Aviation Law 1 Flashcards

Question

What is ICAO Annex 2?

Answer 1

- Rules of the air - General rules, visual flight rules and instrument flight rules and apply without exception over the high seas and over national territories to the extent that they do not conflict with the rules of the State being overflown - Contains standards only. Together with the SARPs of Annex 11 this document governs the application of PANS ATM (Doc 4444) and Doc 7030 - These are incorporated into our MATS Pt1 and ANO

Answer 2

- Aeronautical Information Service - Collect, collate, edit and disseminate aeronautical information necessary for the safety and efficiency of air navigation or for interested parties

Answer 3

- AIP - Aeronautical Information Publication including amendments and supplements - AIC - Aeronautical Information Circular - Aeronautical charts - NOTAM - Digital data sets

Answer 4

Pre-flight information bulletins which pilots use **Contains:** - Edited version of a NOTAM in plain language - Information to cover the first leg of flight - Distributed to airfields by AMHS - Duplicated at airfields to allow collection by pilots - Updated every 4 hours and valid for 12 hours from the time they are produced

Answer 5

- International NOTAM office - Preparation and issue of civil and military NOTAMs via Air Traffic Services Message Handling Services (AMHS) - Receiving/transmitting information from/to international NOTAM offices - Dissemination of AIS date to enable the production of PIBs

Answer 6

- Notice to Airmen - Cover short duration or temporary changes or short notice permanent change - Distributed to stations via AMHS

Answer 7

- Each allocated a series, identified by a letter and a 4 digit number, followed by a stroke and a 2 digit year so that addressees may check continuity - Series A - General, enroute navigation and communication facilities, UIR airspace restrictions and activities and information concerning major international aerodromes - Series B - FIR airspace restrictions, activities and on other international aerodromes where IFR flights are permitted - Series C - VFR only international aerodromes - Series D - National aerodromes - Series E - Heliports N.B. Need to be able to decode a NOTAM

Answer 8

NOTAM**N** - New information NOTAM**R** - Replaces previous NOTAM NOTAM**C** - Cancels previous NOTAM

Answer 9

The AIP and NOTAMs N.B. To notify and notified means that information has been published in the nations own AIP N.B.B. Through the above, any stakeholder can find the nations methods of complying with the regulations (ICAO SARPs)

Answer 10

Part 1 - General (GEN) Part 2 - Enroute (ENR) Part 3 - Aerodromes (AD)

Answer 11

- Contents and record of amendments and supplements - Details of national regulations and requirements - National regulations - Differences from ICAO - Tables, codes and time system - Location indicators - Sunset and sunrise times - Details of services available - AIS - ATS - Communications - Meteorological - Search and Rescue

Answer 12

- Contents - Aerodrome/Heliport Introduction - Aerodromes - Location Indicators - Geographical & administrative - General detail including airspace, ATS, SAR and AIDS - Heliports (Same organisation as for aerodromes)

Answer 13

Static data office

Answer 14

**Maintains records of all aviation facilities in order to prepare the Integrated Aeronautical Information Package (IAIP) - consists of:** - AIP and amendment service (AIRAC/Non-AIRAC permanent changes) - AIP Supplements - AICs - AIS website

Answer 15

**Aeronautical Information Regulation And Control** - AIRAC cycles are every **28 days** - Amendments may contain AIRAC and Non-AIRAC changes - AIP contains dates of AIRAC cycles - Distributed by AIS unit at least **42 days** in advance of the effective date, reaching recipients at least **28 days** before - Major changes - Publication at least **56 days** of effective date

Answer 16

- DOC 7300 convention of International Civil Aviation - Annexes to the Convention. (with SARPs) - There are 19 annexes - DOC 4444: PANS.RAC/Rules of the Air and Air Traffic Services - DOC 8400: PANS.ABC/ICAO Abbreviations and Codes - DOC 8168: PANS.OPS/Operations of Aircraft - DOC 7030: Regional Supplementary Procedures - Reports of the Technical Divisions of the Air Navigation Commission - Information Circulars - Training Manuals

Answer 17

**Procedures for Air Navigation Services** - Supplementary to the appropriate ICAO Annexes (2 and 11) - Approved by the ICAO council 2/3 majority N.B.B. DOC 4444 PANS Air Traffic Management

Answer 18

- Procedures for Air Navigation Services Air Traffic Management - International HOW TO of air traffic control - progressive evolution of procedures since 1946 - Complementary to SARPs in Annex 2 and 11 - Supplemented by DOC 7030 (EUR Regional Supplementary Procedures) - Specifies in more detail than SARPs the actual procedures for ATSUs - Recommended document worldwide, however, the EU have through 2015/240 made it legally binding

Answer 19

- Safety Management - ATS capacity and Flow management - Provisions for ATS - Separation Methods - Procedures for Aerodrome Control, ATS surveillance, Flight Information and Alerting services - Coordination / Phraseology - ADS/CPDLC - Emergencies

Answer 20

- Regional Supplementary Procedures - it pertains to the European region only - Does not have the same status as SARPs

Answer 21

Annexes contain the SARPs as adopted by the ICAO council with a two thirds majority

Answer 22

Law which is pertinent to the rest of Europe but not the UK

Answer 23

Used when flexibility is needed through the use on non-binding standards

Answer 24

A binding legislative act, applied in its entirety across the EU

Answer 25

A legislative act that sets out a goal that all EU countries must achieve N.B. Up to individual countries to devise their own laws on how to reach these goals

Answer 26

Binding on those to whom it is addressed (e.g. an EU country or an individual company). Is directly applicable

Answer 27

Non-binding

Answer 28

Non-binding

Answer 29

Regulation/implementing regulations - Binding - **Hard law** Acceptable Means of Compliance and guidance material - Non-binding - **Soft law** Certification Specifications - Non-binding - **Soft law**

Answer 30

- ATCO licence will be issued in accordance with this - Also allowed the national authority (CAA in the UK) to revoke, suspend or vary any certificate, licence or other documents

Answer 31

**Acceptable Means of Compliance** Non-binding standards adopted by EASA to illustrate means to establish compliance with the basic regulation and its implementing rules

Answer 32

**Alternative Means of Compliance** Ways to adhere to prescribed AMCs but in an organisations own interpretation

Answer 33

- Standard European Rules of the Air (SERA) - Written by EASA and designed to achieved common rules of the air for all EU states - UK still abides by this with some differences

Answer 34

- GEN 1 National Regulations and Requirements - GEN 2 Tables and Codes - GEN 3 Services - GEN 4 Charges for Aerodromes/Heliports and Air Navigation Services

Answer 35

- ENR 0 - Contents - ENR 1 General Rules & Procedures - ENR 2 ATS Airspace - ENR 3 ATS Routes - ENR 4 Radio Nav. Aids & Systems - ENR 5 Navigation Warnings - ENR 6 En-Route Charts

Answer 36

- AD 1 Aerodromes/Heliports Introduction - AD 2 Aerodromes (Specific) - AD 3 Heliports

Answer 37

Normally contain items of a temporary nature only

Answer 38

Every 28 days just like the normal AIRAC cycle

Answer 39

- White - Administration - Pink - Safety - Yellow - Operations/ATS - Green - Maps/Charts - Mauve - UK Restriction Charts N.B. Classic exam question

Answer 40

- ATM - Air traffic management - CNS - Communication, Navigation and Surveillance - MET - Meteorological Services for Air Navigation - SAR - Search and Rescue - AIS - Aeronautical Information Services ACMSA N.B. Provided through Air Traffic Services (ATS)

Answer 41

- Type of air traffic involved - Density of air traffic - Meteorological conditions - Such other factors as may be relevant N.B. Classic exam question

Answer 42

- Air Traffic Control Service - Air Traffic Advisory Service - Flight Information Service - Alerting Service N.B. Classic exam question which may also be asked in ATM

Answer 43

- Prevent collisions between ACFT **(ATC Service)** - Prevent collisions between ACFT on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area **(ATC Service)** - Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic **(ATC Service)** - Provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights **(Advisory Service and Flight Information Service)** - Notify appropriate organisations regarding ACFT in need of search and rescue aid and assist such organisations as required **(Alerting Service)** N.B. Classic exam question throughout life

Answer 44

- IFR flights in airspace classes A, B, C, D and E - VFR flights in airspace classes B, C and D - Special VFR flights - Aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodromes N.B. SERA.8001 Application N.B.B. Absolutely need to know this

Answer 45

- All traffic on manoeuvring area of an AD - All ACFT flying in vicinity of an AD - An ACFT operating in vicinity of an AD includes but is not limited to ACFT entering or leaving an AD traffic circuit

Answer 46

- Be provided with information on intended movement and current information on actual progress of each ACFT - Determine from information received, relative positions of known ACFT to each other - Issue clearance and information for the purpose of preventing collisions between ACFT under its control and of expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic - Coordinate clearances as necessary with other units whenever an ACFT might otherwise conflict with traffic operated under the control of other such units and before transferring control of an ACFT to other such units

Answer 47

- Provide advise and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights - To make information on collision hazards more effective than it would be in the mere provision of flight information service - Within advisory airspace/routes where Air Traffic Control is insufficient to ensure separation, in so far as practical between IFR ACFT

Answer 48

**Flight Information Region** An airspace of defined dimensions within which flight information services and alerting services are provided

Answer 49

- Provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights - Provided by the appropriate ATSUs to all ACFT which are likely to be affected by the information

Answer 50

- SIGMET/AIRMET - Volcanic activity - Toxic/radioactive materials - Availability of radio navigation services - Changes in condition at ADs and associated facilities - Unmanned free balloons - Any other information likely to affect flight safety - Weather conditions - Collision hazards - Information on surface vessels

Answer 51

- Provided to all flights known to an Air Traffic Service Unit. - Service provided to notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and assist such organisations as required

Answer 52

- CLASS A Controlled Airspace - CLASS B Controlled Airspace - CLASS C Controlled Airspace - CLASS D Controlled Airspace - CLASS E Controlled Airspace - CLASS F Advisory Airspace - CLASS G Other Airspace

Answer 53

- IFR only (VFR not permitted) - Separation between all flights - ATC clearance - Radio comms N.B. Special VFR treated like IFR

Answer 54

- IFR and VFR - Separation between all flights - ATC clearance - Radio comms N.B. No class B airspace in the UK N.B.B. Special VFR treated like IFR

Answer 55

- IFR and VFR - Separation between all IFR and IFR/VFR - VFR/VFR - traffic information plus avoidance on request - VFR speed limit 250kts IAS <10000ft AMSL - ATC clearance - Radio comms N.B. Special VFR treated like IFR

Answer 56

- IFR and VFR - Separation between IFR with traffic info on VFR and avoidance advice on request - Traffic info to VFR on IFR and other VFR and avoidance on request - All flights speed limit 250kts IAS <10000ft AMSL - ATC clearance - Radio comms N.B. Special VFR treated as IFR

Answer 57

**IFR** - Separation from other IFR - Traffic info on participating and non-participating VFR. Avoidance advice if requested - ATC clearance and radio comms required for IFR only **VFR** - Traffic info to participating VFR on relevant IFR flights and participating and non participating VFR flights - VFR pilots are encouraged to contact ATC and comply with instructions **All flights** - Receive traffic information as far as practical - Speed limit 250kts IAS <10000ft AMSL N.B. Special VFR treated like IFR

Answer 58

- Advisory service to participating flights - IFR and VFR flights permitted - ATC Clearance not required - All flights receive flight information service if requested - Continuous voice comms required for participating IFR and all IFR flights shall be capable of establishing air-ground voice comms - All flights speed limit 250kts <10000ft AMSL N.B. No class F airspace in the UK

Answer 59

- IFR and VFR flights are permitted and receive flight information service if requested - All IFR flights shall be capable of establishing air- ground voice communications - ATC clearance is not required - All flights speed limit 250kts IAS <10000ft AMSL

Answer 60

**Aerodrome Traffic Zone** - Airspace of defined dimensions established around an aerodrome for the protection of aerodrome traffic - 2NM (RWY less than 1850m) or 2.5NM (RWY longer than 1850m) radius from midpoint - From the surface to 2000ft agl

Answer 61

**Control Zone** - Controlled airspace which has been further notified as a control zone and extend upwards from the surface - Extend to at least 5nm from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the directions from which approached may be made

Answer 62

**Control Area** - Controlled airspace which has been further notified as a control area and which extends upwards from a notified altitude or flight level - Sit on top of some CTRs - Must encompass sufficient airspace to contain flight paths of IFR flights receiving a service, taking into account navaids available - Minimum of 700ft agl

Answer 63

**Terminal Control Area (Terminal Manoeuvring Area)** - A control area normally established at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes - May encompass a CTA

Answer 64

- A control area, or portion thereof, established in the form of a corridor - Vertical extent 5 miles and 10 miles wide

Answer 65

**A specified route designed for channeling the flow of traffic as necessary for the provision of air traffic services** Examples: - Airways - Advisory routes - Arrival and departure routes - Helicopter main routes - Link routes - Supersonic routes

Answer 66

**By route specifications which include:** - ATS route designator - The track to or from significant points (waypoints) - Distance between significant points - Reporting requirements - The lowest safe altitude as determined by appropriate ATS authority

Answer 67

**Conditional Route** - ATS routes usable only under specified conditions - A CDR may have more than 1 category **Three types:** - CAT 1 - Permanently plannable during times published - CAT 2 - Only plannable in accordance with conditions in daily airspace utilisation plan - CAT 3 - Not plannable but may be used tactically by ATC

Answer 68

**Direct Route Airspace** - All routes removed at levels indicated in the AIPto enable direct routing - Evolving to Free Route Airspace operations - Saves fuel and reduces CO2 emissions

Answer 69

**Temporary Segregated Area** Defined volume of airspace normally under the jurisdiction of one aviation authority and **temporarily segregated**, by common agreement, for the exclusive use by another aviation authority and through which **other traffic will not be allowed to transit**

Answer 70

**Temporary Reserved Area** Defined volume of airspace normally under the jurisdiction of one aviation authority and **temporarily reserved**, by common agreement, for the specific use by another aviation authority and through which **other traffic may be allowed to transit, under ATC clearance**

Answer 71

**Radio Mandatory Zone** - Airspace of defined dimensions wherein the carriage and operation of radio equipment is mandatory - 2 way comms must be established before entering the RMZ

Answer 72

**Transponder Mandatory Zone** Airspace of defined dimensions within which aircraft are required to carry and operate a Mode S SSR transponder, unless in compliance with alternative provisions prescribed for that particular airspace by the ANSP

Answer 73

**When the following have been passed:** - Callsign - Type - Position - Level - Flight rules - Intentions - Received acknowledgement from ATC

Answer 74

- ADV - Aerodrome Control Visual - ADI - Aerodrome Control Instrument - APP - Approach Control Procedural - APS - Approach Control Surveillance - ACP - Area Control Procedural - ACS - Area Control Surveillance

Answer 75

- TWR -Tower Control - AIR - Air Control - GMC - Ground Movement Control - GMS - Ground Movement Surveillance - RAD - Radar Control - TCL - Terminal Control - PAR - Precision Approach Radar - SRA - Surveillance Radar Approach - OCN - Oceanic Control

Answer 76

Authorised to provide ATC services under the supervision of an OJTI in accordance with the rating and rating(s) endorsement(s) contained in their licence

Answer 77

- At least 18 years old - Successfully completed initial training - Hold a valid medical certificate - Demonstrated ICAO Level 4 language proficiency

Answer 78

- Authorised to provide air traffic control services in accordance with the ratings and rating endorsements of their licence, and to exercise the privileges of the endorsements contained therein - The privileges of an air traffic controller licence shall include the privileges of a student air traffic controller licence

Answer 79

- 21 years of age - Hold a Student ATCO licence - Completed unit endorsement course and passed appropriate exams and assessments - Hold a valid medical certificate - Demonstrated an adequate level of language profiency

Answer 80

- State of issue - Title of licence - Serial number - Full name - DOB - Address - Nationality - **Signature** - Competent authority - Certification of validity and authorisation for privileges - Signature of issuing officer - Date of such issue - Stamp of competent authority - **Valid medical certificate** N.B. Bold means our responsibility

Answer 81

- Rating endorsements - Licence endorsements - Unit endorsements

Answer 82

**Indication of which type of service you have been trained to deliver** - ADV - Aerodrome Control Visual - ADI - Aerodrome Control Instrument - APP - Approach Control Procedural - APS - Approach Control Surveillance - ACP - Area Control Procedural - ACS - Area Control Surveillance

Answer 83

**Associated with a particular rating, they indicate the task/type of equipment used in the provision on an ATC service** - TWR - Tower Control - GMC - Ground Movement Control - GMS - Ground Movement Surveillance - AIR - Air Control - RAD - Aerodrome Radar Control - PAR - Precision Approach Radar - SRA - Surveillance Radar Approach - TCL - Terminal Control - OCN - Oceanic Control

Answer 84

**On the Job Training Instructor** (2+ years experience in rating, refresher every 3) N.B. Licence endorsement

Answer 85

**Synthetic Training Device Instructor** (2+ years experience in rating, refresher every 3) N.B. Licence endorsement

Answer 86

- Deficiency in or doubts about competentence to provide an ATC Service - Not ‘Fit’ Person - In terms of character and behaviour etc - Inability to meet Medical Standards

Answer 87

Doubts about ATCO being able to safely exercise the privileges of their licence. Either declared personally or by ANSP

Answer 88

- Under the influence of psychoactive substances - Unfit to perform duties due to injury, fatigue, sickness, stress, including critical incident stress or other similar causes - Not meeting all competence related requirements set out in the unit competency scheme

Answer 89

- **Suspension** - to place a licence, or its rating(s), in abeyance, with conditions set **Revocation** - the act of withdrawing a licence, or its associated rating(s) - you have to send it back!

Answer 90

- Have undergone a surgical operation or invasive procedure - Have commenced the regular use of any medication - Have suffered any significant personal injury involving any incapacity to exercise the privileges of the licence - Have been suffering from any significant illness involving any incapacity to exercise the privileges of the licence - Are pregnant - Have been admitted to hospital or medical clinic - First require correcting lenses. N.B. Situation reviewed on a case by case basis - yes or no to control

Answer 91

- 24 months for those under 40 - 12 months for those 40 and over

Answer 92

- Revalidation - Within current Validity period - up to 45 days prior to the expiry date - Renewal - Renewing expired Medical

Answer 93

- Less than 2 Years - Routine Revalidation - 2-5 Years - AME Shall Assess - 5+ Years - Full Medical

Answer 94

**Mandatory Occurrence Report** 72 hours N.B. Runway incursions, bird strike etc. Research further examples

Answer 95

**International Commission for Air Navigation**

Answer 96

Any aerodrome at which an air traffic control service is provided, regardless of whether or not a control zone (CTR) exists

Answer 97

1.) Negligent 2.) Reckless 3.) Endanger life or property of others N.B. SERA.3101

Answer 98

Over congested areas or open-air assembly of persons, unless at such height an emergency landing can be made without undue hazard N.B. SERA.3105. Glide clear rule! Minimum heights in other SERA.5005(f) (VFR) and SERA.5015(b) (IFR)

Answer 99

Permission - i.e. union legislation, national legislation and clearance from appropriate ATSU

Answer 100

- Assign one Pilot-in-Command as Flight Leader - Operate as single a/c with regard to reporting - Separation responsibility of pilots - Pre-arrangement among pilots in command and in controlled airspace - Distance not exceeding 1km longitudinally and 30m vertically from flight leader must be maintained by each ACFT

Answer 101

**FLYING MACHINES** shall give way to **AIRSHIPS** shall give way to **GLIDERS (SAILPLANES)** shall give way to **BALLOONS**

Answer 102

ACFT gives way to the Right ACFT which has the right way shall maintain its heading and speed ACFT obliged to give way shall avoid passing over, under or crossing ahead until well clear

Answer 103

Both alter course to the right

Answer 104

- Overtaking ACFT shall alter course to the right and remain clear. - Sailplane (glider) overtaking another sailplane may alter course left or right.

Answer 105

- ACFT in flight or operating on the ground shall give way to landing aircraft or in final stages of an approach to land - Where 2 or more are approaching higher gives way but lower shall not cut in or overtake unless they are given clearance to do so by ATC - ACFT taking off or about to take off have right of way over ACFT taxiing on the manoeuvring area

Answer 106

- Two ACFT approaching head on - each stop, or alter course to the right to keep well clear - Two converging - the one which has the other on its right shall give way. - ACFT being overtaken by another has right-of-way - overtaking ACFT keep well clear - ACFT shall stop at all runway holding points and/or all lighted stop bars, unless clearance to enter runway given and stop bars turned off

Answer 107

- Emergency vehicles proceeding to ACFT in distress have priority over all surface traffic - Vehicles give way to all ACFT and ACFT under tow - Vehicles give way to other vehicles in accordance with ATC instructions - Vehicles and vehicles towing ACFT shall comply with ATC instructions

Answer 108

- Observe other aerodrome traffic for the purpose of avoiding collision - Conform with or avoid traffic pattern - Except for balloons, make all turns to the left, when approaching for a landing and after TKOF, unless otherwise indicated or instructed by ATC - Except for balloons, land and TKOF into wind unless safety, RWY config or air traffic considerations determine that a different direction is preferable

Answer 109

**Anti Collision Lights** Helicopter - Flashing Red Fixed Wing - Flashing Red or White (360 degrees) N.B. Pilot permitted to switch off or reduce intensity if lights are likely to adversely affect satisfactory performance of duties or subject outside observer to harmful dazzle

Answer 110

- Anti Collision Lights (Included ACFT under tow) - Navigation Lights - In the case of balloons, position lights N.B. In flight and on the ground (movement area) N.B.B. Pilot permitted to switch off or reduce intensity if lights are likely to adversely affect satisfactory performance of duties or subject outside observer to harmful dazzle

Answer 111

- Union legislation or, where applicable, national legislation for aircraft operations regulated by Member States And - As indicated by any relevant information, advice and/or clearance from the appropriate air traffic services unit

Answer 112

1.) Over congested areas or open air assembly of people at a height less than 300m (**1000ft**) above the highest obstacle within a radius of **600m** from the ACFT Or 2.) Elsewhere, at a height less than 150m (**500ft**) above the ground or water, or 150m (**500ft**) above the highest obstacle within a radius of **150m** (500ft) from the ACFT

Answer 113

1.) Over high terrain or mountainous area at a height less than 600m (**2000ft**) above the highest obstacle within **8km** of the ACFT Or 2.) Elsewhere, at a height not less than 300m (**1000ft**) above the highest obstacle within **8km** of the ACFT

Answer 114

IFR ACFT on Westbound magnetic tracks (180º - 359º) N.B. Outside of Controlled Airspace (OCAS)

Answer 115

IFR ACFT on Eastbound magnetic tracks (360º - 179º) N.B. Outside of Controlled Airspace (OCAS)

Answer 116

As per IFR +500ft N.B. Outside of controlled airspace

Answer 117

- Surface - Feet (FT) - In flight - Feet (FT) or Meters (M) depending on country

Answer 118

- Surface - Meters (M) - In flight - Nautical Miles (NM)

Answer 119

- Surface - Kilometers Per Hour (KPH) or Miles Per Hour (MPH) depending on country - In flight - Nautical Miles Per Hour (NM/HR)/Knots (KTS) Or, - Relative to local speed of sounds, Mach Number (M No.)

Answer 120

- Rate of Climb (RoC) and Rate of Descent (RoD) usually expressed in Feet Per Minute (FPM)

Answer 121

- Metric Tonnes (T) or kilogrammes (KG) For wake turbulence separation purposes is expressed in - Kilogrammes (KG)

Answer 122

- Kilogrammes (KGS) - Pounds (lbs) - Litres (lts)

Answer 123

Degrees Celsius (ºC)

Answer 124

Hectopascals (hPa) Inches of Mercury (In.Hg) N.B. Altimeter

Answer 125

- ACFT which has the right way shall maintain its heading and speed - ACFT obliged to give way shall avoid passing over, under or crossing ahead until well clear

Answer 126

- Day and night - In flight - ACFT under taxi and tow