aviation Flashcards

1
Q

What is the required ratio of CC to PAX?

A

Less than 19 PAX = CC is only a recommendation not a requirement
19 - 50 PAX = 1 CC
Even one PAX over 50 would require 2 CC on the flight

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2
Q

How many SCC are needed on a flight?

A

One

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3
Q

How many CC need to be responsible for each exit?

A

At least one for every pair of exits

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4
Q

What happens if there is a reduced number of CC on a scheduled flight?

A

The number of PAX must be reduced also (first come, first serve)

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5
Q

Who would stand in in the event of reduced CC?

A

CC on standby

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6
Q

How many variations of airplane can one CC be assigned to work on?

A

No more than three, except with the exception and approval of the competent authority

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7
Q

What can differ aircraft to aircraft?

A

Emergency equipment/ evacuation techniques/ door and exit operation

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8
Q

What are CC’s responsibilities?

A

To be at least 18 years old/ to have passed a medical examination/ to have successfully completed the initial training/ to possess a CCA

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9
Q

What do operators ensure routes include?

A

Ground facilities/ meteorological services/ required facilities/ survival guidelines/ training/ charts and maps/ flight altitude requirements

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10
Q

What is the definition of safety?

A

The state in which the possibility of harm to persons/ property damage is reduced to/ maintained at or below an acceptable level though a continuing process of hazard identification and safety risk management

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11
Q

What does SMS stand for?

A

Safety Management System

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12
Q

What are SMS responsible for?

A

Systematic approach to safety/ organizational structures/ accountabilities/ policies/ procedures

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13
Q

What are the four pillars of SMS?

A

Policy/ Risk Management/ Assurance/ Promotion

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14
Q

What are the four levels of the Iceberg Model when it comes to breaches of safety?

A

Accident/ Serious accident/ Incidents/ Occurrences, near misses, and latent conditions

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15
Q

What are stabilizers and where are they located on the plane?

A

Small wings located on the tail end of the aircraft

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16
Q

What are flaps and where are they located on the plane?

A

Surfaces at the back of the wings that, when extended, stall the speed of the aircraft, enabling the plane to fly safely at slower speeds

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17
Q

What are slats, and where are they located on the plane?

A

Front tips of the wings that provide a higher coefficient of lift, so that an aircraft can fly slower and smoother, and take off and land in a shorter distance

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18
Q

How many engines do Wizzair planes have?

A

2

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19
Q

When discussing the engines, where should you always be standing?

A

Always facing the FD

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20
Q

Which engine is on the right?

A

Engine 2

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21
Q

Which engine is on the left?

A

Engine 1

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22
Q

What is a fuselage?

A

The body of the airplane

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23
Q

What is the jet bridge?

A

Tunnels that connect the aircraft and the terminal to transport passengers

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24
Q

What does GPU stand for?

A

Ground power unit

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25
Q

What does APU stand for?

A

Auxiliary power unit

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26
Q

Which saves more fuel, the GPU, or the APU?

A

GPU

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27
Q

What is a girt bar?

A

Metal bar which has the evacuation slide attached to it, that connects into two brackets located on the floor at the door’s threshold, when the aircraft is prepared for deployment

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28
Q

what does MEL stand for?

A

Minimum equipment list

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29
Q

Where is the APU located?

A

Below the tail of the aircraft

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30
Q

Once a plane has landed, what is the turnaround time?

A

35 minutes

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31
Q

What does the ATC tower ensure?

A

Visual observation combined with the use of specialized equipment in order to control the aircraft’s movements

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32
Q

What does VFR stand for?

A

Visual Flight Rules

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33
Q

What does IFR stand for?

A

Instrument Flight Rules

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34
Q

What equipment is always onboard an aircraft?

A

Safety equipment/ emergency equipment

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35
Q

What are some examples of safety equipment?

A

Belts/ Safety instruction cards

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36
Q

What are some examples of emergency equipment?

A

Fire extinguisher/ Drop down oxygen masks

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37
Q

What does the number of safety/ emergency equipment in the passenger compartment depend on?

A

The number of PAX and crew

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38
Q

What can safety instruction cards not be?

A

Upside down in the back of the seats

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39
Q

How many fire extinguishers are required per number of seats?

A

1 for 7 to 30 seats
2 for 31 to 60 seats
3 for 61 to 200 seats
4 for 201 to 300 seats

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40
Q

What is the ELT and what does it do?

A

Emergency Locator Transmitter
Broadcasts distinctive signals on designated frequencies that may be manually activated or by a crash impact

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41
Q

Where are crash axes and crowbars located on the plane?

A

In the cabin, away from the passengers

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42
Q

What is a quick donning mask?

A

Portable oxygen

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43
Q

What is PBE?

A

Protective breathing equipment

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44
Q

What are some examples of PBE?

A

Smoke hoods, which last 15 minutes

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45
Q

When should you use fireproof gloves, and how many pairs are on board?

A

When handling dangerous goods and fighting fires
2 pairs

46
Q

When should you use a megaphone?

A

In case of evacuation, when intercom loudspeakers fail

47
Q

How long do emergency slides take to inflate?

A

3 to 10 seconds when a door is opened in the air

48
Q

What are emergency slides fitted with in case they do not automatically inflate?

A

They are fitted with a manual inflation mechanism

49
Q

What is a direct view?

A

A direct line of sight or visual contact with the cabin area and main aisles when the flight attendant is seated with the torso restraint

50
Q

What is a journey log?

A

Document containing information on aircraft registration, crew members’ names, duty assignments, flight details, date, place of arrival and departure, which must be signed by the commander

51
Q

What is a load sheet?

A

Document including all the calculations of mass and balance of the aircraft

52
Q

What is the definition of turbulence?

A

Air movement that cannot be seen/ often occurs unexpectedly

53
Q

What is wake turbulence?

A

Is experienced when an aircraft passes through the jet stream of another aircraft, and is often visible

54
Q

What is CAT?

A

Clear Air Turbulence

55
Q

What are the characteristics of CAT?

A

Unexpected and invisible

56
Q

What does inbound mean?

A

A flight coming into the airport

57
Q

What does outbound mean?

A

A flight going out of the airport

58
Q

What is a Sterile Flight Deck compartment?

A

When flight crew members cannot be disturbed except for emergencies during the critical phase of flight

59
Q

When is Pan Pan Pan used?

A

Used in emergency situations that do not impose life threatening danger
Must be repeated three times

60
Q

When is Mayday Mayday Mayday used?

A

Used in emergency situations that pose life threatening danger
Must be repeated three times

61
Q

What is CRM?

A

Crew Resource Management

62
Q

What are CRM responsible for?

A

Efficient operations/ reduction of errors/ avoidance of stressful situations/ increased communication

63
Q

What does SCP stand for?

A

Special Category Passenger

64
Q

Who might need an individual safety demonstration?

65
Q

What does PED stand for?

A

Personal Electronic Devices

66
Q

What should CC do in the event of a hijacker?

A

1 crew member should have communication with the hijacker
Do not argue or antagonize
Do not discuss political matters
Do not appear superior
Do not allow the hijacker into the cockpit
Do not disarm the hijacker
Do not become mentally aligned with the hijacker
Do not open the plane doors

67
Q

What happens before and after every flight?

A

Pre and post flight briefing

68
Q

What is a joint crew briefing?

A

Led by commander
Mandatory
10 mins long
Occurs after safety briefing

69
Q

What is a safety briefing?

A

Led by SCC
Occurs before joint crew briefing
Mandatory
Must occur 70 minutes before scheduled time of departure

70
Q

What is a NITS briefing?

A

Emergency operation phone call
Must begin by stating “this is a NITS briefing”
Repeat everything to the commander

71
Q

Are high heels allowed on the slide?

A

No, other than certain CC heels that have thicker heels

72
Q

What do the letters in NITS stand for?

A

Nature of the problem/ Intentions/ Time/ Special Instructions

73
Q

What are the duty time limitations?

A

60 duty hours in any consecutive 7 days

74
Q

What are flight time limitations?

A

100 hours in any 28 consecutive days
900 hours in any calendar year
1000 hours in nay 12 consecutive calendar months

75
Q

What is the definition of standby?

A

Pre-notified/ defined period of time a crew member is required to be available to receive flight assignments

76
Q

What does SBY stand for?

A

Home standby

77
Q

What does ASBY stand for?

A

Airport standby

78
Q

What is the definition of airport standby?

A

Being at the disposal of the company at the airport, in case you are needed for duty

79
Q

What is positioning?

A

The transferring of a non-operating crew member from one place to another, at the behest of the operator

80
Q

What is Local Night?

A

Period of 8 hours falling between 22:00 and 08:00 local time

81
Q

What is split duty?

A

A flight duty period, which consists of two duties separated by a break

82
Q

What does ETA stand for?

A

Estimated time of arrival

83
Q

What does UTC stand for and what is it also known as?

A

Universal time coordinated (also known as Zulu time)

84
Q

What is ground duty?

A

Any duty other than flight duty assigned by the operator

85
Q

What is the limit of sectors CC can complete per day?

86
Q

What happens to the time if you travel East?

A

Goes forwards

87
Q

What happens to the time if you travel West?

A

Goes backwards

88
Q

What is a flight duty period?

A

Crew member is required to report for duty, which includes a sector/ series of sectors, and finishes when the aircraft’s engines are shut down

89
Q

What is a duty period?

A

Starts when a crew member is required to report for duty, and ends when that person is free of all duties

90
Q

What is estimated off block time?

A

The estimated time at which the aircraft will commence movement associated with departure

91
Q

What is flight time?

A

The time between an aircraft first moving from its parking place for the purpose of taking off, until it rests on the designated parking position, and all engines are shut down

92
Q

What is block on?

A

Time when the aircraft comes to its final parking position, and engines are shut down

93
Q

What is slot time?

A

The permission to use the full range of an airport infrastructure necessary to operate an air service at a coordinated airport, and a specific date and time for a purpose of landing or take off

94
Q

What is maximum time CC must be able to reach the airport in when on SBY?

A

90 minutes

95
Q

What is the maximum time you can be on ASBY?

96
Q

What is the maximum time you can be on SBY at home?

97
Q

What is the maximum FDP from SBY?

98
Q

What is the maximum FDP from ASBY?

99
Q

What are the aspects of SBY?

A

Duty time/ Maximum FDP

100
Q

How much time spent on SBY is counted as duty time?

A

25%
Example: 5 hours = 1 hour 15 mins counted as duty time

101
Q

What does RES stand for?

A

Reserve day

102
Q

What does RES describe?

A

A period of duty where crew members are required to be contactable

103
Q

When must minimum rest be provided?

A

Before RES, but not applicable after RES

104
Q

What is a smoke hood?

A

Portable, self-contained hood inside which oxygen is chemically generated to protect from smoke and toxic fumes

105
Q

What are the elements of fire?

A

Oxygen/ Heat/ Fuel

106
Q

How many elements of a fire have to be removed for it to be extinguished?

107
Q

How do you remove oxygen from a fire on a surface and on a person?

A

With a fire extinguisher for a surface
Wrap a person in a non-flammable material and roll them on the ground

108
Q

How do you remove heat from a fire on a surface and on a person?

A

Fire extinguisher on a surface
Room temperature water or other non-flammable liquids on people

109
Q

How do you remove fuel from a fire?

A

By removing nearby objects that could be flammable

110
Q

What is the golden rule for fire safety?

A

Prevention is better than cure

111
Q

What are some preventative fire measures?

A

Regular cabin checks for unusual odours, electrical malfunctions, unusual noises, PEDs that could become fuel, and dangerous goods
Regular passenger checks for passengers smoking, PED usage, eye irritation, sore throats, and headaches
Regular lavatory checks for disposable containers, and smoke detectors being tampered with, bin overflowing,