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Exam III > Aviation Employment Considerations > Flashcards

Aviation Employment Considerations Flashcards

1
Q

Offensive Air Support is defined as

A

“those air operations conducted against
enemy installations, facilities, and personnel to directly assist the attainment of
MAGTF objectives by the destruction of enemy resources or the isolation of his
military force.”

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2
Q

Destruction missions do what

A

destroy enemy forces, equipment, supplies, and installations.

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3
Q

Neutralization missions do what

A

render areas, weapons, or enemy forces ineffective for a specified time

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4
Q

2 Major OAS Categories are

A

CAS (Close Air Support) and DAS (Deep Air Support).

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5
Q

Deep air support can be conducted in the form of

A

air interdiction, armed reconnaissance, or strike coordination and reconnaissance (SCAR)

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6
Q

Air interdiction is defined as

A

“air operations conducted to destroy, neutralize, or delay the enemy’s military potential before it can be brought to bear effectively against friendly forces at such distance from friendly forces that detailed integration of each air mission with the fire and movement of friendly forces is not required.”

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7
Q

Armed reconnaissance is defined as

A

“locating and attacking targets of opportunity, i.e., enemy material, personnel, and facilities, in assigned general areas or along assigned ground communication routes, and not for the purpose of attacking specific/located briefed targets.”

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8
Q

Strike Coordination and Reconnaissance. SCAR is defined as

A

“a mission flown for the purpose of acquiring and reporting deep air support targets and coordinating armed reconnaissance or air interdiction missions upon those targets.”

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9
Q

Close air support is defined as

A

“air action against hostile targets which are in close proximity to friendly forces and which require detailed integration of each air mission with the fire and movement of those forces.”

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10
Q

Preplanned missions are either

A

scheduled or on-call

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11
Q

Immediate missions meet requests that arise during

A

battle, strike unanticipated targets, and are generally urgent in nature

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12
Q

Anti-air warfare (AAW) is the action that is required to

A

destroy or reduce to an acceptable level the enemy air and missile threat

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13
Q

two general types of AAW are

A

Offensive AAW (OAAW) and air defense.

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14
Q

OAAW objectives include

A

weakening the enemy’s offensive air capability to a manageable level, thereby gaining access to a zone of airspace for a specified timeframe to allow friendly air operations and local air superiority in conjunction with friendly operations

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15
Q

Preemptive measures can include:

A

i. Air strikes on enemy airfields to destroy or damage aircraft, facilities, and logistic support.
ii. Attacks on command and control facilities and surveillance systems.
iii. Air strikes on the enemy’s aircraft supply and support, such as railroads and convoys.
iv. Offensive air-to-air sweeps to search out and destroy enemy aircraft.

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16
Q

Suppression of Enemy Air Defenses (SEAD). The objective of SEAD is

A

to gain access to a defined zone of airspace that will allow MAGTF operations to proceed

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17
Q

In conventional warfare, SEAD will include the following strategy mix:

A

i. Direct confrontation of the enemy’s air defense with ground forces.
ii. Direct confrontation of the enemy’s air defense with air forces.
iii. Direct confrontation of the enemy’s air defense with naval forces.
iv. Command and Control Warfare (C2W).

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18
Q

Local air superiority measures can include:

A

i. The use of offensive combat air patrols.
ii. Escort and self-escort tactics.
iii. The use of aircraft onboard countermeasures and maneuvers.

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19
Q

Air defense can be further broken down into two categories:

A

Active air defense

Passive air defense

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20
Q

Active air defense is

A

direct defensive action taken to destroy attacking enemy aircraft or missiles or to nullify or reduce the effectiveness of such an attack.

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21
Q

Passive air defense is

A

constitutes all measures, other than active air defense, taken to minimize the effects of hostile air action. These measures include the use of cover, concealment, camouflage, deception, dispersion, and protective construction.

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22
Q

The primary purpose of AAW is to gain and maintain

A

AIR SUPERIORITY

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23
Q

Air superiority is

A

“that degree of dominance in the air battle of one force over another which permits the conduct of operations by the former and its related land, sea, and air forces at a given time and place without prohibitive interference by the opposing force.”

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24
Q

Assault support provides the MAGTF commander the ability to

A

concentrate his strength against selected enemy weaknesses using speed and surprise

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25
Q

The MAGTF commander bases his decision about the extent and use of assault support on the following METT-TC considerations:

A

 MAGTF’s mission and concept of operations.
 The enemy’s capability to interrupt movement of assault support assets.
 The effect of terrain and weather on assault support missions.
 Aircraft availability and lift capability.
 Time available for planning, rehearsal and briefing.

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26
Q

general categories of assault support are

A
  1. Combat assault transport
  2. Air Delivery
  3. Aerial Refueling
  4. Air Evacuation
  5. Tactical Recovery of Aircraft and Personnel (TRAP)
  6. Air Logistical Support
  7. Battlefield Illumination
27
Q

Combat Assault Transport - provides

A

mobility for the MAGTF. It is used to rapidly deploy forces, bypass obstacles or redeploy forces to meet the enemy threat

28
Q

Combat Assault Transport is preformed by the following platforms:

A

 Marine Medium Helicopter Squadron (HMM: 12 CH-46E)
 Marine Heavy Helicopter Squadron (HMH: 16 CH-53E or 8 CH-53D)
 Marine Light/Attack Helicopter Squadron (HMLA: 9 UH-1N)
 Marine Aerial Refueler/Transport Squadron (VMGR: 12 KC-130)
 Marine Medium Tiltrotor Squadron (VMM: 12 MV-22)

29
Q

Air Delivery - Provides air delivery of troops, supplies and equipment, performed by the following platforms:

A

 Marine Aerial Refueler/Transport Squadron (VMGR: 12 KC-130)
 Marine Medium Tiltrotor Squadron (VMM: 12 MV-22)

30
Q

Aerial Refueling – Provides the aerial refueling to F/A-18, EA-6B, AV-8, CH-53, MV-22. Provided by:

A

 Marine Aerial Refueler/Transport Squadron (VMGR: 12 KC-130)

31
Q

Air Evacuation is conducted by

A

 Marine Medium Helicopter Squadron (HMM: 12 CH-46E)
 Marine Heavy Helicopter Squadron (HMH: 16 CH-53E or 8 CH-53D)
 Marine Light/Attack Helicopter Squadron (HMLA: 9 UH-1N)
 Marine Aerial Refueler/Transport Squadron (VMGR: 12 KC-130)
 Marine Medium Tiltrotor Squadron (VMM: 12 MV-22)

32
Q

Tactical Recovery of Aircraft and Personnel (TRAP) – Involves the recovery of personnel and equipment while avoiding additional loss. Provided by:

A

 Marine Medium Helicopter Squadron (HMM: 12 CH-46E)
 Marine Heavy Helicopter Squadron (HMH: 16 CH-53E or 8 CH-53D)
 Marine Light/Attack Helicopter Squadron (HMLA: 9 UH-1N)
 Marine Medium Tiltrotor Squadron (VMM: 12 MV-22)

33
Q

Air Logistical Support - is performed by

A

fixed wing aircraft and delivers troops, equipment and supplies to areas beyond helicopter range and lift capability or when surface transportation is slow or unavailable

34
Q

Battlefield Illumination – Illumination of the battlefield conducted by

A

 Marine Aerial Refueler/Transport Squadron (VMGR: 12 KC-130)
 Marine Fighter Attack Squadron (VMFA: 12 F/A-18)
 Marine Attack Squadron (VMA: 12 AV-8)
 Marine Light/Attack Helicopter Squadron (HMLA: 18 AH-1W/9 UH-1N)

35
Q

The ultimate purpose of any type of reconnaissance is to reduce

A

the commander’s unknown risks

36
Q

Strategic Reconnaissance is

A

The gathering of information, which is used to affect policy on the national or international level.

37
Q

Tactical air reconnaissance is

A

the use of air vehicles to obtain information concerning terrain, weather, and the disposition, composition, movement, installations, lines of communications, electronic and communication emissions of enemy forces.

38
Q

Types of Air Reconnaissance

A

Visual
Multi-Sensor Imagery
Electronic

39
Q

Electronic Warfare (EW) Application. Consist of the following

A

Electronic Attack (EA).
Electronic Warfare Support (ES)
EP (Electronic Protection)

40
Q

Close Air Support provides

A

fire support with the speed and violence that is essential in maneuver warfare

41
Q

Examples where visual means of terminal attack control is the method of choice are:

A

 Language barriers when controlling coalition aircraft.
 Lack of confidence in a particular platform.
 Ability to operate in adverse weather.
 Aircrew capability.
 Troops in contact situations.

42
Q

Examples of when a controller would employ a Type 2 control include:

A

 Night missions.
 Adverse weather operations.
 High threat tactics.

43
Q

Type 3 control is used when

A

the terminal controller requires the ability to provide clearance for multiple attacks within a single engagement subject to specific attack restrictions.

44
Q

Conditions for Effective CAS are

A 
 Effective training and proficiency.
 Planning and integration.
 Command, control, and communications (C3).
 Air superiority.
 Target marking and acquisition.
 Streamlined and flexible procedures.
 Appropriate ordnance.
 Favorable weather.
45
Q

The Duties of the Forward Air Controllers (FAC) are

A

o Knowing the enemy situation, selected targets, and location of friendly units.
o Knowing the supported unit’s plans, position, and needs.
o Locating targets of opportunity.
o Advising the supported company commander on proper air employment.
o Requesting CAS.
o Controlling CAS.
o Performing battle damage assessment (BDA).

46
Q

FAC (Forward Air Controller) definition

A

An officer (aviator/pilot) member of the tactical air control party who, from a forward ground or airborne position, controls aircraft in close air support of ground troops (JP 1-02). A Marine aviator with the additional MOS of 7502. FAC is a Marine Corps specific moniker and qualification.

47
Q

JTAC (Joint Terminal Attack Controller) definition

A 
A qualified (certified) service member who, from a forward position, directs the action of combat aircraft engaged in close air support and other offensive air operations.
In the Marine Corps, qualified ground combat arms officers and staff non-commissioned officers who have completed the Tactical Air Control Party Course and have received the additional MOS 8002 are JTACs
48
Q

Define Terminal Controller

A

Personnel with the authority to control the maneuver of and grant weapons release clearance to attacking aircraft

49
Q 
Define FAC(A)
Forward Air Controller (Airborne)
A

A specifically trained and qualified aviation officer who exercises terminal control of aircraft engaged in close air support of ground troops from an air platform in flight.

50
Q

Airspace control measures increase

A

operational effectiveness. They also increase CAS effectiveness by ensuring the safe, efficient, and flexible use of airspace

51
Q

Airspace control measures include:

A 
 Control Points
 Contact point (CP)
 Initial point (IP)
 Holding area (HA)
 Battle position (BP)
52
Q

The CAS briefing helps aircrews determine

A

the information required to perform the mission

53
Q

Check-in procedures are essential for

A

establishing the required flow of information between CAS aircrews and terminal controllers

54
Q

After CAS aircrew checks in, the JTAC will provide a current situation update. This update should include:

A 
 Unit mission.
 Enemy disposition.
 Threat activity in target area.
 Weather (if required).
 Friendly positions.
 Current Fire Support Coordination Measures (FSCMs).
55
Q

“Cleared Hot” – Term used by a terminal controller granting what

A

weapons release clearance to an aircraft attacking a specific target.

56
Q

“Cleared to Engage” – Term used by a terminal controller granting

A

a “blanket” weapons release clearance to an aircraft or multiple aircraft attacking a target or multiple targets which meet the prescribed restrictions set by the terminal controller.

57
Q

The terminal controller must direct CAS aircrews to abort if:

A

 Any portion of the CAS brief is not understood.
 Any unsafe situation develops.
 Clearance criteria not met.
 The tactical situation changes, requiring a reset of the attack run in order to facilitate effective engagement of the target.
 Abort Code. If no abort code was briefed, then the CAS attack is aborted by simply transmitting, “Abort. Abort. Abort.”

58
Q

Corrections are given in two parts with respect to an identified reference:

A

 Cardinal Direction from a visible reference point.
 Distance (in meters).
 Visual marks (smoke, illum on the deck) must land within three hundred meters of the target to be considered effective. If a mark lands more than 300 meters from the target, the controller should tell the aircraft to disregard the mark and then conduct a brief visual talk-on

59
Q

A re-attack can help assure

A

the desired effect on the target, aid visual orientation for the aircrew, and increase responsiveness to the supported commander. Terminal controllers authorize re-attacks.

60
Q

In line 2 of the 9-line brief, what unit of measurement is heading given to the aircraft?

A

Degrees magnetic

61
Q

In line 3 of the 9-line brief, what unit of measurement is distance given for a fixed wing aircraft? For a rotary wing aircraft?

A

For fixed wing, nautical miles to the nearest tenth; for rotary wing, meters to the nearest 100m.

62
Q

What differences occur in the 9-line brief when handling fixed wing aircraft versus rotary wing aircraft?

A

 Line 1, fixed wing uses an IP and rotary wing uses a BP.
 Line 2, no Offset for rotary wing.
 Line 3, fixed wing is in nautical miles to the nearest 0.1nm and rotary wing is meters to the nearest 100 meters.

63
Q

What are the three conditions that must be met for the “Cleared Hot” call during a Type 1 Control?

A

 Attacking aircraft is “tally” the target or the mark.
 Terminal controller is “tally” the target.
 Terminal controller is “visual” the attacking aircraft

Exam III (13 decks)

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