of PANS ATM (Doc 4444) and Doc 7030
  • These are incorporated into our MATS Pt1 and ANO
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26
Q

What is AIS and its functions?

A
  • Aeronautical Information Service
  • Collect, collate, edit and disseminate aeronautical information necessary for the safety and efficiency of air navigation or for interested parties
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27
Q

What are examples of aeronautical information products produced by AIS?

A
  • AIP - Aeronautical Information Publication including amendments and supplements
  • AIC - Aeronautical Information Circular
  • Aeronautical charts
  • NOTAM
  • Digital data sets
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28
Q

What is a PIB?

A

Pre-flight information bulletins which pilots use

Contains:
- Edited version of a NOTAM in plain language
- Information to cover the first leg of flight
- Distributed to airfields by AMHS
- Duplicated at airfields to allow collection by pilots
- Updated every 4 hours and valid for 12 hours from the time they are produced

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29
Q

What is the INO and its main functions?

A
  • International NOTAM office
  • Preparation and issue of civil and military NOTAMs via Air Traffic Services Message Handling Services (AMHS)
  • Receiving/transmitting information from/to international NOTAM offices
  • Dissemination of AIS date to enable the production of PIBs
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30
Q

What is a NOTAM?

A
  • Notice to Airmen
  • Cover short duration or temporary changes or short notice permanent change
  • Distributed to stations via AMHS
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31
Q

How are NOTAMs coded?

A
  • Each allocated a series, identified by a letter and a 4 digit number, followed by a stroke and a 2 digit year so that addressees may check continuity
  • Series A - General, enroute navigation and communication facilities, UIR airspace restrictions and activities and information concerning major international aerodromes
  • Series B - FIR airspace restrictions, activities and on other international aerodromes where IFR flights are permitted
  • Series C - VFR only international aerodromes
  • Series D - National aerodromes
  • Series E - Heliports

N.B. Need to be able to decode a NOTAM

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32
Q

What are the 3 types of NOTAM?

A

NOTAMN - New information
NOTAMR - Replaces previous NOTAM
NOTAMC - Cancels previous NOTAM

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33
Q

What are the UKs notified documents?

A

The AIP and NOTAMs

N.B. To notify and notified means that information has been published in the nations own AIP

N.B.B. Through the above, any stakeholder can find the nations methods of complying with the regulations (ICAO SARPs)

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34
Q

What are the 3 parts of the AIP?

A

Part 1 - General (GEN)
Part 2 - Enroute (ENR)
Part 3 - Aerodromes (AD)

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35
Q

What are the contents of AIP Part 1 GEN

A
  • Contents and record of amendments and supplements
  • Details of national regulations and requirements
  • National regulations
  • Differences from ICAO
  • Tables, codes and time system
  • Location indicators
  • Sunset and sunrise times
  • Details of services available
  • AIS
  • ATS
  • Communications
  • Meteorological
  • Search and Rescue
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36
Q

What are the contents of AIP Part 3 AD?

A
  • Contents
  • Aerodrome/Heliport Introduction
  • Aerodromes
  • Location Indicators
  • Geographical & administrative
  • General detail including airspace, ATS, SAR and AIDS
  • Heliports (Same organisation as for aerodromes)
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37
Q

Who is responsible for the production and maintenance of the IAIP which includes the AIP?

A

Static data office

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38
Q

What does the static data office do?

A

Maintains records of all aviation facilities in order to prepare the Integrated Aeronautical Information Package (IAIP) - consists of:
- AIP and amendment service (AIRAC/Non-AIRAC permanent changes)
- AIP Supplements
- AICs
- AIS website

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39
Q

What is AIRAC?

A

Aeronautical Information Regulation And Control
- AIRAC cycles are every 28 days
- Amendments may contain AIRAC and Non-AIRAC changes
- AIP contains dates of AIRAC cycles
- Distributed by AIS unit at least 42 days in advance of the effective date, reaching recipients at least 28 days before
- Major changes - Publication at least 56 days of effective date

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40
Q

Which documents are issued by ICAO?

A
  • DOC 7300 convention of International Civil Aviation
  • Annexes to the Convention. (with SARPs) - There are 19 annexes
  • DOC 4444: PANS.RAC/Rules of the Air and Air Traffic Services
  • DOC 8400: PANS.ABC/ICAO Abbreviations and Codes
  • DOC 8168: PANS.OPS/Operations of Aircraft
  • DOC 7030: Regional Supplementary Procedures
  • Reports of the Technical Divisions of the Air Navigation Commission
  • Information Circulars
  • Training Manuals
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41
Q

What are PANS?

A

Procedures for Air Navigation Services

  • Supplementary to the appropriate ICAO Annexes (2 and 11)
  • Approved by the ICAO council 2/3 majority

N.B.B. DOC 4444 PANS Air Traffic Management

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42
Q

What is DOC 4444?

A
  • Procedures for Air Navigation Services Air Traffic Management
  • International HOW TO of air traffic control - progressive evolution of procedures since 1946
  • Complementary to SARPs in Annex 2 and 11
  • Supplemented by DOC 7030 (EUR Regional Supplementary Procedures)
  • Specifies in more detail than SARPs the actual procedures for ATSUs
  • Recommended document worldwide, however, the EU have through 2015/240 made it legally binding
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43
Q

What are the contents of DOC 4444 PANS-ATM?(8)

A
  • Safety Management
  • ATS capacity and Flow management
  • Provisions for ATS
  • Separation Methods
  • Procedures for Aerodrome Control, ATS surveillance, Flight Information and Alerting services
  • Coordination / Phraseology
  • ADS/CPDLC
  • Emergencies
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44
Q

What is DOC 7030?

A
  • Regional Supplementary Procedures - it pertains to the European region only
  • Does not have the same status as SARPs
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45
Q

What are the contents of an annex?

A

Annexes contain the SARPs as adopted by the ICAO council with a two thirds majority

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46
Q

Who publishes Acceptable Means of Compliance (AMC), Guidance Material (GM) and Certification Specifications (CS)

A

EASA

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47
Q

What is European hard law?

A

Law which is pertinent to the rest of Europe but not the UK

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48
Q

What is European soft law?

A

Used when flexibility is needed through the use on non-binding standards

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49
Q

What is a regulation?

A

A binding legislative act, applied in its entirety across the EU

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50
Q

What is a directive?

A

A legislative act that sets out a goal that all EU countries must achieve

N.B. Up to individual countries to devise their own laws on how to reach these goals

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51
Q

What are decisions?

A

Binding on those to whom it is addressed (e.g. an EU country or an individual company). Is directly applicable

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52
Q

What are recommendations?

A

Non-binding

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53
Q

What are opinions?

A

Non-binding

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54
Q

What are the 3 main levels of regulatory material used in the EASA system?

A

Regulation/implementing regulations - Binding - Hard law
Acceptable Means of Compliance and guidance material - Non-binding - Soft law
Certification Specifications - Non-binding - Soft law

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55
Q

What is (EU) 2015/340?

A
  • ATCO licence will be issued in accordance with this
  • Also allowed the national authority (CAA in the UK) to revoke, suspend or vary any certificate, licence or other documents
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56
Q

What are AMCs?

A

Acceptable Means of Compliance
Non-binding standards adopted by EASA to illustrate means to establish compliance with the basic regulation and its implementing rules

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57
Q

What are ALTMOCs

A

Alternative Means of Compliance
Ways to adhere to prescribed AMCs but in an organisations own interpretation

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58
Q

What is EU 923/2012?

A
  • Standard European Rules of the Air (SERA)
  • Written by EASA and designed to achieved common rules of the air for all EU states
  • UK still abides by this with some differences
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59
Q

What are the contents of the GEN section of the AIP?

A
  • GEN 1 National Regulations and Requirements
  • GEN 2 Tables and Codes
  • GEN 3 Services
  • GEN 4 Charges for Aerodromes/Heliports and Air Navigation Services
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60
Q

What are the contents of the ENR section of the AIP? (7)

A
  • ENR 0 - Contents
  • ENR 1 General Rules & Procedures
  • ENR 2 ATS Airspace
  • ENR 3 ATS Routes
  • ENR 4 Radio Nav. Aids & Systems
  • ENR 5 Navigation Warnings
  • ENR 6 En-Route Charts
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61
Q

What are the contents of the AD section of the AIP?

A
  • AD 1 Aerodromes/Heliports Introduction
  • AD 2 Aerodromes (Specific)
  • AD 3 Heliports
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62
Q

What is the purpose of AIP supplements?

A

Normally contain items of a temporary nature only

63
Q

How often are AIP Supplements issued?

A

Every 28 days just like the normal AIRAC cycle

64
Q

What are the different colours of Aeronautical Information Circulars (AICs) and what do they mean?

A
  • White - Administration
  • Pink - Safety
  • Yellow - Operations/ATS
  • Green - Maps/Charts
  • Mauve - UK Restriction Charts

N.B. Classic exam question

65
Q

What are the 5 categories of Air Navigation Services provided to air traffic?

A
  • ATM - Air traffic management
  • CNS - Communication, Navigation and Surveillance
  • MET - Meteorological Services for Air Navigation
  • SAR - Search and Rescue
  • AIS - Aeronautical Information Services

ACMSA

N.B. Provided through Air Traffic Services (ATS)

66
Q

The need for the provision of ATS shall be determined by consideration of what? (4)

A
  • Type of air traffic involved
  • Density of air traffic
  • Meteorological conditions
  • Such other factors as may be relevant

N.B. Classic exam question

67
Q

What are the 4 Air Traffic Services?

A
  • Air Traffic Control Service
  • Air Traffic Advisory Service
  • Flight Information Service
  • Alerting Service

N.B. Classic exam question which may also be asked in ATM

68
Q

What are the objectives of Air Traffic Services?

A
  • Prevent collisions between ACFT (ATC Service)
  • Prevent collisions between ACFT on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area (ATC Service)
  • Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic (ATC Service)
  • Provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights (Advisory Service and Flight Information Service)
  • Notify appropriate organisations regarding ACFT in need of search and rescue aid and assist such organisations as required (Alerting Service)

N.B. Classic exam question throughout life

69
Q

Who shall an Air Traffic Control Service be provided to?

A
  • IFR flights in airspace classes A, B, C, D and E
  • VFR flights in airspace classes B, C and D
  • Special VFR flights
  • Aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodromes

N.B. SERA.8001 Application
N.B.B. Absolutely need to know this

70
Q

What is aerodrome traffic?

A
  • All traffic on manoeuvring area of an AD
  • All ACFT flying in vicinity of an AD
  • An ACFT operating in vicinity of an AD includes but is not limited to ACFT entering or leaving an AD traffic circuit
71
Q

In order to provide an air traffic control service, an air traffic control unit shall…

A
  • Be provided with information on intended movement and current information on actual progress of each ACFT
  • Determine from information received, relative positions of known ACFT to each other
  • Issue clearance and information for the purpose of preventing collisions between ACFT under its control and of expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
  • Coordinate clearances as necessary with other units whenever an ACFT might otherwise conflict with traffic operated under the control of other such units and before transferring control of an ACFT to other such units
72
Q

What is the objective on an Air Traffic Advisory Service?

A
  • Provide advise and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights
  • To make information on collision hazards more effective than it would be in the mere provision of flight information service
  • Within advisory airspace/routes where Air Traffic Control is insufficient to ensure separation, in so far as practical between IFR ACFT
73
Q

What is an FIR?

A

Flight Information Region
An airspace of defined dimensions within which flight information services and alerting services are provided

74
Q

What is the objective of a flight information service?

A
  • Provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights
  • Provided by the appropriate ATSUs to all ACFT which are likely to be affected by the information
75
Q

What sort of information is given in a flight information service? (10)

A
  • SIGMET/AIRMET
  • Volcanic activity
  • Toxic/radioactive materials
  • Availability of radio navigation services
  • Changes in condition at ADs and associated facilities
  • Unmanned free balloons
  • Any other information likely to affect flight safety
  • Weather conditions
  • Collision hazards
  • Information on surface vessels
76
Q

Who is an alerting service provided to?

A
  • Provided to all flights known to an Air Traffic Service Unit.
  • Service provided to notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and assist such organisations as required
77
Q

How is airspace classified? (ICAO)

A
  • CLASS A Controlled Airspace
  • CLASS B Controlled Airspace
  • CLASS C Controlled Airspace
  • CLASS D Controlled Airspace
  • CLASS E Controlled Airspace
  • CLASS F Advisory Airspace
  • CLASS G Other Airspace
78
Q

Class A Airspace

A
  • IFR only (VFR not permitted)
  • Separation between all flights
  • ATC clearance
  • Radio comms

N.B. Special VFR treated like IFR

79
Q

Class B Airspace

A
  • IFR and VFR
  • Separation between all flights
  • ATC clearance
  • Radio comms

N.B. No class B airspace in the UK

N.B.B. Special VFR treated like IFR

80
Q

Class C Airspace

A
  • IFR and VFR
  • Separation between all IFR and IFR/VFR
  • VFR/VFR - traffic information plus avoidance on request
  • VFR speed limit 250kts IAS <10000ft AMSL
  • ATC clearance
  • Radio comms

N.B. Special VFR treated like IFR

81
Q

Class D Airspace

A
  • IFR and VFR
  • Separation between IFR with traffic info on VFR and avoidance advice on request
  • Traffic info to VFR on IFR and other VFR and avoidance on request
  • All flights speed limit 250kts IAS <10000ft AMSL
  • ATC clearance
  • Radio comms

N.B. Special VFR treated as IFR

82
Q

Class E Airspace

A

IFR
- Separation from other IFR
- Traffic info on participating and non-participating VFR. Avoidance advice if requested
- ATC clearance and radio comms required for IFR only

VFR
- Traffic info to participating VFR on relevant IFR flights and participating and non participating VFR flights
- VFR pilots are encouraged to contact ATC and comply with instructions

All flights
- Receive traffic information as far as practical
- Speed limit 250kts IAS <10000ft AMSL

N.B. Special VFR treated like IFR

83
Q

Class F Airspace (SERA)

A
  • Advisory service to participating flights
  • IFR and VFR flights permitted
  • ATC Clearance not required
  • All flights receive flight information service if requested
  • Continuous voice comms required for participating IFR and all IFR flights shall be capable of establishing air-ground voice comms
  • All flights speed limit 250kts <10000ft AMSL

N.B. No class F airspace in the UK

84
Q

Class G

A
  • IFR and VFR flights are permitted and receive
    flight information service if requested
  • All IFR flights shall be capable of establishing air- ground voice communications
  • ATC clearance is not required
  • All flights speed limit 250kts IAS <10000ft AMSL
85
Q

Where airspace adjoins vertically the __________ restrictive airspace applies

86
Q

What is an ATZ?

A

Aerodrome Traffic Zone
- Airspace of defined dimensions established around an aerodrome for the protection of aerodrome traffic
- 2NM (RWY less than 1850m) or 2.5NM (RWY longer than 1850m) radius from midpoint
- From the surface to 2000ft agl

87
Q

What is a CTR?

A

Control Zone

  • Controlled airspace which has been further notified as a control zone and extend upwards from the surface
  • Extend to at least 5nm from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the directions from which approached may be made
88
Q

What is a CTA?

A

Control Area
- Controlled airspace which has been further notified as a control area and which extends upwards from a notified altitude or flight level
- Sit on top of some CTRs
- Must encompass sufficient airspace to contain flight paths of IFR flights receiving a service, taking into account navaids available
- Minimum of 700ft agl

89
Q

What is a TMA?

A

Terminal Control Area (Terminal Manoeuvring Area)
- A control area normally established at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes - May encompass a CTA

90
Q

What is an airway?

A
  • A control area, or portion thereof, established in the form of a corridor
  • Vertical extent 5 miles and 10 miles wide
91
Q

What is an ATS route and examples of an ATS route?

A

A specified route designed for channeling the flow of traffic as necessary for the provision of air traffic services
Examples:
- Airways
- Advisory routes
- Arrival and departure routes
- Helicopter main routes
- Link routes
- Supersonic routes

92
Q

How is an ATS route defined?

A

By route specifications which include:
- ATS route designator
- The track to or from significant points (waypoints)
- Distance between significant points
- Reporting requirements
- The lowest safe altitude as determined by appropriate ATS authority

93
Q

What is a CDR?

A

Conditional Route
- ATS routes usable only under specified conditions
- A CDR may have more than 1 category
Three types:
- CAT 1 - Permanently plannable during times published
- CAT 2 - Only plannable in accordance with conditions in daily airspace utilisation plan
- CAT 3 - Not plannable but may be used tactically by ATC

94
Q

What is DRA?

A

Direct Route Airspace
- All routes removed at levels indicated in the AIPto enable direct routing
- Evolving to Free Route Airspace operations
- Saves fuel and reduces CO2 emissions

95
Q

What is a TSA?

A

Temporary Segregated Area
Defined volume of airspace normally under the jurisdiction of one aviation authority and temporarily segregated, by common agreement, for the exclusive use by another aviation authority and through which other traffic will not be allowed to transit

96
Q

What is a TRA?

A

Temporary Reserved Area
Defined volume of airspace normally under the jurisdiction of one aviation authority and temporarily reserved, by common agreement, for the specific use by another aviation authority and through which other traffic may be allowed to transit, under ATC clearance

97
Q

What is an RMZ?

A

Radio Mandatory Zone
- Airspace of defined dimensions wherein the carriage and operation of radio equipment is mandatory
- 2 way comms must be established before entering the RMZ

98
Q

What is a TMZ?

A

Transponder Mandatory Zone
Airspace of defined dimensions within which aircraft are required to carry and operate a Mode S SSR transponder, unless in compliance with alternative provisions prescribed for that particular airspace by the ANSP

99
Q

When are 2 way comms considered to be achieved?

A

When the following have been passed:
- Callsign
- Type
- Position
- Level
- Flight rules
- Intentions
- Received acknowledgement from ATC

100
Q

What ratings can you get on an ATCO licence?

A
  • ADV - Aerodrome Control Visual
  • ADI - Aerodrome Control Instrument
  • APP - Approach Control Procedural
  • APS - Approach Control Surveillance
  • ACP - Area Control Procedural
  • ACS - Area Control Surveillance
101
Q

What rating endorsements are available on an ATCO licence?

A
  • TWR -Tower Control
  • AIR - Air Control
  • GMC - Ground Movement Control
  • GMS - Ground Movement Surveillance
  • RAD - Radar Control
  • TCL - Terminal Control
  • PAR - Precision Approach Radar
  • SRA - Surveillance Radar Approach
  • OCN - Oceanic Control
102
Q

What are the privileges of a Student ATCO licence?

A

Authorised to provide ATC services under the supervision of an OJTI in accordance with the rating and rating(s) endorsement(s) contained in their licence

103
Q

What is needed for the issue of a Student ATCO Licence?

A
  • At least 18 years old
  • Successfully completed initial training
  • Hold a valid medical certificate
  • Demonstrated ICAO Level 4 language proficiency
104
Q

What are the privileges of an ATCO licence?

A
  • Authorised to provide air traffic control services in accordance with the ratings and rating endorsements of their licence, and to exercise the privileges of the endorsements contained therein
  • The privileges of an air traffic controller licence shall
    include the privileges of a student air traffic controller licence
105
Q

What is needed for the issue of an ATCO Licence? (5)

A
  • 21 years of age
  • Hold a Student ATCO licence
  • Completed unit endorsement course and passed appropriate exams and assessments
  • Hold a valid medical certificate
  • Demonstrated an adequate level of language profiency
106
Q

What must appear on an ATCO licence? (14)

A
  • State of issue
  • Title of licence
  • Serial number
  • Full name
  • DOB
  • Address
  • Nationality
  • Signature
  • Competent authority
  • Certification of validity and authorisation for privileges
  • Signature of issuing officer
  • Date of such issue
  • Stamp of competent authority
  • Valid medical certificate

N.B. Bold means our responsibility

107
Q

What are the 3 types of ATCO endorsements?

A
  • Rating endorsements
  • Licence endorsements
  • Unit endorsements
108
Q

What is a rating?

A

Indication of which type of service you have been trained to deliver
- ADV - Aerodrome Control Visual
- ADI - Aerodrome Control Instrument
- APP - Approach Control Procedural
- APS - Approach Control Surveillance
- ACP - Area Control Procedural
- ACS - Area Control Surveillance

109
Q

What is an rating endorsement?

A

Associated with a particular rating, they indicate the task/type of equipment used in the provision on an ATC service
- TWR - Tower Control
- GMC - Ground Movement Control
- GMS - Ground Movement Surveillance
- AIR - Air Control
- RAD - Aerodrome Radar Control
- PAR - Precision Approach Radar
- SRA - Surveillance Radar Approach
- TCL - Terminal Control
- OCN - Oceanic Control

110
Q

What is an OJTI?

A

On the Job Training Instructor
(2+ years experience in rating, refresher every 3)

N.B. Licence endorsement

111
Q

What is an STDI?

A

Synthetic Training Device Instructor
(2+ years experience in rating, refresher every 3)

N.B. Licence endorsement

112
Q

What are the reasons that may lead to action with regard to an ATCOs licence or rating(s)? (3)

A
  • Deficiency in or doubts about competentence to provide an ATC Service
  • Not ‘Fit’ Person - In terms of character and behaviour etc
  • Inability to meet Medical Standards
113
Q

What is provisional inability?

A

Doubts about ATCO being able to safely exercise the privileges of their licence. Either declared personally or by ANSP

114
Q

What are the grounds for declaring provisional inability? (3)

A
  • Under the influence of psychoactive substances
  • Unfit to perform duties due to injury, fatigue, sickness, stress, including critical incident stress or other similar causes
  • Not meeting all competence related requirements set out in the unit competency scheme
115
Q

What are the mechanisms for licensing action?

A
  • Suspension - to place a licence, or its rating(s), in abeyance, with conditions set
    Revocation - the act of withdrawing a licence, or its associated rating(s) - you have to send it back!
116
Q

Can you hold 2 licences?

117
Q

When should you seek aeromedical advice from the AME? (7)

A
  • Have undergone a surgical operation or invasive procedure
  • Have commenced the regular use of any medication
  • Have suffered any significant personal injury involving any incapacity to exercise the privileges of the licence
  • Have been suffering from any significant illness involving any incapacity to exercise the privileges of the licence
  • Are pregnant
  • Have been admitted to hospital or medical clinic
  • First require correcting lenses.

N.B. Situation reviewed on a case by case basis - yes or no to control

118
Q

What is the validity period of a Class 3 Medical?

A
  • 24 months for those under 40
  • 12 months for those 40 and over
119
Q

What is the difference between a medical revalidation and medical renewal?

A
  • Revalidation - Within current Validity period - up to 45 days prior to the expiry date
  • Renewal - Renewing expired Medical
120
Q

What are the medical renewal timeframes?

A
  • Less than 2 Years - Routine Revalidation
  • 2-5 Years - AME Shall Assess
  • 5+ Years - Full Medical
121
Q

What is the European Reporting Portal called?

122
Q

What is an MOR and the timeframe for it?

A

Mandatory Occurrence Report
72 hours

N.B. Runway incursions, bird strike etc. Research further examples

123
Q

What is ICAN?

A

International Commission for Air Navigation

124
Q

What is a controlled aerodrome?

A

Any aerodrome at which an air traffic control service is provided, regardless of whether or not a control zone (CTR) exists

125
Q

An ACFT shall not be operated in a __________ or __________ manner so as not to __________

A

1.) Negligent
2.) Reckless
3.) Endanger life or property of others

N.B. SERA.3101

126
Q

Except when necessary for TKOF and landing, or CAA permission, ACFT shall not be flown…

A

Over congested areas or open-air assembly of persons, unless at such height an emergency landing can be made without undue hazard

N.B. SERA.3105. Glide clear rule! Minimum heights in other SERA.5005(f) (VFR) and SERA.5015(b) (IFR)

127
Q

What must be obtained for dropping or spraying from an ACFT and ACFT/object towing?

A

Permission - i.e. union legislation, national legislation and clearance from appropriate ATSU

128
Q

Formation flights rules

A
  • Assign one Pilot-in-Command as Flight Leader
  • Operate as single a/c with regard to reporting
  • Separation responsibility of pilots
  • Pre-arrangement among pilots in command and in controlled airspace
  • Distance not exceeding 1km longitudinally and 30m vertically from flight leader must be maintained by each ACFT
129
Q

SERA - Right of way

A

FLYING MACHINES shall give way to
AIRSHIPS shall give way to
GLIDERS (SAILPLANES) shall give way to
BALLOONS

130
Q

SERA - Aircraft converging at approximately the same level

A

ACFT gives way to the Right

ACFT which has the right way shall maintain its heading and speed
ACFT obliged to give way shall avoid passing over, under or crossing ahead until well clear

131
Q

SERA - Aircraft approaching head on

A

Both alter course to the right

132
Q

SERA - Overtaking

A
  • Overtaking ACFT shall alter course to the right and remain clear.
  • Sailplane (glider) overtaking another sailplane may alter course left or right.
133
Q

SERA - Landing/TKOF

A
  • ACFT in flight or operating on the ground shall
    give way to landing aircraft or in final stages of an approach to land
  • Where 2 or more are approaching higher gives way but lower shall not cut in or overtake unless they are given clearance to do so by ATC
  • ACFT taking off or about to take off have right of way over ACFT taxiing on the manoeuvring area
134
Q

SERA - Surface Movement - ACFT

A
  • Two ACFT approaching head on - each stop, or alter course to the right to keep well clear
  • Two converging - the one which has the other on its right shall give way.
  • ACFT being overtaken by another has right-of-way - overtaking ACFT keep well clear
  • ACFT shall stop at all runway holding points and/or all lighted stop bars, unless clearance to enter runway given and stop bars turned off
135
Q

SERA - Surface Movement - Vehicles

A
  • Emergency vehicles proceeding to ACFT in distress have priority over all surface traffic
  • Vehicles give way to all ACFT and ACFT under tow
  • Vehicles give way to other vehicles in accordance with ATC instructions
  • Vehicles and vehicles towing ACFT shall comply with ATC instructions
136
Q

ACFT operated on or in the vicinity of an aerodrome shall…(4)

A
  • Observe other aerodrome traffic for the purpose of avoiding collision
  • Conform with or avoid traffic pattern
  • Except for balloons, make all turns to the left, when approaching for a landing and after TKOF, unless otherwise indicated or instructed by ATC
  • Except for balloons, land and TKOF into wind unless safety, RWY config or air traffic considerations determine that a different direction is preferable
137
Q

What lights shall ACFT display during the day?

A

Anti Collision Lights
Helicopter - Flashing Red
Fixed Wing - Flashing Red or White (360 degrees)

N.B. Pilot permitted to switch off or reduce intensity if lights are likely to adversely affect satisfactory performance of duties or subject outside observer to harmful dazzle

138
Q

What lights shall ACFT display at night?

A
  • Anti Collision Lights (Included ACFT under tow)
  • Navigation Lights
  • In the case of balloons, position lights

N.B. In flight and on the ground (movement area)

N.B.B. Pilot permitted to switch off or reduce intensity if lights are likely to adversely affect satisfactory performance of duties or subject outside observer to harmful dazzle

139
Q

Aerobatic flights shall only be carried out in accordance with…

A
  • Union legislation or, where applicable,
    national legislation for aircraft operations
    regulated by Member States

And

  • As indicated by any relevant information,
    advice and/or clearance from the appropriate
    air traffic services unit
140
Q

Unless taking off or landing, or CAA permission, VFR shall not fly…

A

1.) Over congested areas or open air assembly of people at a height less than 300m (1000ft) above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600m from the ACFT

Or

2.) Elsewhere, at a height less than 150m (500ft) above the ground or water, or 150m (500ft) above the highest obstacle within a radius of 150m (500ft) from the ACFT

141
Q

Unless taking off or landing, IFR flights shall not fly…

A

1.) Over high terrain or mountainous area at a height less than 600m (2000ft) above the highest obstacle within 8km of the ACFT

Or

2.) Elsewhere, at a height not less than 300m (1000ft) above the highest obstacle within 8km of the ACFT

142
Q

Even Cruising Levels e.g. FL020, FL040, FL060, etc are assigned to?

A

IFR ACFT on Westbound magnetic tracks (180º - 359º)

N.B. Outside of Controlled Airspace (OCAS)

143
Q

Odd Cruising Levels e.g. FL030, FL050, FL070 are assigned to?

A

IFR ACFT on Eastbound magnetic tracks (360º - 179º)

N.B. Outside of Controlled Airspace (OCAS)

144
Q

VFR Cruising Levels are?

A

As per IFR +500ft

N.B. Outside of controlled airspace

145
Q

Units of Measurement
Vertical distance

A
  • Surface - Feet (FT)
  • In flight - Feet (FT) or Meters (M) depending on country
146
Q

Units of Measurement
Horizontal distance

A
  • Surface - Meters (M)
  • In flight - Nautical Miles (NM)
147
Q

Units of Measurement
Horizontal Speed

A
  • Surface - Kilometers Per Hour (KPH) or Miles Per Hour (MPH) depending on country
  • In flight - Nautical Miles Per Hour (NM/HR)/Knots (KTS)

Or,

  • Relative to local speed of sounds, Mach Number (M No.)
148
Q

Units of Measurement
Vertical Speed

A
  • Rate of Climb (RoC) and Rate of Descent (RoD) usually expressed in Feet Per Minute (FPM)
149
Q

Units of Measurement
Mass - Weight of an ACFT

A
  • Metric Tonnes (T) or kilogrammes (KG)

For wake turbulence separation purposes is expressed in

  • Kilogrammes (KG)
150
Q

Units of Measurement
Mass - Weight of Fuel

A
  • Kilogrammes (KGS)
  • Pounds (lbs)
  • Litres (lts)
151
Q

Units of Measurement
Temperature and Dew Point

A

Degrees Celsius (ºC)

152
Q

Units of Measurement
Air Pressure

A

Hectopascals (hPa)
Inches of Mercury (In.Hg)

N.B. Altimeter

153
Q

SERA - Main rules for ACFT giving way and ACFT who has right of way

A
  • ACFT which has the right way shall maintain its heading and speed
  • ACFT obliged to give way shall avoid passing over, under or crossing ahead until well clear
154
Q

When must anti-collision lights be displayed?

A
  • Day and night
  • In flight
  • ACFT under taxi and tow

Basic (8 decks)

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