Air Traffic Management Flashcards

1
Q

What is an Air Traffic Service?

A

A generic term meaning variously

  • Air Traffic Control Service
  • Air Traffic Advisory Service
  • Flight Information Service
  • Alerting Service
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2
Q

What other services comprise an Air Traffic Control Service?

A
  • Area Control Service - Provided for controlled flights in control areas. With or without use of surveillance equipment
  • Approach Control Service - Provided for arriving or departing controlled flights. With or without use of surveillance equipment
  • Aerodrome Control Service - Provided for aerodrome traffic. With or without assistance from Aerodrome Traffic Monitor and/or surface movement radar

N.B. Surveillance equipment may be either primary, secondary, ADS or a mixture of all 3

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3
Q

What is the purpose of an Air Traffic Control Service?

A
  • Prevent collisions between ACFT
  • Prevent collisions between ACFT on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area
  • Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic
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4
Q

Who shall an Air Traffic Control Service be provided to?

A
  • All IFR flights in airspace classed A, B, C, D and E
  • All VFR flights in airspace classes B, C and D
  • All Special VFR flights
  • All aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodromes
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5
Q

What is a Flight Information Centre?

A

A unit established to provide Flight Information Service and Alerting Service

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6
Q

What is a Flight Information Service?

A

A service provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights

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7
Q

Who shall a Flight Information Service be provided to?

A

All ACFT which are likely to be affected by the information and which are:

  • Provided with an ATC Service

Or

  • Otherwise known to relevant ATSUs

N.B. Does not relieve pilot-in-command of responsibilities - they make final decision regarding any suggested alteration of flight plan

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8
Q

What shall a Flight Information Service include provision of? (10)

A
  • SIGMET and AIRMET
  • Pre-eruption volcanic activity, eruptions and ash-cloud
  • Release of radioactive material or toxic chemicals into the atmosphere
  • Changes in availability of radio navigational services
  • Changes in condition of aerodromes and associated facilities, including state of aerodrome movement areas when they are affected by snow, ice or significant depth of water
  • Unmanned free a balloons
  • Weather conditions reported or forecast at departure, destination and alternate aerodromes
  • Collision hazards to ACFT operating in airspace classes C, D, E, F and G
  • Surface vessels in the area (flights over water)
  • Anything else likely to affect safety

N.B. VFR flights in addition to above, info concerning traffic and weather conditions along route of flight that are likely to make VFR impracticable

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9
Q

Where is a Flight Information Service provided?

A
  • In a Flight Information Region by a Flight Information Centre unless responsibility assigned to ATC unit with adequate facilities
  • By relevant ATC unit within controlled airspace and at controlled aerodromes
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10
Q

What are the methods of disseminating information to ACFT?

A
  • Direct transmission - receipt acknowledged
  • A general call - unacknowledged transmission to all ACFT concerned
  • Broadcast
  • Datalink

N.B. Use of general call should be limited to when necessary to disseminate essential information to several ACFT without delay

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11
Q

What is a VOLMET?

A
  • MET Info for ACFT in flight
  • Contains TAF, SIGMET and METAR for published list of aerodromes
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12
Q

What is an ATIS and its contents (15)

A

Automatic Terminal Information Service

  • Automatic provision of current, routine information to arriving and departing ACFT throughout 24 hour period or specific portion thereof
  • Transmitted via datalink (D-ATIS) or by voice on a loop

Contents

  1. NAME of aerodrome
  2. Arrival and/or departure INDICATOR
  3. Contract TYPE, if communication is via D-ATIS
  4. DESIGNATOR
  5. TIME of observation
  6. Type of APPROACH to be expected
  7. RWY in use, status of arresting system constituting a potential hazard
  8. Significant RWY surface CONDITIONS and if appropriate, BRAKING ACTION
  9. Holding DELAY if appropriate
  10. TRANSITION LEVEL
  11. Other ESSENTIAL operational INFORMATION
  12. Current METAR
  13. Any available information on SIGNIFICANT METEOROLOGICAL PHENOMENA in the approach and climb out areas including wind shear, and information on weather of operational significance
  14. TREND FORECAST when available
  15. SPECIFIC ATIS instructions

N.B. Contents must be remembered in the order listed

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13
Q

What is the purpose of an alerting service and who is it provided to?

A

Provided to notify appropriate organisations regarding ACFT in need of SAR aid and assist such organisations as required

Provided by ATSUs to:

  • All ACFT provided with Air Traffic Control Service
  • In so far as practicable, all other ACFT having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to ATS
  • Any ACFT known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference
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14
Q

What is an Air Traffic Advisory Service?

A

A service provided within Advisory airspace to ensure separation, insofar as practicable, between ACFT operating on IFR flight plans

N.B. Advisory airspace is an airspace of defined dimensions, or designated route within which an advisory service is available

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15
Q

What is an Advisory Route?

A

A designated route along which air traffic advisory service is available

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16
Q

What is the objective on an Air Traffic Advisory Service?

A

To make information on collision hazards more effective than it would be in the mere provision of Flight information service (FIS)

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17
Q

An Air Traffic Advisory Service shall only be implemented where…

A
  • ATS inadequate for providing and Air Traffic Control Service
  • Limited advice on collision hazards provided by FIS will not meet requirement

N.B. Should be considered temporary until Air Traffic Control Service can replace it. Generally MAX 3 years

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18
Q

What shall an ATSU providing an Air Traffic Advisory Service advise ACFT to do, what shall their judgement be based on and what limitations should be considered?

A

Advise ACFT to

  • Depart at time specified
  • Cruise at levels indicated in the flight plan if it does not foresee conflict with other known traffic

Judgement based on - Criteria laid down for ACFT operating in controlled airspace

Consider limitations of - Service itself, navigation facilities and air-ground communications

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19
Q

What additional functions may be provided in provision of approach control service using position indicators presented on a situation display?

A
  • Vectoring of arriving traffic onto pilot interpreted final approach aids
  • Flight path monitoring of parallel ILS approaches and instruct ACFT to take appropriate action in event of possible or actual penetrations of the no transgression zone (NTZ)
  • Vectoring of arriving traffic to a point from which a visual approach can be completed
  • Vectoring of arriving traffic to a point from which a precision radar approach or a surveillance radar approach can be made
  • Flight path monitoring of other pilot-interpreted approaches
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20
Q

What is usually, the minimum horizontal separation based on radar and/or ADS-B and/or MLAT systems?

A

5nm

N.B. Can be reduced to 3nm or 2.5nm when certain conditions are met

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21
Q

When can minimum horizontal separation be reduced to 3nm?

A

When radar and/or ADS-B and/or MLAT systems capabilities at a given location permit

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22
Q

When can minimum horizontal separation be reduced to 2.5nm?

A

2.5nm between succeeding ACFT which are established on same final approach track within 10nm of RWY THR

Subject to

  • AIP - Must be published here
  • BRAKING - action good
  • AWARENESS - of need to exit RWY quickly (ACFT operator and pilot)
  • CONTAMINANTS - RWY not adversely affected
  • UPDATE - every 5 seconds on surveillance system
  • SPEEDS - (Approach) monitored
  • WAKE TURBULENCE - If distance-based minima do not apply
  • OCCUPANCY - of RWY when landing does not exceed average of 50 seconds
  • OBSERVE - RWY, Exits and Entry (Controller)

N.B. ABACUS WOO!

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23
Q

What are the main Ground Based Safety Net Systems and where can they be based?

A
  • Short Term Conflict Alert (STCA)
  • Medium Term Conflict Detection (MTCD)
  • Runway Incursion Tools e.g. RIMCAS and A-SMGCS

Can be Area, Approach or Tower based

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24
Q

What is STCA?

A

Short Term Conflict Alert
Warns when minimum separation distances between any pair of radar tracks is, or is predicted to be violated, within a short period (usually 2 minutes)

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25
Q

Compare Short Term Conflict Alert (STCA), Tactical Controller Tool (TCT) and Medium Term Conflict Detection (MTCD) in terms of Look Ahead Time, Input and what they are used as

A

STCA:
Look Ahead Time - Usually 1-2 minutes
Input - Surveillance date
Used As - Safety net

TCT:
Look Ahead Time - Up to 5-8 minutes
Input - Surveillance and/or flight path data
Used As - Conflict resolution and clearance verification tool (informs if the current clearance results in a breach)

MTCD:
Look Ahead Time - Up to 20 minutes
Input - Flight plan data and controller input (clearances)
Used As - Planning tool consisting of Trajectory Prediction, Conflict Detection, Trajectory Update, Trajectory Edition

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26
Q

Define Identification with respect to PSR and SSR

A

PSR

The situation which exists when the position indication of a particular ACFT is seen on a situation display and is positively identified

SSR

Correlating a particular position indication with a specific ACFT target by means of laid down procedures

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27
Q

Define Radar Map

A

Information superimposed on a situation display to provide ready identification of selected features

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28
Q

Define Video Mapping

A

The electronic superimposing of a map or plan on a situation display

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29
Q

What are the PSR methods of identification? (3)

A
  • Turn Method
  • Departing ACFT Method
  • Position Report Method
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30
Q

How does the Turn Method of PSR identification work?

A
  • Ascertain ACFT heading and observe track for period of time
  • Correlate observed movement with acknowledged execution of instruction to alter heading by at least 30º
  • Turn Method 1 - One or more changes of heading by at least 30º as instructed by controller
  • Turn Method 2 - One or more change of heading of at least 30º as reported by pilot
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31
Q

What are the Considerations (5) and Cautions (3) associated with the PSR Turn Method to identify an ACFT?

A

Considerations

  • Terrain
  • PSR coverage
  • Other surveillance returns
  • Rules of the air
  • Proximity of controlled airspace boundary

Caution

  • Turn for identification does not constitute provision of a surveillance service
  • Verify that movements of not more than one position indication match those of the ACFT
  • When using this method in areas where ACFT commonly make changes of heading for navigational purposes (e.g. at a VOR)
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32
Q

How does the Departing ACFT Method of PSR identification work?

A
  • Observe and correlate position indication of departing ACFT to a known airborne time
  • Must be within 1nm of the end of the RWY used unless otherwise authorised by authority (in some states)
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33
Q

What are the Cautions (4) associated with the PSR Departing ACFT Method to identify an ACFT?

A

Take care to avoid confusion with ACFT:
- Overflying the airfield
- Making a missed approach
- Departing from adjacent RWY
- Holding overhead the airfield

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34
Q

How does the Position Report Method of PSR identification work?

A

Correlating particular radar position indication with ACFT reporting position over, or as bearing and distance from point shown on the situation display

And

By ascertaining that track is consistent with ACFT path or reported heading

Reported position must be within PSR coverage

N.B. - Use alternative method if there is any doubt concerning identification

N.B.B. Point refers to a geographical point suitable for purposes of identification. Normally a reporting point

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35
Q

What conditions may the appropriate ATS authority prescribe when using the PSR Position Report Method to identify an ACFT? (2)

A

Level or levels above which it may not be applied in respect of specified navaids

Or

A distance from the radar site beyond which it may not be applied

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36
Q

How can misidentification occur? (4)

A
  • Incorrect assumptions concerning identity
  • Identification procedures not correctly applied
  • Turn Method - two ACFT make co-incident turns
  • Pilot makes inaccurate position report which coincides with position of another ACFT
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37
Q

What should the ATCO do if they misidentify/lose identity of an ACFT? (6)

A
  • Tell pilot and instruct to resume own navigation
  • Climb ACFT to a safe level if necessary
  • Provide vertical separation from other ACFT and pass essential traffic information
  • Continue to search for ACFT
  • Make use of Direction finding (DF) facilities (triangulation)
  • Cancel any descent clearance and advise pilot to climb back to original level

N.B. Pilot shall be informed whenever identification is lost

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38
Q

What is an Exact Reporting Point
Give 3 examples of one

A

A position established by a navigational facility

Examples

  • Overhead a VOR or NDB
  • A notified fix defined by VOR radials or a VOR radial and a bearing from an NDB
  • A position defined by a VOR radial and a range from a co-located DME
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39
Q

What does PSR and SSR stand for?

A
  • Primary Surveillance Radar
  • Secondary Surveillance Radar
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40
Q

What is Radar Contact?

A

The situation which exists when the radar position symbol of a particular ACFT is seen and identified on a situation display

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41
Q

What is Validation and how is it achieved?

A

Checking that the correct code has been selected by pilot and is shown on situation display

Achieved by

  • Instructing ACFT to squawk assigned code and
    observe that correct numbers appear on the
    situation display
  • Instructing ACFT to “squawk ident” and
    simultaneously checking that code numbers
    associated with radar return are correct
  • Matching previously identified primary radar return with the assigned code for the flight

N.B. It is possible to achieve identification and validation simultaneously

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42
Q

What must you do if you allocate a squawk?

A

Validate and verify it

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43
Q

What is Correlation?

A

By means of a radar processor, SSR data may be correlated with stored flight plan data, enabling a code / callsign conversion to take place

N.B. Without correct validation procedures carried out, the resulting correlation could give rise to incorrect data being displayed

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44
Q

What is Verification and how is it achieved?

A
  • Check to confirm that ACFTs Mode C read out is accurate within agreed parameters
  • Strict guidelines concerning the use of Mode C data which vary according to whether the readout is verified or not

How it is achieved

  • If necessary with assistance of another ATSU
  • If in error, request pilot to check altimeter setting and confirm level
  • If still in error, “Stop Squawk Altitude” or “Stop squawk Altitude, wrong indication, Squawk 0000”– to indicate a data error (if independent switching of Mode C is not possible)
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45
Q

What is Mode A SSR data used for?

A

To identify an ACFT

Following identification, outside controlled airspace, controller shall inform pilot that ACFT has been identified

N.B. No longer required to pass a position to the pilot unless the controller considers it necessary

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46
Q

How are ACFT identified using SSR and/or MLAT? (5)

A
  • Recognition of ACFT identification in SSR and/or MLAT label
  • Direct recognition of ACFT identification of Mode S equipped ACFT in SSR and/or MLAT label
  • Transfer of identification
  • Observation of compliance with instruction to set specific code
  • Observation of compliance with instruction to squawk IDENT (Cannot be used for ACFT displaying conspicuity code)
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47
Q

What should the ATCO do if the observed read out does not correlate with assigned squawk code?

A
  • Instruct pilot to reset code
  • If error persists, instruct pilot to squawk A0000
  • If error still exists, instruct pilot to switch off transponder

N.B. A corrupt code may be retained for identification and tracking purposes if Mode C is verified. Adjacent ATSUs must be informed

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48
Q

When may a Mode A code be deemed validated?

A

When code set can be recognised by the Code Assignment Plan (in AIP) to have been assigned by an ATC unit capable of validating the code, providing the code has not been notified as being corrupt

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49
Q

When can Mode C be assumed to have been verified?

A

When associated with a deemed validated Mode A Code

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50
Q

When is an ACFT considered to be Maintaining an assigned level? (level occupied)

A
  • Mode C readout indicates ± 200ft from that level in RVSM (FL290 - 410)

or

  • ± 300ft in other airspace, unless ATS authority specify smaller criterion, but not less than ± 200ft

N.B. RVSM = Reduced Vertical Separation Minima

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51
Q

When is an ACFT considered to have Vacated a level after instruction to climb or descend?

A

Mode C readout shows a change of more than 300ft from its previously occupied level and is continuing in anticipated direction

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52
Q

When is an ACFT considered to be Passing a level in climb or descent?

A

When Mode C readout indicates that it has passed this level in required direction by more than 300 ft

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53
Q

When is an ACFT considered to have Reached an assigned level?

A

After three display updates, three sensor updates or 15 seconds, whichever is greater

Has passed since

Mode C readout indicated within appropriate tolerances of assigned level

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54
Q

What are the methods of transfer of identification? (8)

A

1. AUTOMATED MEANS, provided only one position indication and there is no doubt
2. Notification of ACFTs DISCRETE SSR CODE or ACFT address
3. Notification that ACFT IS SSR MODE S / ADSB EQUIPPED with an ACFT IDENTIFICATION FEATURE when SSR MODE S COVERAGE AVAILABLE
4. Notification that ACFT is ADSB EQUIPPED with ACFT IDENTIFICATION FEATURE when compatible ADSB COVERAGE AVAILABLE
5. DIRECT DESIGNATION (pointing with the finger) of position indication, if the two situation displays are adjacent or if common “conference” type of situation display is used
6. Designation of position indication by reference to BEARING AND DISTANCE from geographical position or nav facility, together with track of observed position indication. If route of ACFT is not known to both controllers, ATS authority may prescribe additional conditions for application of this method. For example
6a. Max distance from common reference point used by the two controllers
6b. Max distance between position indication as observed by accepting controller and one stated by transferring controller
7. TRANSFERRING CONTROLLER instructs ACFT to CHANGE SSR CODE and change observed by ACCEPTING CONTROLLER
8. TRANSFERRING CONTROLLER instructs ACFT to SQUAWK IDENT and observed by ACCEPTING CONTROLLER

N.B. Use of procedures 7 and 8 require prior coordination between the controllers, since indications to be observed by accepting controller are of short duration

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55
Q

When should an ACFT be informed of its position? (5)

A
  1. UPON IDENTIFICATION, EXCEPT when identification is established based on PILOT POSITION REPORT or DEPARTING ACFT METHOD or by use of either ADSB / SSR Mode S ACFT IDENT OR assigned DISCRETE SSR CODES and location of position indication is consistent with CPL of ACFT or by TRANSFER OF IDENTIFICATION
  2. PILOT REQUEST
  3. When PILOT ESTIMATE DIFFERS SIGNIFICANTLY from controller’s estimate based on observed position
  4. When pilot is instructed to resume OWN NAVIGATION after vectoring if current instructions had diverted the ACFT from PREVIOUSLY ASSIGNED ROUTE
  5. Immediately BEFORE TERMINATION OF ATS SURVEILLANCE, if ACFT is observed to DEVIATE FROM INTENDED ROUTE
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56
Q

How is position information passed to ACFT? (5)

A
  1. Well-known geographical position
  2. Magnetic track and distance to a significant point, en-route navigation aid, or approach aid
  3. Direction (using points of the compass) and distance from known position
  4. Distance to touchdown, if ACFT on final approach
  5. Distance and direction from centre line of ATS route
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57
Q

Define Vectoring

A

Navigational guidance to ACFT in form of specific headings, based on use of an ATS surveillance system.

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58
Q

Except when transfer of control is to be effected, ACFT shall not be vectored closer than

A
  • 2.5nm
  • Where minimum permissible separation is greater than 5nm
  • A distance equivalent to one-half of prescribed separation minimum, from limit of airspace for which controller is responsible

Unless

Local arrangements have been made to ensure that separation will exist with ACFT operating in adjoining areas

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59
Q

Controlled flights shall not be vectored outside controlled airspace, except…

A
  • In an emergency
  • In order to circumnavigate adverse MET conditions - pilot should be informed
  • Or at specific request of pilot
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60
Q

What factors need to be considered when judging the point at which a turn should be initiated by the radar controller? (5)

A
  • Angle of turn (total change of heading)
  • Time lag or delay in the turn being initiated by the pilot
  • Drift caused by wind speed and direction
  • Groundspeed
  • Rate of turn
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61
Q

What is the optimum route and why might it be extended? (5)

A

Straight line
- Lose height
- Avoid weather or PE clutter
- Fit in the traffic sequence
- Avoid high ground, obstructions, other airspace etc
- Provide reasonable angle of closure to final approach track

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62
Q

When vectoring to intercept ILS localiser course, what shall the final vector enable the ACFT to do?

A
  • Be established on the final approach track prior to intercepting the specified or nominal glide path of the approach procedure from below
  • Intercept the ILS localiser course at an angle of 45°or less
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63
Q

What is Aerodrome Traffic?

A

All traffic on manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all ACFT flying in vicinity of an aerodrome

N.B. An ACFT is in vicinity of an aerodrome when it is in, entering or leaving an aerodrome traffic circuit

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64
Q

What is Air Traffic?

A

All ACFT in flight or operating on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome

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65
Q

Define Landing Area

A

That part of movement area intended for landing or take-off of ACFT

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66
Q

What are the objective of Aerodrome Control Towers?

A

Issue information and clearance to ACFT under their control to achieve safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic on and in vicinity of an aerodrome with the objective of preventing collision(s) between:

  • ACFT flying within designated area of responsibility of control tower, including aerodrome traffic circuits
  • ACFT operating on manoeuvring area
  • ACFT landing and taking off
  • ACFT and vehicles operating on manoeuvring area
  • ACFT on manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area
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67
Q

What are the different control or working positions in a control tower?

A
  • Aerodrome controller (AIR)
  • Ground controller (GMC)
  • Clearance delivery position (GMP)
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68
Q

What does Essential Local Traffic consist of?

A

Any ACFT, vehicle or personnel on or near
manoeuvring area or traffic operating in vicinity of aerodrome, which may constitute a hazard to ACFT concerned

N.B. Essential local traffic shall be described so as to be easily identified and information must be transmitted without delay

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69
Q

Prior to taxiing for TKOF, what shall ACFT be advised of, with exception of such elements which it is known ACFT has already received? (6)

A
  • RWY to be used
  • Surface wind direction and speed including significant variations
  • QNH and either on a regular basis in accordance with local arrangements or if requested, QFE
  • Air temperature for RWY to be used, (in the case of jet ACFT)
  • Visibility representative of direction of TKOF and initial climb, if less than 10 km, or, when applicable, RVR value(s) for RWY to be used
  • Correct time

N.B. Needs to be in order listed

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70
Q

Prior to entering traffic circuit or commencing approach to land, what shall ACFT be advised of, with exception of such elements which it is known ACFT has already received? (3)

A
  • RWY to be used
  • Surface wind direction and speed including significant variations
  • QNH and either on a regular basis in accordance with local arrangements or if requested, QFE

N.B. Needs to be in order listed

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71
Q

A __________ should not be issued to single pilot helicopters __________ or __________

A
  1. Frequency change
  2. Hovering
  3. Air-taxiing
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72
Q

All vehicles and pedestrians shall give way to…

A
  • ACFT which are landing, taxiing or taking off
  • Except vehicles proceeding to assistance of an ACFT in distress shall be afforded priority over all other surface movement traffic

N.B. In latter case, all movement of surface traffic should, to the extent practicable, be halted until it is determined that the progress of the emergency vehicles will not be impeded

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73
Q

When an ACFT is landing or taking off, vehicles shall not be permitted to hold closer to the runway-in-use than…

A

A holding point or position which equates to one

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74
Q

What is the order of priority for landing and departing traffic?

A
  • ACFT landing or in final stages of approach normally have priority over ACFT intending to depart from same or intersecting RWY
  • Departures normally cleared in order they are ready for TKOF - deviations can be made in order to facilitate maximum number of departures with minimum average delay
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75
Q

What factors should be considered in relation to departure sequence? (6)

A
  • Type of ACFT and relative performance
  • Route to be followed after TKOF
  • Minimum Departure Interval (MDI)?
  • Need to apply wake turbulence separation minima
  • ACFT which should be afforded priority
  • ACFT subject to ATFM requirements (Slots) - Joint pilot and controller responsibility

N.B. ATFM = Air Traffic Flow Management

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76
Q

Departing/Arriving ACFT will not normally be cleared to TKOF/given landing clearance until…

A

Preceding departing ACFT

  • Has crossed end of RWY in use

Or

  • Has started a turn

Or

Preceding landed ACFT

  • Has vacated RWY in use

N.B. Resealable assurance that separation will exist when ACFT commences TKOF

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77
Q

When necessary or desirable in order to expedite traffic, a landing ACFT may be requested to…

A
  • Hold short of an intersecting RWY after landing
  • Land beyond the touchdown zone of RWY
  • Vacate RWY at a specified exit TWY
  • Expedite vacating RWY
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78
Q

When requesting an ACFT to perform a specific landing and/or roll out manoeuvre, what shall be considered? (5)

A
  • Type of ACFT
  • RWY length
  • Location of exit TWYs
  • Reported braking action on RWY and TWY
  • Prevailing MET conditions
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79
Q

When may standard separation minima be reduced in the vicinity of aerodromes?

A

(a) Adequate separation can be provided by aerodrome controller when each ACFT is continuously visible to controller. Both ACFT constantly visible to ADC

Or

(b) Each ACFT continuously visible to flight crews of other ACFT concerned and pilots report that they can maintain own separation Both ACFT constantly visible to each other and agreed to take own separation

Or

(c) In case of one ACFT following another, flight crew of succeeding ACFT reports that other ACFT in sight and separation can be maintained. Following ACFT has preceding ACFT in sight and agrees to take own separation

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80
Q

What factors are considered with the safety assessment carried out for each RWY for which reduced RWY minima is intended? (3)

A
  • RWY length
  • Aerodrome layout
  • Types and categories of ACFT involved

N.B.Published in AIP and MATS Part 2. ATCOs trained in use of procedures

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81
Q

For the purpose of reduced runway separation, how are ACFT classified?

A

Category 1

  • Single engine propeller - MAX Cert TKOF mass 2000kg or less

Category 2

  • Single engine propeller - MAX Cert TKOF mass more than 2000kg but less than 7000kg
  • Twin engine propeller - MAX Cert TKOF mass less than 7000kg

Category 3

  • All other ACFT
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82
Q

Reduced RWY separation minima for ACFT using the same RWY shall not apply between a __________ ACFT and a preceding __________ ACFT

A
  • Departing
  • Landing
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83
Q

What conditions shall reduced RWY separation minima between ACFT using same RWY be subject to? (8)

A
  1. Daylight only
  2. Wake turbulence separation shall be applied
  3. Visibility at least 5km and cloud ceiling not lower than 1000ft
  4. Tailwind component shall not exceed 5kts
  5. Landmarks/visual references to allow ATCOs to assess distances. SMGCS if used must be approved (safety assessment)
  6. MIN separation continues to exist between two departing ACFT immediately after TKOF of second ACFT
  7. Traffic information shall be provided to second ACFT
  8. Braking good - No RWY contaminants such as ice, slush, snow and water

N.B. Daylight defined as 30 minutes after local sunrise to 30 minutes before local sunset

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84
Q

What is the Reduced RWY Separation Minima for landing ACFT?

A

Category ‘X’ may cross RWY THR when…

  • 1 - Preceding Category 1/2 landed, 600m from THR, in motion and will vacate without backtracking. Or airborne and 600m from THR
  • 2 - Preceding Category 1/2 landed, 1500m from THR, in motion and will vacate without backtracking. Or airborne and 1500m from THR
  • 3 - Preceding Category 3 landed, 2400m from THR, in motion and will vacate without backtracking. Or airborne and 2400m from THR

N.B. Associated distances: 1: 600m, 2: 1500m, 3: 2400m

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85
Q

What is the Reduced RWY Separation Minima for departing ACFT?

A

Category ‘X’ may be cleared for TKOF when preceding departing…

  • 1 - Preceding Category 1/2 airborne and at least 600m from position of succeeding ACFT
  • 2 - Preceding Category 1/2 airborne and at least 1500m from position of succeeding ACFT
  • 3 - Preceding Category 3 airborne and at least 2400m from position of succeeding ACFT

N.B. Associated distances: 1: 600m, 2: 1500m, 3: 2400m

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86
Q

Define QFE

A
  • Atmospheric pressure at official aerodrome level
  • Altimeter will read zero when ACFT is on ground at station
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87
Q

Define QNH

A
  • Atmospheric pressure at mean sea level
  • Altimeter will read aerodrome elevation when ACFT is on ground at station
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88
Q

Define QNE

A

Standard pressure setting 1013.25hPa

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89
Q

Define Height

A

Vertical distance of a level, point or object considered as a point measured from specified datum

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90
Q

Define Altitude

A

Vertical distance of a level, point or object considered as a point measured from mean sea level

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91
Q

Define Elevation

A

Vertical distance of a point or level, on or affixed to the surface of the earth, measured from mean sea level

N.B. AD Elevation is highest point on the landing area

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92
Q

When is a separate THR Elevation published?

A

When it is 7ft or more below aerodrome elevation and for precision approach RWYs

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93
Q

Define Flight Level (FL)

A

Surface of constant atmospheric pressure, which is related to a specific pressure datum, 1013.25 hPa, and is separated from other such surfaces by specific pressure intervals

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94
Q

Define Transition Altitude (TA)

A

The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an ACFT is controlled by reference to altitudes

N.B. Located at a fixed level and published in AIP

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95
Q

Define Transition Level (TL) and state how it is determined

A

The lowest Flight Level available for use above the Transition Altitude

Located at least a nominal 1000ft above TA to permit TA and TL to be used concurrently in cruising flight with vertical separation ensured

Determined as follows

  • In controlled airspace - normally based on QNH of major aerodrome
  • Outside controlled airspace - Based on local aerodrome QNH
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96
Q

Define Transition Layer

A

The airspace between the TA and TL

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97
Q

Even Cruising Levels e.g. FL020, FL040, FL060, etc are assigned to?

A
  • IFR on Westbound magnetic tracks (180º - 359º)
  • VFR as per IFR +500ft up to FL285 (VFR flight not approved above FL290)
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98
Q

Odd Cruising Levels e.g. FL030, FL050, FL070 are assigned to?

A
  • IFR on Eastbound magnetic tracks (360º - 179º)
  • VFR as per IFR +500ft up to FL285 (VFR not approved above FL290)
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99
Q

For purposes of altimetry, what is 1hPa approximately equal to?

A

30ft

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100
Q

Priority for landing shall be given to…

A
  • ACFT which anticipates being compelled to land because of factors affecting the safe operation of the ACFT e.g. engine failure, shortage of fuel etc
  • Hospital ACFT or ACFT carrying any sick of seriously injured persons requiring urgent medical attention
  • ACFT engaged in SAR
  • Other ACFT as may be determined by appropriate authority
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101
Q

For IFR flights, when can visual separation be used to separate ACFT?

A
  • During VMC climb or descent when pilots have agreed to maintain own separation
  • Under specific conditions, in the vicinity of an aerodrome
  • Under specific conditions, when an ACFT is executing a visual approach and has preceding traffic in sight
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102
Q

What is VMC Climb/Descent and when can it be permitted?

A

ACFT may be cleared for VMC climb/descent when operating in Class D/E airspace in VMC during the day. ACFT fly subject to own separation provided both pilots agree

  • Specified portion of the flight, at or below FL100 during climb or descent
  • If ACFT encounter IFR, ATC to be informed and altitude clearance issued
  • Essential traffic info must be passed
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103
Q

Which ICAO annex deals with R/T and which other reference documents are used?

A
  • Annex 10 - Aeronautical Telecommunications
  • Doc 4444 PANS ATM
  • SERA
  • Annex 14 - Aerodromes
  • CAP 493 - MATS Part 1
  • CAP 413 - Radiotelephony Manual
104
Q

Why were ICAO phraseologies developed?

A

Provide maximum clarity, brevity and unambiguity in communications

105
Q

What rate of speech should be maintained when transmitting on the R/T?

A

Not exceeding 100 words per minute

106
Q

What is the civil VHF spectrum and spacing?

A
  • 118.000 to 136.975MHz
  • 8.33kHz in Europe (although small number of 25kHz frequencies remain in use)

N.B. 8.33kHz spacing was introduced to alleviate VHF congestion

107
Q

What form should test transmissions and replies take?

A

Transmission

  • Identification of aeronautical station being called
  • ACFT identification
  • “Radio check”
  • Frequency being used

Reply

  • Identification of station calling
  • Identification of station replying
  • Information regarding readability of transmission
108
Q

What is the readability scale?

A
  1. Unreadable
  2. Readable now and then
  3. Readable with difficulty
  4. Readable
  5. Perfectly readable
109
Q

For which kinds of information is each digit transmitted separately? (8)

A
  • ACFT call signs
  • Flight levels (except FL100, FL200, etc)
  • Headings
  • Wind direction and speed
  • Pressure settings (except QNH 1000)
  • Frequencies
  • Transponder codes (except whole 000’s)
  • ACFT speeds
110
Q

Fill in the blanks for callsigns

A
111
Q

Define ASM

A

Air Space Management

  • A planning function
  • Primary objective of maximising utilisation of available airspace by dynamic time-sharing segregation of airspace (short term)

In future

A strategic function with infrastructure planning

112
Q

What is FUA?

A

Flexible Use of Airspace

  • ASM concept, described by ICAO and developed by EUROCONTROL
  • Airspace should no longer be designated as either military or civil
  • Should be considered one continuum, used flexibly on a day to day basis
  • Any necessary reservations or segregations should only be temporary
113
Q

With regards to FUA concept, what are the 3 levels of coordination between civil and military authorities?

A
  • FUA Level 1 - Strategic - National and international agreements (7 or more days prior). Re-routing or re-scheduling. Network Operations Plan
  • FUA Level 2 - Pre-tactical - Short timescale (1-6 days prior). Initial/Daily Network Plan (ADP)
  • FUA Level 3 - Tactical - At the time (On the day)

N.B. In order to increase safety and capacity and improve efficiency of ACFT operations, consistency between ASM, ATFM and ATS shall be established and maintained at the above 3 levels

114
Q

Airspace reservations shall…

A
  • Be of a temporary nature, applied only during limited times and based on actual use of airspace
  • Applied across national borders and/or the boundaries of FIRs
  • ATS units and airspace users make best use of available airspace
115
Q

What is an AMC?

A

Airspace Management Cell

Joint civil/military cell responsible for day-to-day management and temporary allocation of national or sub regional airspace under jurisdiction of one or more ECAC States

116
Q

What is TAA and the process of it?

A

Temporary Airspace Allocation

  • Permits activities requiring temporary reservation to be allocated on day before operations to allow Airspace Management Cell (AMC) to make available, if required, Conditional Routes (CDRs) established through them outside their planned hours
  • Planned activity and conditions for use of TRA/TSA and AMC-manageable D or R areas will be published daily in national “Airspace Use Plan” (AUP).
117
Q

What is a TRA?

A

Temporary Reserved Area
Defined volume of airspace normally under the jurisdiction of one aviation authority and temporarily reserved, by common agreement, for the specific use by another aviation authority and through which other traffic may be allowed to transit, under ATC clearance

N.B. ASM Level 2

118
Q

What is a TSA?

A

Temporary Segregated Area
Defined volume of airspace normally under the jurisdiction of one aviation authority and temporarily segregated, by common agreement, for the exclusive use by another aviation authority and through which other traffic will not be allowed to transit

N.B. ASM Level 2

119
Q

What is a Restricted Area?

A

Airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial waters of a State, within which the flight of ACFT is restricted in accordance with certain specified condition

N.B. Established at ASM Level 1 and some subject to management and allocation at ASM Level 2

120
Q

What is a Danger Area?

A

Airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of ACFT may exist at specified times

N.B. Established at ASM Level 1 and some subject to management and allocation at ASM Level 2

121
Q

What is a CDR?

A

Conditional Route
- ATS routes usable only under specified conditions
- A CDR may have more than 1 category
Three types:
- CAT 1 (CDR1) - Permanently plannable during times published (in AIP)
- CAT 2 (CDR2) - Only plannable in accordance with conditions in daily airspace utilisation plan (AUP)
- CAT 3 (CDR3) - Not plannable but may be used tactically by ATC

122
Q

What does DMEAN stand for?

A

Dynamic Management of European Airspace Network

123
Q

How can ACFT callsigns be abbreviated?

A
  1. First and at least last 2 characters of ACFT registration e.g. GABCD becomes G-CD or Cessna CD
  2. Telephony designator of ACFT operator and at least 2 characters of ACFT registration e.g. FASTAIR DCAB becomes FASTAIR AB
  3. None abbreviated form e.g. FASTAIR 345
124
Q

How could the following callsigns be abbreviated?

A
125
Q

What is an Air Traffic Control Clearance?

A

Authorisation for an ACFT to proceed under conditions specified by an air traffic control unit

N.B. The term “air traffic control clearance” is frequently abbreviated to “clearance” when used in appropriate contexts

126
Q

What is an Air Traffic Control Instruction?

A

Directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action

127
Q

What is a Downstream Clearance?

A

A clearance issued to an ACFT by an air traffic control unit that is not the current controlling authority of that ACFT

128
Q

What is a Clearance Limit?

A

Point to which an ACFT is granted an air traffic control clearance

Shall be specified by describing:

  • Name of appropriate reporting point
  • Aerodrome
  • Controlled airspace boundary
129
Q

What is scope and purpose of an Air Traffic Control Clearance?

A
  1. Clearance shall be issued solely for expediting and separating air traffic and be based on known traffic conditions which affect safety in ACFT operation. Such traffic conditions include not only ACFT in air and on manoeuvring area over which control is being exercised, but also any vehicular traffic or other obstructions not permanently installed on manoeuvring area in use
  2. ATC units shall issue such ATC clearances as necessary to prevent collisions and expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic
  3. ATC clearances shall be issued early enough to ensure that they are transmitted to the ACFT in sufficient time for it to comply with them
130
Q

What does an Air Traffic Control Clearance not do?

A
  • Constitute authority to violate applicable regs for promoting the safety of flight operations or for any other purpose
  • Relieve pilot-in-command of any responsibility in connection with possible violation of applicable rules and regs
131
Q

When must an Air Traffic Control clearance be obtained?

A

Prior to operating a controlled flight or a portion of a flight as a controlled flight

132
Q

How are Air Traffic Control Clearances requested?

A

Submission of a flight plan to an Air Traffic Control Unit

133
Q

What should the pilot do if their clearance is not satisfactory?

A

Inform ATC. ATC will issue an amended clearance if practicable

134
Q

What is required to be submitted when requesting a priority clearance?

A

A report explaining need for such priority if requested by the appropriate Air Traffic Controller Unit

135
Q

If prior to departure, it is anticipated that depending on fuel endurance and subject to re-clearance in flight, a decision is taken to proceed to revised destination, what must be done?

A

Appropriate ATCUs shall be notified by insertion in flight plan of information concerning revised route and revised destination

136
Q

An ACFT operating on a controlled aerodromes shall not taxi on the manoeuvring area…

A

Without clearance from the aerodrome controller and shall comply with any instructions given by that unit

137
Q

What are the contents of an Air Traffic Control Clearance? (5)

A
  1. ACFT identification as shown in flight plan
  2. Clearance limit
  3. Route of flight
    i. The route of flight shall be detailed in each clearance when deemed necessary; and
    ii. Phrase ‘cleared via flight planned route’ shall
    not be used when granting a re-clearance
  4. Level(s) of flight for entire route or part thereof and changes of levels if required
  5. Any necessary instructions or information on other matters such as approach or departure manoeuvres, communications and time of expiry of clearance
138
Q

How do clearances related to altimetry work?

A
  1. Areas where TA established, vertical position ACFT shall, except as provided for in (5), be expressed as altitudes at or below TA and FLs at or above TL. While passing through transition layer, vertical position shall be expressed in FLs when climbing and altitudes when descending
  2. TL provided in due time prior to reaching it during descent
  3. QNH included in descent clearance when first cleared at altitude below TL, in approach clearances or clearances to enter traffic circuit, and in taxi clearances for departing ACFT except when it is known that the ACFT has already received the information in a directed transmission
  4. QFE provided to ACFT on request or on regular basis in accordance with local arrangements
  5. When ACFT given clearance to land is using QFE, vertical position ACFT shall be expressed as height above aerodrome elevation. However, expressed in terms of height above RWY THR elevation when:
    i. For instrument runways if THR is 7 ft or more below AD Elev; and
    ii. For precision approach RWYs
139
Q

How do conditional clearances work and what order must they be given in?

A
  • Conditional phrases, such as ‘behind landing ACFT’ or ‘after departing ACFT’, shall not be used for movements affecting the active RWY(s), EXCEPT when ACFT or vehicles concerned are seen by appropriate controller and pilot
  • ACFT or vehicle causing condition in the clearance issued shall be the first ACFT/vehicle to pass in front of the other ACFT concerned

Conditional clearance shall be given in following order

  1. Call sign
  2. Condition
  3. Clearance
  4. Brief reiteration of condition.
140
Q

What information must always be read back? (4)

A

Safety related parts of ATC clearances and instructions transmitted by voice

  1. ATC route clearances
    i. Clearances and instructions to enter, land on,
    TKOF from, hold short of, cross, taxi and backtrack on any RWY **Basically anything to do with RWY; and
    ii. RWY in use, altimeter settings, SSR codes, newly assigned communication channels, level instructions, heading and speed instructions; and
    iii. Whether issued by the controller or contained in ATIS broadcasts, transition levels
  2. Other clearances or instructions, including conditional clearances and taxi instructions, shall be read back or acknowledged
  3. Controller shall listen to read-back to and shall take immediate action to correct errors
  4. Voice read-back of CPDLC messages shall not be required, unless otherwise specified by the ANSP

N.B. CPDLC stands for Controller-Pilot Da ta-Link Communications

141
Q

How does coordination of clearances work regarding route clearances?

A
  1. An ATC Clearance shall be coordinated between ATSU’s to cover entire route of ACFT or
    specified portion as described below
  2. ACFT shall be cleared for entire route to intended AD:
    i. When, prior to departure clearance has been coordinated the clearance between all units u nder whose control ACFT will come; or
    ii. When reasonably assured that prior coordination will be effected between those units under whose control the ACFT will subsequently come
  3. When above in (2) not achieved/anticipated, ACFT shall be cleared to a point where coordination is reasonably assured. Prior to reaching such point, or at such point, ACFT shall receive further clearance, holding instructions being issued as appropriate
142
Q

How does a Downstream Clearance work?

A
  • When prescribed by ATS unit, ACFT shall contact a downstream ATCU, for purpose of receiving downstream clearance prior to transfer of control point
  • ACFT shall maintain necessary two-way communication with current ATCU whilst obtaining downstream clearance
  • Clearance issued as a downstream clearance shall be clearly identifiable as such to the pilot
  • Unless coordinated, downstream clearances shall not affect ACFTs original flight profile in any airspace, other than that of the ATCU responsible for delivery of downstream clearance
143
Q

When an ACFT intends to depart from an aerodrome within a control area (CTR/CTA) to enter another control area, what must be done and what timescales are involved?

A
  • Coordination with subsequent ACC shall be affected prior to issuance of departure clearance
  • If ACFT intends to depart and enter another control area within 30 minutes or other specific period of time agreed by ACCs concerned
144
Q

Complete the sentence
When an ACFT intends to leave a control are (CTA/CTR) for flight outside controlled airspace, and will subsequently re-enter same or another control area…

A

Clearance from point of departure to aerodrome of first intended landing may be issued

N.B. Such clearance or revisions of shall apply only to those portions of the flight conducted within controlled airspace

145
Q

What is the Distress Message and what needs to be passed along with it?

A

MAY DAY MAY DAY MAY DAY - ACFT threatened by grave and imminent danger, requires immediate assistance

  • Name of station addressed
  • ACFT ident
  • Nature of emergency
  • Pilots intentions
  • Position, level and heading
  • Other information (time permitting)

N.B. Remember in the order listed!!

146
Q

What is the Urgency Message and what needs to be passed along with it?

A

PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN - Safety ACFT, vehicle, property or person on board or in sight but which does not require immediate assistance

  • Name of station addressed
  • ACFT ident
  • Nature of emergency
  • Pilots intentions
  • Position, level and heading
  • Pilot qualification
  • Other information (time permitting)

N.B. Remember in the order listed!!

147
Q

What are the 2 states of emergency?

A

Distress and urgency

148
Q

What is the call made for Imposition of Silence in an emergency?

A

“All Stations, Avon Tower, Stop transmitting - Mayday”

149
Q

What is the call made for Cancellation in an emergency?

A

“All Stations, Avon Tower. Distress traffic ended”

150
Q

What is the call to Transfer to Another Frequency in an emergency?

A

“Mayday ‘G-HELP’. All other ACFT contact Avon Radar on 123.150 out”

151
Q

What is a SID?

A

A designated instrument flight rule (IFR) departure route linking aerodrome or specified RWY of aerodrome with a specified significant point, normally on a designated ATS route, at which the en-route phase of a flight commences

152
Q

What is a STAR?

A

A designated instrument flight rule (IFR) arrival route
linking significant point, normally on ATS route, with a
point from which a published instrument approach procedure can be commenced

153
Q

What is the purpose of SIDs and STARs? (7)

A
  • Segregate traffic operating along different route and traffic in holding patterns
  • Provide adequate terrain clearance
  • Compatible with Radio Communication Failure (RTF) procedures
  • Compatible with Noise Preferential Routes (NPRs)
  • Allow for uninterrupted climb and descent
  • Allow for performance of ACFT (Must cater for poorest performance)
  • Reduce RT loading for ATC and pilots
154
Q

What are NPRs?

A

Noise Preferential Routes

  • Help ACFT avoid noise-sensitive areas on departure and arrival (Includes turning away)
  • Designed to minimise overall exposure to noise on ground and at same time maintain required levels of flight safety
  • Always be incorporated into SIDs
155
Q

What is the composition of a STAR Designator?

A

Example BRN 1C: (1)BRN, (2)1, (3)C

  1. Basic Indicator - Where ATS route ends and instrument approach begins
  2. Validity Indicator - Indicates amendment number
  3. Route Indicator - Indicates the particular STAR route within a group
156
Q

What information do STAR charts contain? (6)

A
  • Standard arrival routes (STARs)
  • Descent gradients
  • Level restrictions
  • Speed limitations
  • Holding pattern
  • Frequency and identity coding of navaids used
157
Q

What is the composition of a SID Designator?

A

Example DRT 1W: (1)DRT, (2)1, (3)W

  1. Basic Indicator - Where ATS route commences and SID ends
  2. Validity Indicator - Indicates amendment number
  3. Runway Indicator - Indicates the SID commences from a particular RWY
158
Q

What information do SID charts contain? (6)

A
  • Standard Departure Routes (SIDs)
  • Frequency and identity coding of navaids used
  • Climb gradients
  • Level restrictions
  • Speed limitations
  • Transition altitude
159
Q

Define Coordination in the EU

A

The process, executed between ATC units with adjoining areas of responsibility, of formally advising each other of planned passage of flights across the boundary, in order to ensure flight safety through consistency of intended action

160
Q

Define Coordination in the UK

A

The act of negotiation between two or more parties each vested with the authority to make executive decisions appropriate to the task being discharged

161
Q

What are the stages of Transfer of Control?

A
  1. Notification of flight data to prepare for coordination
  2. Coordination of transferring conditions
  3. Coordination of accepting conditions
  4. Transfer of control to accepting ATCU or control sector
162
Q

When is Transfer of Control achieved?

A

When a flight operating in accordance with the co-ordination has reached agreed position, level or time

N.B. Do not confuse with transfer of communication

163
Q

Where can Transfer of Control take place? (4)

A
  • Agreed Reporting Point,
  • On estimate for FIR boundary,
  • At or passing agreed level,
  • Climbing or descending to agreed level – providing standard separation exists
164
Q

In order to optimise ATC provision, when is it recommended that Transfer of Communication take place and why is it permitted?

A
  • Before Transfer of Control at a point/time/distance agreed upon between the transferring and accepting ATSUs
  • Permitted so that instructions which become effective later can be issued

N.B. Do not confuse with transfer of control

165
Q

What is Downstream Coordination?

A

Coordination effected by a unit (ahead of ACFTs flight path) which is not currently the control authority of that ACFT (as per downstream clearance)

166
Q

What are LoAs and what do they cover? (14)

A

Letters of Agreement and they cover items below:

  1. Definition of areas of responsibility and common interest, airspace structure and airspace classification(s)
  2. Any delegation of responsibility for the provision of ATS
  3. Procedures for exchange of flight plan and control data, including use of automated and/or verbal coordination messages
  4. Means of communication
  5. Requirements and procedures for approval requests
  6. Significant points, levels or times for transfer of control
  7. Significant points, levels or times for transfer of communication
  8. Conditions applicable to transfer and acceptance of control, such as specified altitudes/flight levels, specific separation minima or spacing to be established at time of transfer, and use of automation
  9. ATS surveillance system coordination procedures
  10. SSR code assignment procedures
  11. Procedures for departing traffic
  12. Designated holding fixes and procedures for arriving traffic
  13. Applicable contingency procedures
  14. Any other provisions or information relevant to coordination and transfer of control of flights

N.B. DDExMAS-CCS-DA-OC

167
Q

What is an Approval Request?

A

If flying time from departure aerodrome of an ACFT to boundary of adjacent control area is less than specified minimum required to transmit flight plan and control information to accepting ATC unit, transferring ATC unit shall, prior to departure, forward that information to accepting ATC unit together with request for approval

168
Q

What shall means of coordination be dependent on? (5)

A
  • Types of data to be exchanged
  • Functions to be performed
  • Letters of agreement
  • Availability of adequate communications channels
  • Processing facilities at the centres concerned

N.B. T-FLAP

169
Q

What are possible means of communication for coordination? (4)

A
  • Direct speech circuits
  • Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunication Network
  • Digital data exchange between ATS units
  • Direct computer-computer circuits
170
Q

Who else might have a copy of LoAs?

A

Adjacent ACCs and FIRs

171
Q

What information should APP keep ACC updated on? (7)

A
  • RWY in use
  • ETAs over holding fix if more than 3 mins
  • Average time interval between arrivals
  • Lowest vacant level available to ACC at the holding fix
  • Revision of EATs
  • Info on overdue ACFT
  • Missed approaches

N.B. REAL RIM

172
Q

What information should ACC keep APP updated on? (7)

A
  • EAT issued
  • Anticipated departure delay due to congestion
  • Statement that ACFT instructed to contact APP
  • Statement that an aircraft has been released plus any conditions
  • Actual time and level and if released, requested type of approach procedure if different to APP offer
  • Callsign, type and point of departure
  • ETA and level of over holding fix

N.B. Information on arriving ACFT shall be forwarded not less than 15 minutes before ETA

N.B.B. EAT ASS ACE

173
Q

What coordination shall be effected between adjacent FIRs in respect of IFR and VFR flights?

A
  • Coordination between ATS units in adjacent FIRs shall be
    effected in respect of IFR and VFR flights to ensure continued FIS
  • Such coordination shall be effected in accordance with an agreement between the ATS units concerned
174
Q

Coordination between ACC and APP
When is TKOF time specified by the ACC?

A

When it is necessary to:

  • Coordinate departure with traffic not released to APP

And

  • Provide en-route separation between departing
    ACFT following same track

When TKOF time not specified:

  • APP determines TKOF time to coordinate departure with traffic released to it

Clearance expiry time specified by ACC if:

  • A delayed departure would conflict with traffic not released to APP
  • If APP, for its own reasons needs to specify in addition to clearance expiry time, this shall not be later than ACCs
175
Q

What information should APP keep Aerodrome Control updated on? (3)

A
  • ETA and level of ACFT arriving over aerodrome, at least 15 minutes prior to ETA
  • Statement that ACFT has been instructed to contact control tower and control assumed
  • Anticipated departure delay due to congestion
176
Q

What information should Aerodrome control keep APP updated on? (5)

A
  • Arrival and departure times
  • Statement that first ACFT in approach sequence is in communication with and is sighted by the aerodrome control tower, and that reasonable assurance exists of landing
  • Info relating to overdue or unreported ACFT
  • Missed approaches
  • Info on ACFT that constitute essential local traffic to ACFT under the control of APP
177
Q

Emergency and Warning Signals
What does a steady red mean?

A

ACFT in flight - Give way to other ACFT and continue circling
ACFT/vehicles on ground - STOP

178
Q

Emergency and Warning Signals
What’s does a red pyrotechnic mean?

A

Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being

179
Q

Emergency and Warning Signals
What does a flashing red mean?

A

ACFT in flight - Do not land, aerodrome unsafe
ACFT/vehicles on ground - Move clear of landing area

180
Q

Emergency and Warning Signals
What does a steady green mean?

A

Cleared to land or TKOF

181
Q

Emergency and Warning Signals
What does a flashing green mean?

A

ACFT in flight - Return to aerodrome and wait for permission to land
ACFT/vehicles on ground - Cleared to taxi or proceed

182
Q

Emergency and Warning Signals
What does a flashing white mean?

A

ACFT in flight - Land at this aerodrome and proceed to APN. Landing and taxi clearances to follow
ACFT/vehicles on ground - Return to starting point on aerodrome

183
Q

Emergency and Warning Signals
How are light signals/pyrotechnics acknowledged?

A

During Day

  • When in flight - Rock ACFTs wings, except for the base and final legs of approach
  • On ground - Moving ACFTs ailerons or rudder

At Night

  • When in flight/on ground - By flashing on and off twice ACFTs landing light, or if not equipped, same with navigation lights
184
Q

What methods do ATCOs employ to achieve separation between ACFT?

A

Longitudinal, lateral and vertical

185
Q

Who is provided with vertical or horizontal separation?

A
  • All flights in Class A and B
  • IFR flights in Class C, D and E
  • IFR and VFR flights in Class C
  • IFR and SVFR
  • SVFR (as prescribed by appropriate authority)

N.B. Also provided as far as possible between IFR in Class F

N.B.B. No separation provided in Class G - responsibility of pilot

186
Q

When might you increase separation standards?

A
  • Pilot request
  • ATCO considers in necessary
  • Directed by the appropriate authority
  • Wake turbulence
187
Q

What must be done when type of separation used to keep 2 ACFT apart cannot be maintained?

A

Take action to ensure another type of separation exists or is established prior to time when previously used separation would be insufficient

Except

When requested by pilot and agreed my pilot of other ACFT, in Class D or E airspace, flight may be cleared to maintain own separation below 10000ft during climb or descent during day in VMC. Essential traffic info passed

188
Q

What does Essential Traffic Information include?

A
  • Direction of flight concerned
  • Type (and wake category if required) of other ACFT
  • Cruising level of ACFT concerned

And

  • ETA over reporting point nearest to where the level will be crossed

Or

  • Relative bearing of ACFT concerned in terms of 12 hour clock as well as distance from conflicting traffic

Or

  • Actual or estimated position of the ACFT concerned
189
Q

What must you do if there is a Loss of Separation?

A
  • Use every means to obtain required minimum with least possible delay
  • When considered practicable (radar service) pass traffic information, otherwise Essential Traffic Information

Unless

  • Pilot reports TCAS RA - no instructions to be given until pilot reports clear of conflict

N.B. Separate then inform

190
Q

What is the Vertical Separation Minima?

A

1000ft below FL290 and 2000ft at or above FL290

Except

Within RVSM airspace, 1000ft below FL410 or a higher level under specified conditions and 2000ft at or above this level

191
Q

When may an ACFT be cleared to change level?

A

At a specified time, place or rate

192
Q

What is RVSM?

A

Reduced Vertical Separation Minima

  • Enhanced equipment has allowed conventional 2000ft separation (CVSM) above FL290 to be reduced to 1000ft when in RVSM airspace and when so equipped

N.B. Pressure altimeters inaccurate at high level due to very low pressures

193
Q

What should ATC do in the even of failure of RVSM equipment on the ACFT?

A

Separate at standard separation until ACFT is below RVSM level

194
Q

An ACFT may be cleared to a level previously occupied by another ACFT after latter has reported vacating it, except when…

A
  • Severe turbulence known to exist
  • Higher ACFT is effecting a cruise climb
  • Difference in ACFT performance is such that less than the applicable separation may result
  • In which case clearance shall be withheld until ACFT vacating level has reported at or passing another level separated by the required minimum
195
Q

How can longitudinal separation be established? (3)

A

By requiring ACFT to:

  • Depart at a specified time
  • Lose time to arrive over a geographical location at a specified time
  • Hold over a geographical location until a specified time
196
Q

What are the types of horizontal separation?

A

Lateral, longitudinal and geographic

197
Q

How can longitudinal separation be maintained for ACFT on same and diverging tracks?

A

Use of speed control

198
Q

ACFT Departing at a Specified Time
What longitudinal separation is required for ACFT flying on tracks diverging by at least 45º immediately after TKOF?

A

1 minute

May be reduced when ACFT are using parallel RWYs (Greater than 760m apart) or for operations on diverging RWYs which do not cross provided CAA has approved procedure and lateral separation effected immediately after TKOF

199
Q

ACFT Departing at a Specified Time
What longitudinal separation when preceding ACFT is 40kts or more faster than succeeding ACFT and both ACFT follow same tracks?

A

2 minutes

200
Q

ACFT Departing at a Specified Time
What longitudinal separation is required while vertical separation does not exist if departing ACFT will be flown through level of preceding departing ACFT and both ACFT follow same track?

A

5 Minutes

Must be maintained or increased while vertical separation does not exist

201
Q

Define Same Track

A

When track of one ACFT is separated from track of the other by less than 45°

N.B. Less than 45º or more than 315º

202
Q

Define Reciprocal Track

A

When track of one ACFT is separated from reciprocal of the other by less than 45°

N.B. More than 135º or less than 225º

203
Q

Define Crossing Track

A

Intersecting tracks which are not classed as ‘same’ or ‘reciprocal’

204
Q

What is the minimum time-based longitudinal separation for ACFT on the same level and track?

A

15 Minutes, reduced to:

10 minutes

If navaids permit frequent determination of position and speed

5 minutes

  • If preceding ACFT is TAS 20kts or more faster than succeeding ACFT and have reported over same reporting point or departed form same aerodrome
  • Between departing and en-route ACFT after en-route ACFT has reported over a fix in a location which ensures 5 minute separation when departing ACFT joins route (20kt still applies)

3 minutes

As for 5 minutes if preceding ACFT is TAS 40kts or more faster

205
Q

What is the minimum time-based longitudinal separation for ACFT on crossing tracks?

A
  • 15 minutes
  • 10 minutes in Europe as navaids permit frequent determination of position and speed
206
Q

What is the minimum time-based longitudinal separation for ACFT on same tracks when climbing/descending?

A
  • 15 minutes - while vertical separation does not exist
  • 10 minutes - As above if navaids permit frequent determination of position and speed
  • 5 minutes - As 15 minutes provided level change commenced within 10 minutes from when 2nd ACFT reported over same fix as first
207
Q

What is the minimum time-based longitudinal separation for ACFT on reciprocal tracks?

A

10 minutes - Before and after ACFT estimated to have passed same reporting point, unless it can be established that they have definitely passed each other then this doesn’t apply

208
Q

What is the minimum distance-based longitudinal separation for ACFT on same level and track (DME/GNSS)?

A
  • 20nm
  • 10nm provided 1st ACFT is TAS 20kts or more faster
209
Q

What is the minimum distance-based longitudinal separation for ACFT on same level and crossing track (DME/GNSS)?

A

Relative angle between tracks less than 90º

  • 20nm
  • 10nm provided 1st ACFT is 20kts or more faster
210
Q

What is the minimum distance-based longitudinal separation for ACFT on same track when climbing/descending (DME/GNSS)?

A

10nm - While vertical separation does not exist. Same waypoint, 1st ACFT remains level

211
Q

What is the minimum distance-based longitudinal separation for ACFT on reciprocal tracks? (DME/GNSS)?

A

10nm before and after ACFT report over same reporting point unless it can be established that they definitely passed each other and at least 10nm apart

N.B. 40nm head on until they have passed

212
Q

What is Mach number

A
  • Velocity of ACFT expressed as a fraction of local speed of sound
  • A function of temperature - the slower the colder
  • In ISA conditions, Mach 1 at sea level is approx 661kts TAS but 572kts at FL360 and remains until around FL600-700
213
Q

Mach number - TAS conversions

A
  • Mach 0.01 equals 6kts TAS
  • Mach 0.8 at FL290 will produce same TAS as Mach 0.83 at FL370
214
Q

For ACFT at different levels the same Mach number will mean that the __________ ACFT will be a little slower

A

Higher

N.B. Allowance of 0.01 Mach for each 2-3000ft level difference will achieve a close match

215
Q

What is the longitudinal separation minima with time-based Mach number technique?

A

10 minutes or as per the table below

216
Q

How is lateral separation obtained?

A

By requiring operation:

  • On different routes

Or

  • In different geographical locations as determined by visual observation, use of navaids and use of RNAV equipment
217
Q

What are the means by which lateral separation is applied? (5)

A
  • Reference to same or different geographical locations
  • Use of same navaid or method
  • Use of different navaids or methods
  • RNAV operations where RNP is specified on parallel tracks or ATS routes
  • Transitioning into airspace where greater lateral separation applies
218
Q

When an ACFT turns onto an ATS route via a flyover waypoint, what separation is applied?

A

A separation other than normally prescribed lateral separation for that portion of the flight between fly over waypoint, turn and next waypoint

N.B. Does not apply to fly by waypoints

219
Q

What is geographical separation?

A

Separation positively indicated by position reports over different geographical locations as determined visually or by reference to a navaid

220
Q

What are the 4 methods of lateral separation using navaids?

A
  • VOR - Both ACFT established on radials diverging by at least 15º and least one ACFT is 15nm or more from VOR
  • NDB - Both ACFT established on tracks to or from the NDB diverging by at least 30º and at least one ACFT is 15nm or more from the NDB
  • GNSS/GNSS - Each ACFT confirmed to be established on a track with zero offset between 2 waypoints and at least one ACFT is at a minimum distance from a common point
  • VOR/GNSS - ACFT using VOR is establish on a radial to or from the VOR and other, using GNSS is confirmed to be established on a track with zero offset between 2 waypoints and least one ACFT is at a minimum distance from a common point

N.B. Lateral separation established when using different navaids or methods by ensuring protected areas do not overlap

221
Q

What types of separation maybe used for tracks that intersect at angles using the values for lateral separation points for different RNPs?

A
222
Q

Define Wake Turbulence

A

Turbulence generated by passage of an ACFFT in flight. Generated from point when nose landing gear of an ACFT leaves ground on TKOF and ceases when nose landing gear touches the ground during landing

N.B. ACFT encountering such turbulence is known as a Wake Vortex Encounter

223
Q

What is the difference between wake turbulence and wake vortex?

A
  • Wake turbulence is the effect of the rotating air masses generated behind the wing tips of ACFT
  • Wake vortex describes nature of those air masses
224
Q

What are the Wake Turbulence Categories?

A

Super (J) - A380 is H but has a MTOM of 560,000kg and generates more vortices than any other H ACFT so J is used and “Super” included immediately after ACFT callsign in initial RT
Heavy (H) - 136,000kg or more
Medium (M) - Less than 136,000kg but more than 7000kg
Light (L) - 7000kg or less

N.B. Letters J, H, M or L inserted into field 9 in flight plan

225
Q

Why should helicopters be kept well clear of light ACFT during hover or air taxi?

A

They produce vortices when in flight and per kg of gross mass are more intense than those of fixed wing ACFT

226
Q

What are the basic effects of wake turbulence on an ACFT

A
  • Induced roll, loss of height or rate of climb, possible structural stress, adverse effect on engine including flameout
  • Greatest danger is roll induced on the penetrating ACFT to the degree that it exceeds counter control capability
  • Effect greater in approach area or climb out
227
Q

What are the ideal conditions for wake vortices?

A
  • Calm wind
  • Light cross wind or tail wind
  • Wake turbulence drifting to another RWY
228
Q

When shall wake turbulence NOT be applied?

A
  • Arriving VFR flights landing on same RWY as preceding Heavy or Medium ACFT
  • Between arriving IFR flights executing a visual approach

When

ACFT has reported preceding ACFT in sight and has been instructed to follow and maintain own separation from ACFT

N.B. ATC unit shall in respect of these flights issue caution of possible wake turbulence

229
Q

Wake turbulence separation minima for arrivals

A
  • MEDIUM landing behind SUPER - 3 minutes
  • MEDIUM landing behind HEAVY - 2 minutes
  • LIGHT landing behind SUPER - 4 minutes
  • LIGHT landing behind HEAVY/MEDIUM - 3 minutes

N.B. For timed instrument approaches. Other than this there is only need to caution wake turbulence

230
Q

Wake turbulence separation minima for departures

A

2 minutes

  • NON-A380 HEAVY taking off behind SUPER
  • LIGHT/MEDIUM taking off behind HEAVY
  • LIGHT taking off behind MEDIUM

3 minutes

  • LIGHT/MEDIUM taking off behind a SUPER when:
  • Same RWY
  • Dependent parallel RWYs
  • Crossing RWYs if projected flight path of ACFT will cross projected flight path of first ACFT at same altitude or less than 1000ft below
  • Independent parallel RWYs if projected flight path of ACFT will cross projected flight path of first ACFT at same altitude or less than 1000ft below
231
Q

Wake turbulence separation minima for intermediate departures

A

3 minutes

  • LIGHT/MEDIUM taking off behind HEAVY
  • LIGHT taking off behind MEDIUM

4 minutes

  • LIGHT/MEDIUM taking off behind SUPER

Above applies when 2nd ACFT departing from an intermediate part of the RWY or intermediate part of dependent parallel RWY

232
Q

Wake turbulence separation minima when using displaced landing THR

A

2 minutes

  • Arriving LIGHT/MEDIUM following HEAVY departure
  • Arriving LIGHT following MEDIUM departure if projected flight paths are expected to cross when operating on a RWY with a displaced landing THR

2 minutes

  • LIGHT/MEDIUM taking off behind HEAVY arrival
  • LIGHT taking off behind MEDIUM arrival when operating on a RWY with a displaced landing THR
  • Departing LIGHT/MEDIUM follows HEAVY arrival
  • Departing LIGHT follows MEDIUM arrival
  • Arriving LIGHT/MEDIUM follows HEAVY departure
  • Arriving LIGHT follows MEDIUM departure if projected flight paths expected to cross

3 minutes

  • LIGHT/MEDIUM taking off behind SUPER arrival
  • Arriving LIGHT/MEDIUM following SUPER departure if projected flight paths are expected to cross on a RWY with a displaced landing THR
  • Departing LIGHT/MEDIUM follows SUPER arrival
233
Q

What is meant my dependent and independent parallel RWYs?

A

Dependent - RWYs separated my less than 760m
Independent - RWYs separated by 760m or more

234
Q

What is ACAS?

A

Airborne Collision Avoidance System

ACFT system based on SSR transponder signals which operates independently of ground based equipment to provide advice to the pilot on potential conflicting traffic that are equipped with SSR transponders

235
Q

Which ACFT must carry ACAS (TCAS II Version 7.1)

A

Unless otherwise authorised, turbine-powered aeroplanes with maximum certified take-off mass (MCTOM) of more than 5700 kg or a maximum operational passenger seating configuration (MOPSC) of more than 19

236
Q

What is the only equipment currently available to meet ACAS II requirements?

A

TCAS II

237
Q

What does TCAS II give us that TCAS I didn’t?

A

Resolution Advisory’s (RA)

238
Q

What are the components of TCAS?

A
  • Antennae
  • TCAS processor
  • Transponder control panel
  • Vertical Speed Indicator - Visual display
  • Voice Warning System “Traffic Traffic”
239
Q

What types of transponder allow the use of TCAS?

A
  • Mode A/C - Give both TA and RA but only if Mode C available
  • Mode S - Communicate with each other and agree course of action
  • TCAS depends entirely on SSR, therefor no transponder means no TCAS alert
240
Q

What symbology is used in TCAS?

A
  • Other Traffic - Hollow cyan (light blue) or white diamond - (Non-altitude reporting and none threat)
  • Proximate Traffic - Solid cyan (light blue) or white diamond - Any target within 6nm and 1200ft
  • Intruders - Solid yellow or amber circle (Triggers TA) - 20-48 secs before closest point of approach (CPA) - “Traffic Traffic”
  • Threats - Solid red square (Triggers RA) - Starts conflict resolution process, up to 35 secs before CPA - “Climb, climb now”
241
Q

What is a TA?

A

Traffic Advisory

  • Pilots advised not to take avoiding action on basis of TA
  • May request traffic information from ATC but don’t routinely pass
  • It may not be the traffic you think it is
  • 20-48 seconds before closest point of approach (CPA)
242
Q

What is an RA?

A

Resolution Advisory

  • Pilots shall respond immediately
  • Disengage autopilot and respond within 5 seconds unless doing so would jeopardise ACFT
  • Have been instructed to restrict manoeuvres to MIN necessary to resolve confliction, advise ATC ASAP and return to original flight path when safe to do so
  • Up to 35 seconds before closet point of approach (CPA)
243
Q

What are ATC actions in the event of a TCAS RA?

A
  • Acknowledge call with “Roger”
  • Do not Issue Instructions to the ACFT
  • ATC responsibility ceases for provision of standard separation from affected traffic
  • Controllers should not routinely pass traffic information to ACFT conducting RA manoeuvres, or other ACFT affected by such manoeuvres

Controller shall resume responsibility for providing separation for affected ACFT when:

  1. Controller acknowledges a report from the flight crew that ACFT has resumed current clearance

Or

  1. Controller acknowledges report flight crew they are resuming current clearance and issues an alternative clearance which is acknowledged by flight crew
244
Q

What are the limitations of TCAS (i.e. Below what levels are TCAS RAs inhibited)?

A
  • Enhanced RA “Increase Descent” is inhibited below 1450ft agl
  • Descend RA is inhibited below 1100ft agl
  • All RAs inhibited below 1000ft agl
  • All spoken messages inhibited below 500ft agl
  • RAs also inhibited when some terrain avoidance systems or windshear warnings are active
245
Q

What are frequent causes Nuisance RAs?

A
  • High-vertical speed, particularly at low level in congested airspace
  • Ground testing of transponders
246
Q

All ACAS RAs are required to be reported under the __________

A

MOR Scheme

247
Q

What are the 3 phases of emergency?

A
  • INCERFA - Uncertainty phase - Uncertainty exists as to safety on an ACFT and its occupants
  • ALERFA - Alert phase - Apprehension exists as to safety of an ACFT and its occupants
  • DETRESFA - Distress phase - Reasonable certainty that ACFT and its occupants are threatened by grave and immediate danger and require immediate assistance
248
Q

When does the INCERFA phase commence?

A
  1. Earliest of no comms from/to ACFT 30 mins after:
    a. time should have been received
    b. first time unable to contact

Or

  1. ACFT fails to arrive within 30 minutes of last notified ETA or estimated by ATSUs, whichever is later

Except

No doubt exists as to safety of ACFT and occupants

249
Q

When does the ALERFA phase commence?

A
  1. After Uncertainty phase, further attempts to establish comms or further inquiries fail to reveal news

Or

  1. ACFT cleared to land fails to land within 5 mins of landing estimate and comms not regained

Or

  1. Information received indicating operating efficiency of ACFT impaired, but not to extent forced landing likely

Or

  1. ACFT known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference

Except

Evidence exists allaying apprehension to the safety of ACFT and its occupants

250
Q

When does the DETRESFA phase commence?

A
  1. After alert phase, further attempts to establish comms more widespread inquiries point to the probability the ACFT is in distress

Or

  1. Fuel on board considered exhausted or insufficient for ACFT to reach safety

Or

  1. Info received indicating operating efficiency of ACFT impaired and a forced landing is likely

Or

  1. Info received or reasonably certain ACFT has or is about to make a forced landing

Except

Reasonably certain ACFT and occupants are not threatened by grave and imminent danger and do not require immediate assistance

251
Q

What is CDM?

A

Collaborative Decision Making

Stakeholders include NM staff, FMPs, ANSPs, AOs, affected military authorities and airport authorities.

252
Q

What is ATFM?

A

Air Traffic Flow Management

Service established with objective of contributing to a safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic by ensuring that ATC capacity is utilised to MAX extent, and that traffic volume is compatible with capacities declared by appropriate ATS authority

253
Q

What is ATFCM?

A

Air Traffic Flow and Capacity Management

  • Enhances ATFM with objective of managing balance of demand and capacity by optimising use of available resources and coordinating adequate responses, in order to enhance quality of service and the performance of the ATM system
  • Endeavours to make airspace and aerodrome capacity meet traffic demand
  • When these endeavours are exhausted, make demand meet the MAX available capacity
254
Q

What are CTOTs and their associated window?

A

Calculated TKOF time

  • Sent over ATFN aiming to allow continuous maximum flow rate without congestion along airways system
  • Window is 5 minutes before to 10 minutes after
  • ATC and airline operators jointly responsible for slot adherence. ATC must ensure ACFT can meet slots before authorising start up
255
Q

What is FMP?

A

Flow Management Position

  • Working position at ATCU to ensure interface with central management unit on ATFM matters
  • ATC and NMOC interface
  • Responsible for ensuring local promulgation of procedures which affect ATC Units or operators within FMP areas
  • Shall monitor effectiveness of such procedures
256
Q

What may be looked at in pre-tactical phase

A
  • Military training
  • Air shows
  • Aerodrome works

Etc

257
Q

How do you calculate delay?

A

CTOT - EOBT - TAXITIME = DELAY