Air Traffic Management Flashcards

Question

Compare Short Term Conflict Alert (STCA), Tactical Controller Tool (TCT) and Medium Term Conflict Detection (MTCD) in terms of Look Ahead Time, Input and what they are used as

Answer 1

**STCA:** **Look Ahead Time** - Usually 1-2 minutes **Input** - Surveillance date **Used As** - Safety net **TCT:** **Look Ahead Time** - Up to 5-8 minutes **Input** - Surveillance and/or flight path data **Used As** - Conflict resolution and clearance verification tool (informs if the current clearance results in a breach) **MTCD:** **Look Ahead Time** - Up to 20 minutes **Input** - Flight plan data and controller input (clearances) **Used As** - Planning tool consisting of Trajectory Prediction, Conflict Detection, Trajectory Update, Trajectory Edition

Answer 2

**PSR** The situation which exists when the position indication of a particular ACFT is seen on a situation display and is positively identified **SSR** Correlating a particular position indication with a specific ACFT target by means of laid down procedures

Answer 3

Information superimposed on a situation display to provide ready identification of selected features

Answer 4

The electronic superimposing of a map or plan on a situation display

Answer 5

- Turn Method - Departing ACFT Method - Position Report Method

Answer 6

- Ascertain ACFT heading and observe track for period of time - Correlate observed movement with acknowledged execution of instruction to alter heading by at least 30º - **Turn Method 1** - One or more changes of heading by at least 30º as instructed by controller - **Turn Method 2** - One or more change of heading of at least 30º as reported by pilot

Answer 7

**Considerations** - Terrain - PSR coverage - Other surveillance returns - Rules of the air - Proximity of controlled airspace boundary **Caution** - Turn for identification does not constitute provision of a surveillance service - Verify that movements of not more than one position indication match those of the ACFT - When using this method in areas where ACFT commonly make changes of heading for navigational purposes (e.g. at a VOR)

Answer 8

- Observe and correlate position indication of departing ACFT to a known airborne time - Must be within 1nm of the end of the RWY used unless otherwise authorised by authority (in some states)

Answer 9

**Take care to avoid confusion with ACFT:** - Overflying the airfield - Making a missed approach - Departing from adjacent RWY - Holding overhead the airfield

Answer 10

Correlating particular radar position indication with ACFT reporting position over, or as bearing and distance from point shown on the situation display And By ascertaining that track is consistent with ACFT path or reported heading **Reported position must be within PSR coverage** N.B. - Use alternative method if there is any doubt concerning identification N.B.B. Point refers to a geographical point suitable for purposes of identification. Normally a reporting point

Answer 11

Level or levels above which it may not be applied in respect of specified navaids Or A distance from the radar site beyond which it may not be applied

Answer 12

- Incorrect assumptions concerning identity - Identification procedures not correctly applied - Turn Method - two ACFT make co-incident turns - Pilot makes inaccurate position report which coincides with position of another ACFT

Answer 13

- Tell pilot and instruct to resume own navigation - Climb ACFT to a safe level if necessary - Provide vertical separation from other ACFT and pass essential traffic information - Continue to search for ACFT - Make use of Direction finding (DF) facilities (triangulation) - Cancel any descent clearance and advise pilot to climb back to original level N.B. Pilot shall be informed whenever identification is lost

Answer 14

**A position established by a navigational facility** **Examples** - Overhead a VOR or NDB - A notified fix defined by VOR radials or a VOR radial and a bearing from an NDB - A position defined by a VOR radial and a range from a co-located DME

Answer 15

- Primary Surveillance Radar - Secondary Surveillance Radar

Answer 16

The situation which exists when the radar position symbol of a particular ACFT is seen and identified on a situation display

Answer 17

**Checking that the correct code has been selected by pilot and is shown on situation display** **Achieved by** - Instructing ACFT to squawk assigned code and observe that correct numbers appear on the situation display - Instructing ACFT to “squawk ident” and simultaneously checking that code numbers associated with radar return are correct - Matching previously identified primary radar return with the assigned code for the flight N.B. It is possible to achieve identification and validation simultaneously

Answer 18

Validate and verify it

Answer 19

By means of a radar processor, SSR data may be correlated with stored flight plan data, enabling a code / callsign conversion to take place N.B. Without correct validation procedures carried out, the resulting correlation could give rise to incorrect data being displayed

Answer 20

- Check to confirm that ACFTs Mode C read out is accurate within agreed parameters - Strict guidelines concerning the use of Mode C data which vary according to whether the readout is verified or not **How it is achieved** - If necessary with assistance of another ATSU - If in error, request pilot to check altimeter setting and confirm level - If still in error, “Stop Squawk Altitude” or “Stop squawk Altitude, wrong indication, Squawk 0000”– to indicate a data error (if independent switching of Mode C is not possible)

Answer 21

**To identify an ACFT** Following identification, outside controlled airspace, controller shall inform pilot that ACFT has been identified N.B. No longer required to pass a position to the pilot unless the controller considers it necessary

Answer 22

- Recognition of ACFT identification in SSR and/or MLAT label - Direct recognition of ACFT identification of Mode S equipped ACFT in SSR and/or MLAT label - Transfer of identification - Observation of compliance with instruction to set specific code - Observation of compliance with instruction to squawk IDENT (Cannot be used for ACFT displaying conspicuity code)

Answer 23

- Instruct pilot to reset code - If error persists, instruct pilot to squawk A0000 - If error still exists, instruct pilot to switch off transponder N.B. A corrupt code may be retained for identification and tracking purposes if Mode C is verified. Adjacent ATSUs must be informed

Answer 24

When code set can be recognised by the Code Assignment Plan (in AIP) to have been assigned by an ATC unit capable of validating the code, providing the code has not been notified as being corrupt

Answer 25

When associated with a deemed validated Mode A Code

Answer 26

- Mode C readout indicates **± 200ft** from that level in RVSM (FL290 - 410) or - **± 300ft** in other airspace, unless ATS authority specify smaller criterion, but not less than **± 200ft** N.B. RVSM = Reduced Vertical Separation Minima

Answer 27

Mode C readout shows a change of **more than 300ft** from its previously occupied level and is continuing in **anticipated direction**

Answer 28

When Mode C readout indicates that it has passed this level in **required direction** by **more than 300 ft**

Answer 29

After **three display updates, three sensor updates or 15 seconds**, whichever is greater Has passed since Mode C readout indicated within appropriate tolerances of assigned level

Answer 30

**1.** **AUTOMATED MEANS**, provided only one position indication and there is no doubt **2.** Notification of ACFTs **DISCRETE SSR CODE** or ACFT address **3.** Notification that **ACFT IS SSR MODE S / ADSB EQUIPPED** with an ACFT **IDENTIFICATION FEATURE** when **SSR MODE S COVERAGE AVAILABLE** **4.** Notification that ACFT is **ADSB EQUIPPED** with ACFT **IDENTIFICATION FEATURE** when compatible **ADSB COVERAGE AVAILABLE** **5.** **DIRECT DESIGNATION** (pointing with the finger) of position indication, if the two situation displays are adjacent or if common “conference” type of situation display is used **6.** Designation of position indication by reference to **BEARING AND DISTANCE** from geographical position or nav facility, together with track of observed position indication. If route of ACFT is not known to both controllers, ATS authority may prescribe additional conditions for application of this method. **For example** **6a.** Max distance from common reference point used by the two controllers **6b.** Max distance between position indication as observed by accepting controller and one stated by transferring controller 7. **TRANSFERRING CONTROLLER** instructs ACFT to **CHANGE SSR CODE** and change observed by **ACCEPTING CONTROLLER** 8. **TRANSFERRING CONTROLLER** instructs ACFT to **SQUAWK IDENT** and observed by **ACCEPTING CONTROLLER** N.B. Use of procedures 7 and 8 require prior coordination between the controllers, since indications to be observed by accepting controller are of short duration

Answer 31

1. **UPON IDENTIFICATION**, **EXCEPT** when identification is established based on **PILOT POSITION REPORT** or **DEPARTING ACFT METHOD** or by use of either **ADSB / SSR Mode S ACFT IDENT OR** assigned **DISCRETE SSR CODES** and location of position indication is consistent with CPL of ACFT or by **TRANSFER OF IDENTIFICATION** 2. **PILOT REQUEST** 3. When **PILOT ESTIMATE DIFFERS SIGNIFICANTLY** from controller’s estimate based on observed position 4. When pilot is instructed to resume **OWN NAVIGATION** after vectoring if current instructions had diverted the ACFT from **PREVIOUSLY ASSIGNED ROUTE** 5. Immediately **BEFORE TERMINATION OF ATS SURVEILLANCE**, if ACFT is observed to **DEVIATE FROM INTENDED ROUTE**

Answer 32

1. Well-known geographical position 2. Magnetic track and distance to a significant point, en-route navigation aid, or approach aid 3. Direction (using points of the compass) and distance from known position 4. Distance to touchdown, if ACFT on final approach 5. Distance and direction from centre line of ATS route

Answer 33

Navigational guidance to ACFT in form of specific headings, based on use of an ATS surveillance system.

Answer 34

- 2.5nm - Where minimum permissible separation is greater than 5nm - A distance equivalent to one-half of prescribed separation minimum, from limit of airspace for which controller is responsible **Unless** Local arrangements have been made to ensure that separation will exist with ACFT operating in adjoining areas

Answer 35

- In an emergency - In order to circumnavigate adverse MET conditions - pilot should be informed - Or at specific request of pilot

Answer 36

- Angle of turn (total change of heading) - Time lag or delay in the turn being initiated by the pilot - Drift caused by wind speed and direction - Groundspeed - Rate of turn

Answer 37

**Straight line** - Lose height - Avoid weather or PE clutter - Fit in the traffic sequence - Avoid high ground, obstructions, other airspace etc - Provide reasonable angle of closure to final approach track

Answer 38

- Be established on the final approach track prior to intercepting the specified or nominal glide path of the approach procedure from below - Intercept the ILS localiser course at an angle of 45°or less

Answer 39

All traffic on manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all ACFT flying in vicinity of an aerodrome N.B. An ACFT is in vicinity of an aerodrome when it is in, entering or leaving an aerodrome traffic circuit

Answer 40

All ACFT in flight or operating on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome

Answer 41

That part of movement area intended for landing or take-off of ACFT

Answer 42

Issue information and clearance to ACFT under their control to achieve safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic on and in vicinity of an aerodrome with the objective of preventing collision(s) between: - ACFT flying within designated area of responsibility of control tower, including aerodrome traffic circuits - ACFT operating on manoeuvring area - ACFT landing and taking off - ACFT and vehicles operating on manoeuvring area - ACFT on manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area

Answer 43

- Aerodrome controller (AIR) - Ground controller (GMC) - Clearance delivery position (GMP)

Answer 44

Any ACFT, vehicle or personnel on or near manoeuvring area or traffic operating in vicinity of aerodrome, which may constitute a hazard to ACFT concerned N.B. Essential local traffic shall be described so as to be easily identified and information must be transmitted without delay

Answer 45

- RWY to be used - Surface wind direction and speed including significant variations - QNH and either on a regular basis in accordance with local arrangements or if requested, QFE - Air temperature for RWY to be used, (in the case of jet ACFT) - Visibility representative of direction of TKOF and initial climb, if less than 10 km, or, when applicable, RVR value(s) for RWY to be used - Correct time N.B. Needs to be in order listed

Answer 46

- RWY to be used - Surface wind direction and speed including significant variations - QNH and either on a regular basis in accordance with local arrangements or if requested, QFE N.B. Needs to be in order listed

Answer 47

1. Frequency change 2. Hovering 3. Air-taxiing

Answer 48

- ACFT which are landing, taxiing or taking off - Except vehicles proceeding to assistance of an ACFT in distress shall be afforded priority over all other surface movement traffic N.B. In latter case, all movement of surface traffic should, to the extent practicable, be halted until it is determined that the progress of the emergency vehicles will not be impeded

Answer 49

A holding point or position which equates to one

Answer 50

- ACFT landing or in final stages of approach normally have priority over ACFT intending to depart from same or intersecting RWY - Departures normally cleared in order they are ready for TKOF - deviations can be made in order to facilitate maximum number of departures with minimum average delay

Answer 51

- Type of ACFT and relative performance - Route to be followed after TKOF - Minimum Departure Interval (MDI)? - Need to apply wake turbulence separation minima - ACFT which should be afforded priority - ACFT subject to ATFM requirements (Slots) - Joint pilot and controller responsibility N.B. ATFM = Air Traffic Flow Management

Answer 52

**Preceding departing ACFT** - Has crossed end of RWY in use Or - Has started a turn Or **Preceding landed ACFT** - Has vacated RWY in use N.B. Resealable assurance that separation will exist when ACFT commences TKOF

Answer 53

- Hold short of an intersecting RWY after landing - Land beyond the touchdown zone of RWY - Vacate RWY at a specified exit TWY - Expedite vacating RWY

Answer 54

- Type of ACFT - RWY length - Location of exit TWYs - Reported braking action on RWY and TWY - Prevailing MET conditions

Answer 55

**(a)** Adequate separation can be provided by aerodrome controller when each ACFT is continuously visible to controller. **Both ACFT constantly visible to ADC** Or **(b)** Each ACFT continuously visible to flight crews of other ACFT concerned and pilots report that they can maintain own separation **Both ACFT constantly visible to each other and agreed to take own separation** Or **(c)** In case of one ACFT following another, flight crew of succeeding ACFT reports that other ACFT in sight and separation can be maintained. **Following ACFT has preceding ACFT in sight and agrees to take own separation**

Answer 56

- RWY length - Aerodrome layout - Types and categories of ACFT involved N.B.Published in AIP and MATS Part 2. ATCOs trained in use of procedures

Answer 57

**Category 1** - Single engine propeller - MAX Cert TKOF mass 2000kg or less **Category 2** - Single engine propeller - MAX Cert TKOF mass more than 2000kg but less than 7000kg - Twin engine propeller - MAX Cert TKOF mass less than 7000kg **Category 3** - All other ACFT

Answer 58

- Departing - Landing

Answer 59

1. Daylight only 2. Wake turbulence separation shall be applied 3. Visibility at least 5km and cloud ceiling not lower than 1000ft 4. Tailwind component shall not exceed 5kts 5. Landmarks/visual references to allow ATCOs to assess distances. SMGCS if used must be approved (safety assessment) 6. MIN separation continues to exist between two departing ACFT immediately after TKOF of second ACFT 7. Traffic information shall be provided to second ACFT 8. Braking good - No RWY contaminants such as ice, slush, snow and water N.B. Daylight defined as 30 minutes after local sunrise to 30 minutes before local sunset

Answer 60

**Category ‘X’ may cross RWY THR when…** - **1** - Preceding Category 1/2 landed, **600m** from THR, in motion and will vacate without backtracking. Or airborne and **600m** from THR - **2** - Preceding Category 1/2 landed, **1500m** from THR, in motion and will vacate without backtracking. Or airborne and **1500m** from THR - **3** - Preceding Category 3 landed, **2400m** from THR, in motion and will vacate without backtracking. Or airborne and **2400m** from THR **N.B. Associated distances: 1: 600m, 2: 1500m, 3: 2400m**

Answer 61

**Category ‘X’ may be cleared for TKOF when preceding departing…** - **1** - Preceding Category 1/2 airborne and at least **600m** from position of succeeding ACFT - **2** - Preceding Category 1/2 airborne and at least **1500m** from position of succeeding ACFT - **3** - Preceding Category 3 airborne and at least **2400m** from position of succeeding ACFT **N.B. Associated distances: 1: 600m, 2: 1500m, 3: 2400m**

Answer 62

- Atmospheric pressure at official aerodrome level - Altimeter will read zero when ACFT is on ground at station

Answer 63

- Atmospheric pressure at mean sea level - Altimeter will read aerodrome elevation when ACFT is on ground at station

Answer 64

Standard pressure setting 1013.25hPa

Answer 65

Vertical distance of a level, point or object considered as a point measured from specified datum

Answer 66

Vertical distance of a level, point or object considered as a point measured from mean sea level

Answer 67

Vertical distance of a point or level, on or affixed to the surface of the earth, measured from mean sea level N.B. AD Elevation is highest point on the landing area

Answer 68

When it is 7ft or more below aerodrome elevation and for precision approach RWYs

Answer 69

Surface of constant atmospheric pressure, which is related to a specific pressure datum, 1013.25 hPa, and is separated from other such surfaces by specific pressure intervals

Answer 70

The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an ACFT is controlled by reference to altitudes N.B. Located at a fixed level and published in AIP

Answer 71

**The lowest Flight Level available for use above the Transition Altitude** Located at least a nominal 1000ft above TA to permit TA and TL to be used concurrently in cruising flight with vertical separation ensured **Determined as follows** - **In controlled airspace** - normally based on QNH of major aerodrome - **Outside controlled airspace** - Based on local aerodrome QNH

Answer 72

The airspace between the TA and TL

Answer 73

- IFR on Westbound magnetic tracks (180º - 359º) - VFR as per IFR +500ft up to FL285 (VFR flight not approved above FL290)

Answer 74

- IFR on Eastbound magnetic tracks (360º - 179º) - VFR as per IFR +500ft up to FL285 (VFR not approved above FL290)

Answer 75

- ACFT which anticipates being compelled to land because of factors affecting the safe operation of the ACFT e.g. engine failure, shortage of fuel etc - Hospital ACFT or ACFT carrying any sick of seriously injured persons requiring urgent medical attention - ACFT engaged in SAR - Other ACFT as may be determined by appropriate authority

Answer 76

- During VMC climb or descent when pilots have agreed to maintain own separation - Under specific conditions, in the vicinity of an aerodrome - Under specific conditions, when an ACFT is executing a visual approach and has preceding traffic in sight

Answer 77

ACFT may be cleared for VMC climb/descent when operating in Class D/E airspace in VMC during the day. ACFT fly subject to own separation provided both pilots agree - Specified portion of the flight, at or below FL100 during climb or descent - If ACFT encounter IFR, ATC to be informed and altitude clearance issued - Essential traffic info must be passed

Answer 78

- Annex 10 - Aeronautical Telecommunications - Doc 4444 PANS ATM - SERA - Annex 14 - Aerodromes - CAP 493 - MATS Part 1 - CAP 413 - Radiotelephony Manual

Answer 79

Provide maximum clarity, brevity and unambiguity in communications

Answer 80

Not exceeding 100 words per minute

Answer 81

- 118.000 to 136.975MHz - 8.33kHz in Europe (although small number of 25kHz frequencies remain in use) N.B. 8.33kHz spacing was introduced to alleviate VHF congestion

Answer 82

**Transmission** - Identification of aeronautical station being called - ACFT identification - “Radio check” - Frequency being used **Reply** - Identification of station calling - Identification of station replying - Information regarding readability of transmission

Answer 83

1. Unreadable 2. Readable now and then 3. Readable with difficulty 4. Readable 5. Perfectly readable

Answer 84

- ACFT call signs - Flight levels (except FL100, FL200, etc) - Headings - Wind direction and speed - Pressure settings (except QNH 1000) - Frequencies - Transponder codes (except whole 000’s) - ACFT speeds

Answer 85

**Air Space Management** - A planning function - Primary objective of maximising utilisation of available airspace by dynamic time-sharing segregation of airspace (short term) **In future** A strategic function with infrastructure planning

Answer 86

**Flexible Use of Airspace** - ASM concept, described by ICAO and developed by EUROCONTROL - Airspace should no longer be designated as either military or civil - Should be considered one continuum, used flexibly on a day to day basis - Any necessary reservations or segregations should only be temporary

Answer 87

- FUA Level 1 - Strategic - National and international agreements (7 or more days prior). Re-routing or re-scheduling. Network Operations Plan - FUA Level 2 - Pre-tactical - Short timescale (1-6 days prior). Initial/Daily Network Plan (ADP) - FUA Level 3 - Tactical - At the time (On the day) N.B. In order to increase safety and capacity and improve efficiency of ACFT operations, consistency between ASM, ATFM and ATS shall be established and maintained at the above 3 levels

Answer 88

- Be of a temporary nature, applied only during limited times and based on actual use of airspace - Applied across national borders and/or the boundaries of FIRs - ATS units and airspace users make best use of available airspace

Answer 89

**Airspace Management Cell** Joint civil/military cell responsible for day-to-day management and temporary allocation of national or sub regional airspace under jurisdiction of one or more ECAC States

Answer 90

**Temporary Airspace Allocation** - Permits activities requiring temporary reservation to be allocated on day before operations to allow Airspace Management Cell (AMC) to make available, if required, Conditional Routes (CDRs) established through them outside their planned hours - Planned activity and conditions for use of TRA/TSA and AMC-manageable D or R areas will be published daily in national “Airspace Use Plan” (AUP).

Answer 91

**Temporary Reserved Area** Defined volume of airspace normally under the jurisdiction of one aviation authority and **temporarily reserved**, by common agreement, for the specific use by another aviation authority and through which **other traffic may be allowed to transit, under ATC clearance** N.B. ASM Level 2

Answer 92

**Temporary Segregated Area** Defined volume of airspace normally under the jurisdiction of one aviation authority and **temporarily segregated**, by common agreement, for the exclusive use by another aviation authority and through which **other traffic will not be allowed to transit** N.B. ASM Level 2

Answer 93

Airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial waters of a State, within which the flight of ACFT is restricted in accordance with certain specified condition N.B. Established at ASM Level 1 and some subject to management and allocation at ASM Level 2

Answer 94

Airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of ACFT may exist at specified times N.B. Established at ASM Level 1 and some subject to management and allocation at ASM Level 2

Answer 95

**Conditional Route** - ATS routes usable only under specified conditions - A CDR may have more than 1 category **Three types:** - CAT 1 (CDR1) - Permanently plannable during times published (in AIP) - CAT 2 (CDR2) - Only plannable in accordance with conditions in daily airspace utilisation plan (AUP) - CAT 3 (CDR3) - Not plannable but may be used tactically by ATC

Answer 96

Dynamic Management of European Airspace Network

Answer 97

1. First and at least last 2 characters of ACFT registration e.g. GABCD becomes G-CD or Cessna CD 2. Telephony designator of ACFT operator and at least 2 characters of ACFT registration e.g. FASTAIR DCAB becomes FASTAIR AB 3. None abbreviated form e.g. FASTAIR 345

Answer 98

**Authorisation** for an ACFT **to proceed** under conditions specified by an air traffic control unit N.B. The term “air traffic control clearance” is frequently abbreviated to “clearance” when used in appropriate contexts

Answer 99

**Directive** issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a **specific action**

Answer 100

A clearance issued to an ACFT by an air traffic control unit that is not the current controlling authority of that ACFT

Answer 101

Point to which an ACFT is granted an air traffic control clearance **Shall be specified by describing:** - Name of appropriate reporting point - Aerodrome - Controlled airspace boundary

Answer 102

1. Clearance shall be issued solely for expediting and separating air traffic and be based on known traffic conditions which affect safety in ACFT operation. Such traffic conditions include not only **ACFT in air and on manoeuvring area** over which control is being exercised, but also any **vehicular traffic or other obstructions** not permanently installed on manoeuvring area in use 2. ATC units shall issue such ATC clearances as necessary to **prevent collisions and expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic** 3. ATC clearances shall be issued early enough to ensure that they are transmitted to the ACFT **in sufficient time** for it to comply with them

Answer 103

- Constitute authority to violate applicable regs for promoting the safety of flight operations or for any other purpose - Relieve pilot-in-command of any responsibility in connection with possible violation of applicable rules and regs

Answer 104

Prior to operating a controlled flight or a portion of a flight as a controlled flight

Answer 105

Submission of a flight plan to an Air Traffic Control Unit

Answer 106

Inform ATC. ATC will issue an amended clearance if practicable

Answer 107

A report explaining need for such priority if requested by the appropriate Air Traffic Controller Unit

Answer 108

Appropriate ATCUs shall be notified by insertion in flight plan of information concerning revised route and revised destination

Answer 109

Without clearance from the aerodrome controller and shall comply with any instructions given by that unit

Answer 110

1. **ACFT identification** as shown in flight plan 2. **Clearance limit** 3. **Route of flight** i. The route of flight shall be detailed in each clearance when deemed necessary; and ii. Phrase ‘cleared via flight planned route’ shall not be used when granting a re-clearance 4. **Level(s) of flight** for entire route or part thereof and changes of levels if required 5. Any **necessary instructions** or **information** on other matters such as **approach or departure manoeuvres, communications and time of expiry of clearance**

Answer 111

1. Areas where TA established, vertical position ACFT shall, except as provided for in (5), be expressed as altitudes at or below TA and FLs at or above TL. While passing through transition layer, vertical position shall be expressed in FLs when climbing and altitudes when descending 2. TL provided in due time prior to reaching it during descent 3. QNH included in descent clearance when first cleared at altitude below TL, in approach clearances or clearances to enter traffic circuit, and in taxi clearances for departing ACFT except when it is known that the ACFT has already received the information in a directed transmission 4. QFE provided to ACFT on request or on regular basis in accordance with local arrangements 5. When ACFT given clearance to land is using QFE, vertical position ACFT shall be expressed as height above aerodrome elevation. However, expressed in terms of height above RWY THR elevation when: i. For instrument runways if THR is 7 ft or more below AD Elev; and ii. For precision approach RWYs

Answer 112

- Conditional phrases, such as ‘behind landing ACFT’ or ‘after departing ACFT’, shall not be used for movements affecting the active RWY(s), **EXCEPT** when ACFT or vehicles concerned are seen by appropriate controller and pilot - ACFT or vehicle causing condition in the clearance issued shall be the first ACFT/vehicle to pass in front of the other ACFT concerned **Conditional clearance shall be given in following order** 1. Call sign 2. Condition 3. Clearance 4. Brief reiteration of condition.

Answer 113

**Safety related parts of ATC clearances and instructions transmitted by voice** 1. ATC route clearances i. Clearances and instructions to enter, land on, TKOF from, hold short of, cross, taxi and backtrack on any RWY **Basically anything to do with RWY; and ii. RWY in use, altimeter settings, SSR codes, newly assigned communication channels, level instructions, heading and speed instructions; and iii. Whether issued by the controller or contained in ATIS broadcasts, transition levels 2. Other clearances or instructions, including conditional clearances and taxi instructions, shall be read back or acknowledged 3. Controller shall listen to read-back to and shall take immediate action to correct errors 4. Voice read-back of CPDLC messages shall not be required, unless otherwise specified by the ANSP N.B. CPDLC stands for Controller-Pilot Da ta-Link Communications

Answer 114

1. An ATC Clearance shall be coordinated between ATSU’s to cover entire route of ACFT or specified portion as described below 2. ACFT shall be cleared for entire route to intended AD: i. When, prior to departure clearance has been coordinated the clearance between all units u nder whose control ACFT will come; or ii. When reasonably assured that prior coordination will be effected between those units under whose control the ACFT will subsequently come 3. When above in (2) not achieved/anticipated, ACFT shall be cleared to a point where coordination is reasonably assured. Prior to reaching such point, or at such point, ACFT shall receive further clearance, holding instructions being issued as appropriate

Answer 115

- When prescribed by ATS unit, ACFT shall contact a downstream ATCU, for purpose of receiving downstream clearance prior to transfer of control point - ACFT shall maintain necessary two-way communication with current ATCU whilst obtaining downstream clearance - Clearance issued as a downstream clearance shall be clearly identifiable as such to the pilot - Unless coordinated, downstream clearances shall not affect ACFTs original flight profile in any airspace, other than that of the ATCU responsible for delivery of downstream clearance

Answer 116

- Coordination with subsequent ACC shall be affected prior to issuance of departure clearance - If ACFT intends to depart and enter another control area within **30 minutes** or other specific period of time agreed by ACCs concerned

Answer 117

Clearance from point of departure to aerodrome of first intended landing may be issued N.B. Such clearance or revisions of shall apply only to those portions of the flight conducted within controlled airspace

Answer 118

**MAY DAY MAY DAY MAY DAY - ACFT threatened by grave and imminent danger, requires immediate assistance** - Name of station addressed - ACFT ident - Nature of emergency - Pilots intentions - Position, level and heading - Other information (time permitting) N.B. Remember in the order listed!!

Answer 119

**PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN - Safety ACFT, vehicle, property or person on board or in sight but which does not require immediate assistance** - Name of station addressed - ACFT ident - Nature of emergency - Pilots intentions - Position, level and heading - Pilot qualification - Other information (time permitting) N.B. Remember in the order listed!!

Answer 120

Distress and urgency

Answer 121

“All Stations, Avon Tower, Stop transmitting - Mayday”

Answer 122

“All Stations, Avon Tower. Distress traffic ended”

Answer 123

“Mayday ‘G-HELP’. All other ACFT contact Avon Radar on 123.150 out”

Answer 124

A designated instrument flight rule (IFR) departure route linking aerodrome or specified RWY of aerodrome with a specified significant point, normally on a designated ATS route, at which the en-route phase of a flight commences

Answer 125

A designated instrument flight rule (IFR) arrival route linking significant point, normally on ATS route, with a point from which a published instrument approach procedure can be commenced

Answer 126

- Segregate traffic operating along different route and traffic in holding patterns - Provide adequate terrain clearance - Compatible with Radio Communication Failure (RTF) procedures - Compatible with Noise Preferential Routes (NPRs) - Allow for uninterrupted climb and descent - Allow for performance of ACFT (Must cater for poorest performance) - Reduce RT loading for ATC and pilots

Answer 127

**Noise Preferential Routes** - Help ACFT avoid noise-sensitive areas on departure and arrival (Includes turning away) - Designed to minimise overall exposure to noise on ground and at same time maintain required levels of flight safety - Always be incorporated into SIDs

Answer 128

**Example BRN 1C: (1)BRN, (2)1, (3)C** 1. Basic Indicator - Where ATS route ends and instrument approach begins 2. Validity Indicator - Indicates amendment number 3. Route Indicator - Indicates the particular STAR route within a group

Answer 129

- Standard arrival routes (STARs) - Descent gradients - Level restrictions - Speed limitations - Holding pattern - Frequency and identity coding of navaids used

Answer 130

**Example DRT 1W: (1)DRT, (2)1, (3)W** 1. Basic Indicator - Where ATS route commences and SID ends 2. Validity Indicator - Indicates amendment number 3. Runway Indicator - Indicates the SID commences from a particular RWY

Answer 131

- Standard Departure Routes (SIDs) - Frequency and identity coding of navaids used - Climb gradients - Level restrictions - Speed limitations - Transition altitude

Answer 132

The process, executed between ATC units with adjoining areas of responsibility, of formally advising each other of planned passage of flights across the boundary, in order to ensure flight safety through consistency of intended action

Answer 133

The act of negotiation between two or more parties each vested with the authority to make executive decisions appropriate to the task being discharged

Answer 134

1. Notification of flight data to prepare for coordination 2. Coordination of transferring conditions 3. Coordination of accepting conditions 4. Transfer of control to accepting ATCU or control sector

Answer 135

When a flight operating in accordance with the co-ordination has reached agreed position, level or time N.B. Do not confuse with transfer of communication

Answer 136

- Agreed Reporting Point, - On estimate for FIR boundary, - At or passing agreed level, - Climbing or descending to agreed level – providing standard separation exists

Answer 137

- Before Transfer of Control at a point/time/distance agreed upon between the transferring and accepting ATSUs - Permitted so that instructions which become effective later can be issued N.B. Do not confuse with transfer of control

Answer 138

Coordination effected by a unit (ahead of ACFTs flight path) which is not currently the control authority of that ACFT (as per downstream clearance)

Answer 139

**Letters of Agreement and they cover items below:** 1. **Definition of areas** of responsibility and common interest, airspace structure and airspace classification(s) 2. Any **delegation of responsibility** for the provision of ATS 3. Procedures for **exchange of flight plan and control data**, including use of automated and/or verbal coordination messages 4. **Means of communication** 5. Requirements and procedures for **approval requests** 6. **Significant points, levels or times for transfer of control** 7. **Significant points, levels or times for transfer of communication** 8. **Conditions applicable to transfer and acceptance of control**, such as specified altitudes/flight levels, specific separation minima or spacing to be established at time of transfer, and use of automation 9. ATS surveillance system **coordination procedures** 10. **SSR code assignment procedures** 11. Procedures for **departing traffic** 12. Designated holding fixes and procedures for **arriving traffic** 13. Applicable **contingency** procedures 14. Any **other provisions** or information relevant to coordination and transfer of control of flights N.B. DDExMAS-CCS-DA-OC

Answer 140

If flying time from departure aerodrome of an ACFT to boundary of adjacent control area is less than specified minimum required to transmit flight plan and control information to accepting ATC unit, transferring ATC unit shall, prior to departure, forward that information to accepting ATC unit together with request for approval

Answer 141

- Types of data to be exchanged - Functions to be performed - Letters of agreement - Availability of adequate communications channels - Processing facilities at the centres concerned N.B. T-FLAP

Answer 142

- Direct speech circuits - Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunication Network - Digital data exchange between ATS units - Direct computer-computer circuits

Answer 143

Adjacent ACCs and FIRs

Answer 144

- RWY in use - ETAs over holding fix if more than 3 mins - Average time interval between arrivals - Lowest vacant level available to ACC at the holding fix - Revision of EATs - Info on overdue ACFT - Missed approaches N.B. REAL RIM

Answer 145

- EAT issued - Anticipated departure delay due to congestion - Statement that ACFT instructed to contact APP - Statement that an aircraft has been released plus any conditions - Actual time and level and if released, requested type of approach procedure if different to APP offer - Callsign, type and point of departure - ETA and level of over holding fix N.B. Information on arriving ACFT shall be forwarded not less than 15 minutes before ETA N.B.B. EAT ASS ACE

Answer 146

- Coordination between ATS units in adjacent FIRs shall be effected in respect of IFR and VFR flights to ensure continued FIS - Such coordination shall be effected in accordance with an agreement between the ATS units concerned

Answer 147

**When it is necessary to:** - Coordinate departure with traffic not released to APP And - Provide en-route separation between departing ACFT following same track **When TKOF time not specified:** - APP determines TKOF time to coordinate departure with traffic released to it **Clearance expiry time specified by ACC if:** - A delayed departure would conflict with traffic not released to APP - If APP, for its own reasons needs to specify in addition to clearance expiry time, this shall not be later than ACCs

Answer 148

- ETA and level of ACFT arriving over aerodrome, at least 15 minutes prior to ETA - Statement that ACFT has been instructed to contact control tower and control assumed - Anticipated departure delay due to congestion

Answer 149

- Arrival and departure times - Statement that first ACFT in approach sequence is in communication with and is sighted by the aerodrome control tower, and that reasonable assurance exists of landing - Info relating to overdue or unreported ACFT - Missed approaches - Info on ACFT that constitute essential local traffic to ACFT under the control of APP

Answer 150

**ACFT in flight** - Give way to other ACFT and continue circling **ACFT/vehicles on ground** - STOP

Answer 151

Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being

Answer 152

**ACFT in flight** - Do not land, aerodrome unsafe **ACFT/vehicles on ground** - Move clear of landing area

Answer 153

Cleared to land or TKOF

Answer 154

**ACFT in flight** - Return to aerodrome and wait for permission to land **ACFT/vehicles on ground** - Cleared to taxi or proceed

Answer 155

**ACFT in flight** - Land at this aerodrome and proceed to APN. Landing and taxi clearances to follow **ACFT/vehicles on ground** - Return to starting point on aerodrome

Answer 156

**During Day** - **When in flight** - Rock ACFTs wings, except for the base and final legs of approach - **On ground** - Moving ACFTs ailerons or rudder **At Night** - **When in flight/on ground** - By flashing on and off twice ACFTs landing light, or if not equipped, same with navigation lights

Answer 157

Longitudinal, lateral and vertical

Answer 158

- All flights in Class A and B - IFR flights in Class C, D and E - IFR and VFR flights in Class C - IFR and SVFR - SVFR (as prescribed by appropriate authority) N.B. Also provided as far as possible between IFR in Class F N.B.B. No separation provided in Class G - responsibility of pilot

Answer 159

- Pilot request - ATCO considers in necessary - Directed by the appropriate authority - Wake turbulence

Answer 160

Take action to ensure another type of separation exists or is established prior to time when previously used separation would be insufficient **Except** When requested by pilot and agreed my pilot of other ACFT, in Class D or E airspace, flight may be cleared to maintain own separation below 10000ft during climb or descent during day in VMC. Essential traffic info passed

Answer 161

- Direction of flight concerned - Type (and wake category if required) of other ACFT - Cruising level of ACFT concerned **And** - ETA over reporting point nearest to where the level will be crossed Or - Relative bearing of ACFT concerned in terms of 12 hour clock as well as distance from conflicting traffic Or - Actual or estimated position of the ACFT concerned

Answer 162

- Use every means to obtain required minimum with least possible delay - When considered practicable (radar service) pass traffic information, otherwise Essential Traffic Information **Unless** - Pilot reports TCAS RA - no instructions to be given until pilot reports clear of conflict N.B. Separate then inform

Answer 163

1000ft below FL290 and 2000ft at or above FL290 **Except** Within RVSM airspace, 1000ft below FL410 or a higher level under specified conditions and 2000ft at or above this level

Answer 164

At a specified time, place or rate

Answer 165

**Reduced Vertical Separation Minima** - Enhanced equipment has allowed conventional 2000ft separation (CVSM) above FL290 to be reduced to 1000ft when in RVSM airspace and when so equipped N.B. Pressure altimeters inaccurate at high level due to very low pressures

Answer 166

Separate at standard separation until ACFT is below RVSM level

Answer 167

- Severe turbulence known to exist - Higher ACFT is effecting a cruise climb - Difference in ACFT performance is such that less than the applicable separation may result - In which case clearance shall be withheld until ACFT vacating level has reported at or passing another level separated by the required minimum

Answer 168

**By requiring ACFT to:** - Depart at a specified time - Lose time to arrive over a geographical location at a specified time - Hold over a geographical location until a specified time

Answer 169

Lateral, longitudinal and geographic

Answer 170

Use of speed control

Answer 171

**1 minute** May be reduced when ACFT are using parallel RWYs (Greater than 760m apart) or for operations on diverging RWYs which do not cross provided CAA has approved procedure and lateral separation effected immediately after TKOF

Answer 172

**2 minutes**

Answer 173

**5 Minutes** Must be maintained or increased while vertical separation does not exist

Answer 174

When track of one ACFT is separated from track of the other by less than 45° N.B. Less than 45º or more than 315º

Answer 175

When track of one ACFT is separated from reciprocal of the other by less than 45° N.B. More than 135º or less than 225º

Answer 176

Intersecting tracks which are not classed as ‘same’ or ‘reciprocal’

Answer 177

**15 Minutes, reduced to:** **10 minutes** If navaids permit frequent determination of position and speed **5 minutes** - If preceding ACFT is TAS 20kts or more faster than succeeding ACFT and have reported over same reporting point or departed form same aerodrome - Between departing and en-route ACFT after en-route ACFT has reported over a fix in a location which ensures 5 minute separation when departing ACFT joins route (20kt still applies) **3 minutes** As for 5 minutes if preceding ACFT is TAS 40kts or more faster

Answer 178

- **15 minutes** - **10 minutes** in Europe as navaids permit frequent determination of position and speed

Answer 179

- **15 minutes** - while vertical separation does not exist - **10 minutes** - As above if navaids permit frequent determination of position and speed - **5 minutes** - As 15 minutes provided level change commenced within 10 minutes from when 2nd ACFT reported over same fix as first

Answer 180

**10 minutes** - Before and after ACFT estimated to have passed same reporting point, unless it can be established that they have definitely passed each other then this doesn’t apply

Answer 181

- **20nm** - **10nm** provided 1st ACFT is TAS 20kts or more faster

Answer 182

**Relative angle between tracks less than 90º** - **20nm** - **10nm** provided 1st ACFT is 20kts or more faster

Answer 183

**10nm** - While vertical separation does not exist. Same waypoint, 1st ACFT remains level

Answer 184

**10nm** before and after ACFT report over same reporting point unless it can be established that they definitely passed each other and at least 10nm apart N.B. 40nm head on until they have passed

Answer 185

- Velocity of ACFT expressed as a fraction of local speed of sound - A function of temperature - the slower the colder - In ISA conditions, Mach 1 at sea level is approx 661kts TAS but 572kts at FL360 and remains until around FL600-700

Answer 186

- Mach 0.01 equals 6kts TAS - Mach 0.8 at FL290 will produce same TAS as Mach 0.83 at FL370

Answer 187

**Higher** N.B. Allowance of 0.01 Mach for each 2-3000ft level difference will achieve a close match

Answer 188

**10 minutes** or as per the table below

Answer 189

**By requiring operation:** - On different routes Or - In different geographical locations as determined by visual observation, use of navaids and use of RNAV equipment

Answer 190

- Reference to same or different geographical locations - Use of same navaid or method - Use of different navaids or methods - RNAV operations where RNP is specified on parallel tracks or ATS routes - Transitioning into airspace where greater lateral separation applies

Answer 191

A separation other than normally prescribed lateral separation for that portion of the flight between fly over waypoint, turn and next waypoint N.B. Does not apply to fly by waypoints

Answer 192

Separation positively indicated by position reports over different geographical locations as determined visually or by reference to a navaid

Answer 193

- **VOR** - Both ACFT established on radials diverging by at least **15º** and least one ACFT is **15nm** or more from VOR - **NDB** - Both ACFT established on tracks to or from the NDB diverging by at least **30º** and at least one ACFT is **15nm** or more from the NDB - **GNSS/GNSS** - Each ACFT confirmed to be established on a track with **zero offset** between 2 waypoints and at least one ACFT is at a **minimum distance** from a common point - **VOR/GNSS** - ACFT using VOR is establish on a **radial** to or from the VOR and other, using GNSS is confirmed to be established on a track with **zero offset** between 2 waypoints and least one ACFT is at a **minimum distance** from a common point N.B. Lateral separation established when using different navaids or methods by ensuring protected areas do not overlap

Answer 194

Turbulence generated by passage of an ACFFT in flight. Generated from point when nose landing gear of an ACFT leaves ground on TKOF and ceases when nose landing gear touches the ground during landing N.B. ACFT encountering such turbulence is known as a Wake Vortex Encounter

Answer 195

- Wake turbulence is the effect of the rotating air masses generated behind the wing tips of ACFT - Wake vortex describes nature of those air masses

Answer 196

**Super (J)** - A380 is H but has a MTOM of 560,000kg and generates more vortices than any other H ACFT so J is used and “Super” included immediately after ACFT callsign in initial RT **Heavy (H)** - 136,000kg or more **Medium (M)** - Less than 136,000kg but more than 7000kg **Light (L)** - 7000kg or less N.B. Letters J, H, M or L inserted into field 9 in flight plan

Answer 197

They produce vortices when in flight and per kg of gross mass are more intense than those of fixed wing ACFT

Answer 198

- Induced roll, loss of height or rate of climb, possible structural stress, adverse effect on engine including flameout - Greatest danger is roll induced on the penetrating ACFT to the degree that it exceeds counter control capability - Effect greater in approach area or climb out

Answer 199

- Calm wind - Light cross wind or tail wind - Wake turbulence drifting to another RWY

Answer 200

- Arriving VFR flights landing on same RWY as preceding Heavy or Medium ACFT - Between arriving IFR flights executing a visual approach **When** ACFT has reported preceding ACFT in sight and has been instructed to follow and maintain own separation from ACFT N.B. ATC unit shall in respect of these flights issue caution of possible wake turbulence

Answer 201

- MEDIUM landing behind SUPER - **3 minutes** - MEDIUM landing behind HEAVY - **2 minutes** - LIGHT landing behind SUPER - **4 minutes** - LIGHT landing behind HEAVY/MEDIUM - **3 minutes** N.B. For timed instrument approaches. Other than this there is only need to caution wake turbulence

Answer 202

**2 minutes** - NON-A380 HEAVY taking off behind SUPER - LIGHT/MEDIUM taking off behind HEAVY - LIGHT taking off behind MEDIUM **3 minutes** - LIGHT/MEDIUM taking off behind a SUPER when: - Same RWY - Dependent parallel RWYs - Crossing RWYs if projected flight path of ACFT will cross projected flight path of first ACFT at same altitude or less than 1000ft below - Independent parallel RWYs if projected flight path of ACFT will cross projected flight path of first ACFT at same altitude or less than 1000ft below

Answer 203

**3 minutes** - LIGHT/MEDIUM taking off behind HEAVY - LIGHT taking off behind MEDIUM **4 minutes** - LIGHT/MEDIUM taking off behind SUPER Above applies when 2nd ACFT departing from an intermediate part of the RWY or intermediate part of dependent parallel RWY

Answer 204

**2 minutes** - Arriving LIGHT/MEDIUM following HEAVY departure - Arriving LIGHT following MEDIUM departure if projected flight paths are expected to cross when operating on a RWY with a displaced landing THR **2 minutes** - LIGHT/MEDIUM taking off behind HEAVY arrival - LIGHT taking off behind MEDIUM arrival when operating on a RWY with a displaced landing THR - Departing LIGHT/MEDIUM follows HEAVY arrival - Departing LIGHT follows MEDIUM arrival - Arriving LIGHT/MEDIUM follows HEAVY departure - Arriving LIGHT follows MEDIUM departure if projected flight paths expected to cross **3 minutes** - LIGHT/MEDIUM taking off behind SUPER arrival - Arriving LIGHT/MEDIUM following SUPER departure if projected flight paths are expected to cross on a RWY with a displaced landing THR - Departing LIGHT/MEDIUM follows SUPER arrival

Answer 205

**Dependent** - RWYs separated my less than 760m **Independent** - RWYs separated by 760m or more

Answer 206

**Airborne Collision Avoidance System** ACFT system based on SSR transponder signals which operates independently of ground based equipment to provide advice to the pilot on potential conflicting traffic that are equipped with SSR transponders

Answer 207

Unless otherwise authorised, turbine-powered aeroplanes with maximum certified take-off mass (MCTOM) of **more than 5700** kg or a maximum operational passenger seating configuration (MOPSC) of more than **19**

Answer 208

Resolution Advisory’s (RA)

Answer 209

- Antennae - TCAS processor - Transponder control panel - Vertical Speed Indicator - Visual display - Voice Warning System “Traffic Traffic”

Answer 210

- **Mode A/C** - Give both TA and RA but only if Mode C available - **Mode S** - Communicate with each other and agree course of action - TCAS depends entirely on SSR, therefor no transponder means no TCAS alert

Answer 211

- **Other Traffic** - Hollow cyan (light blue) or white diamond - (Non-altitude reporting and none threat) - **Proximate Traffic** - Solid cyan (light blue) or white diamond - Any target within 6nm and 1200ft - **Intruders** - Solid yellow or amber circle (Triggers TA) - 20-48 secs before closest point of approach (CPA) - “Traffic Traffic” - **Threats** - Solid red square (Triggers RA) - Starts conflict resolution process, up to 35 secs before CPA - “Climb, climb now”

Answer 212

**Traffic Advisory** - Pilots advised not to take avoiding action on basis of TA - May request traffic information from ATC but don’t routinely pass - It may not be the traffic you think it is - 20-48 seconds before closest point of approach (CPA)

Answer 213

**Resolution Advisory** - Pilots shall respond immediately - Disengage autopilot and respond within 5 seconds unless doing so would jeopardise ACFT - Have been instructed to restrict manoeuvres to MIN necessary to resolve confliction, advise ATC ASAP and return to original flight path when safe to do so - Up to 35 seconds before closet point of approach (CPA)

Answer 214

- Acknowledge call with “Roger” - Do not Issue Instructions to the ACFT - ATC responsibility ceases for provision of standard separation from affected traffic - Controllers should not routinely pass traffic information to ACFT conducting RA manoeuvres, or other ACFT affected by such manoeuvres **Controller shall resume responsibility for providing separation for affected ACFT when:** 1. Controller acknowledges a report from the flight crew that ACFT has resumed current clearance Or 2. Controller acknowledges report flight crew they are resuming current clearance and issues an alternative clearance which is acknowledged by flight crew

Answer 215

- Enhanced RA “Increase Descent” is inhibited below 1450ft agl - Descend RA is inhibited below 1100ft agl - All RAs inhibited below 1000ft agl - All spoken messages inhibited below 500ft agl - RAs also inhibited when some terrain avoidance systems or windshear warnings are active

Answer 216

- High-vertical speed, particularly at low level in congested airspace - Ground testing of transponders

Answer 217

MOR Scheme

Answer 218

- **INCERFA** - Uncertainty phase - Uncertainty exists as to safety on an ACFT and its occupants - **ALERFA** - Alert phase - Apprehension exists as to safety of an ACFT and its occupants - **DETRESFA** - Distress phase - Reasonable certainty that ACFT and its occupants are threatened by grave and immediate danger and require immediate assistance

Answer 219

1. Earliest of no comms from/to ACFT 30 mins after: a. time should have been received b. first time unable to contact Or 2. ACFT fails to arrive within 30 minutes of last notified ETA or estimated by ATSUs, whichever is later **Except** No doubt exists as to safety of ACFT and occupants

Answer 220

1. After Uncertainty phase, further attempts to establish comms or further inquiries fail to reveal news Or 2. ACFT cleared to land fails to land within 5 mins of landing estimate and comms not regained Or 3. Information received indicating operating efficiency of ACFT impaired, but not to extent forced landing likely Or 4. ACFT known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference **Except** Evidence exists allaying apprehension to the safety of ACFT and its occupants

Answer 221

1. After alert phase, further attempts to establish comms more widespread inquiries point to the probability the ACFT is in distress Or 2. Fuel on board considered exhausted or insufficient for ACFT to reach safety Or 3. Info received indicating operating efficiency of ACFT impaired and a forced landing is likely Or 4. Info received or reasonably certain ACFT has or is about to make a forced landing **Except** Reasonably certain ACFT and occupants are not threatened by grave and imminent danger and do not require immediate assistance

Answer 222

**Collaborative Decision Making** Stakeholders include NM staff, FMPs, ANSPs, AOs, affected military authorities and airport authorities.

Answer 223

**Air Traffic Flow Management** Service established with objective of contributing to a safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic by ensuring that ATC capacity is utilised to MAX extent, and that traffic volume is compatible with capacities declared by appropriate ATS authority

Answer 224

**Air Traffic Flow and Capacity Management** - Enhances ATFM with objective of managing balance of demand and capacity by optimising use of available resources and coordinating adequate responses, in order to enhance quality of service and the performance of the ATM system - Endeavours to make airspace and aerodrome capacity meet traffic demand - When these endeavours are exhausted, make demand meet the MAX available capacity

Answer 225

**Calculated TKOF time** - Sent over ATFN aiming to allow continuous maximum flow rate without congestion along airways system - Window is 5 minutes before to 10 minutes after - ATC and airline operators jointly responsible for slot adherence. ATC must ensure ACFT can meet slots before authorising start up

Answer 226

**Flow Management Position** - Working position at ATCU to ensure interface with central management unit on ATFM matters - ATC and NMOC interface - Responsible for ensuring local promulgation of procedures which affect ATC Units or operators within FMP areas - Shall monitor effectiveness of such procedures

Answer 227

- Military training - Air shows - Aerodrome works Etc

Answer 228

CTOT - EOBT - TAXITIME = DELAY