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Phys pharm > Autonomic nervous system > Flashcards

Autonomic nervous system Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 2 major components of the nervous system?

A
  • Central nervous system (CNS)

- Peripheral nervous system (PNS)

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2
Q

What is the central nervous system?

A

Brain and spinal chord

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3
Q

What are the 2 major components of the peripheral nervous system?

A
  • Somatic

- Autonomic

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4
Q

What does the somatic nervous system control?

A

Voluntary control of the skeletal muscles

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5
Q

What does the autonomic nervous system control?

A

Involuntary control of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands etc.

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6
Q

What are the 2 components of the autonomic nervous system?

A
  • Sympathetic

- Parasympathetic

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7
Q

What does the sympathetic nervous system do?

A

Fight or flight

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8
Q

What does the parasympathetic nervous system do?

A

Rest and digest

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9
Q

What does sympathetic stimulation do to the heart? (2)

A
  • Increase heart rate

- Increase heart contractility

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10
Q

What does sympathetic stimulation do to the eyes?

A

Pupils dilate

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11
Q

What does sympathetic stimulation do to the blood vessels? (2)

A
  • Dilates blood vessels supplying skeletal muscles

- Constricts blood vessels supplying digestive system

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12
Q

What does sympathetic stimulation do to the lungs? (2)

A
  • Increases lung expansion

- Relaxes smooth muscle in the respiratory system to widen the airways

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13
Q

What does sympathetic stimulation do to the liver?

A

Glycogen broken down and released as glucose

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14
Q

What does sympathetic stimulation do to the reproductive system?

A

Essential for orgasm/ejaculation

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15
Q

What does parasympathetic stimulation do to the eyes?

A

Pupils constrict

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16
Q

What does parasympathetic stimulation do to the heart?

A
  • Heart rate slows down

- No effect on contractility

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17
Q

What does parasympathetic stimulation do to the GI tract? (2)

A
  • Increases blood flow to GI tract

- Glands stimulated to secrete saliva, enzymes, bile etc.

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18
Q

What does parasympathetic stimulation do to the bladder? (3)

A
  • Bladder wall contracts
  • Urinary sphincter relaxes
  • Allows for urination
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19
Q

What does parasympathetic stimulation do to the reproductive system?

A

Needed for arousal

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20
Q

Which parts of the body are innervated by the sympathetic nervous system only? (4)

A
  • Sweat glands
  • Hair follicles
  • Vascular smooth muscle
  • Adrenal medulla
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21
Q

How are blood vessels controlled by sympathetic nerves?

A
  • Increased firing causes constriction
  • Decreased firing causes dilation
  • No parasympathetic innervation
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22
Q

What is a peripheral ganglion

A

A cluster of neuronal cell bodies outside of the CNS

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23
Q

What is a nucleus (of neurones)?

A

A cluster of neuronal cell bodies inside the CNS

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24
Q

What is the general organisation of the ANS?

A
  • Preganglionic neuron from the CNS sends axon to the ganglion
  • Synapses onto a postganglionic neuron which sends axon to target cell
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25
Q

What kind of neurones are ANS preganglionic neurones?

A

Always cholinergic

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26
Q

What kind of receptors are on ANS postganglionic neurones?

A

Nicotinic

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27
Q

What kind of neurones are sympathetic postganglionic neurones?

A

Noradrenergic

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28
Q

What do sympathetic postganglionic neurones release?

A

Noradrenaline

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29
Q

Which receptors are on the target cells of sympathetic postganglionic neurones?

A

Alpha/beta adrenergic receptors

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30
Q

What kind of receptor are adrenergic receptors?

A

Metabotropic

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31
Q

Where do the preganglionic sympathetic neurones originate? (2)

A

Thoracic and lumbar regions of spinal chord

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32
Q

How long is the sympathetic preganglionic neuron?

A

Short

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33
Q

How long is the sympathetic postganglionic neuron?

A

Short

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34
Q

What are the inner sections of the adrenal gland?

A
  • Adrenal cortex (outside)

- Adrenal medulla (inside)

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35
Q

How does the sympathetic nervous system cause the release of adrenaline?

A
  • Presynaptic neuron reaches adrenal medulla which acts as a modified postganglionic neuron
  • Adrenal medulla cells release adrenaline which enters the bloodstream
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36
Q

Where is adrenaline released from?

A

Adrenal glands

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37
Q

Which cells in the adrenal medulla release adrenaline?

A

Chromaffin cells

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38
Q

What do chromaffin cells do?

A

Release adrenaline from the adrenal medulla

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39
Q

How long is the parasympathetic preganglionic neuron?

A

Long

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40
Q

How long is the sympathetic postganglionic neuron?

A

Short

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41
Q

Where do the preganglionic parasympathetic neurones originate? (2)

A

Brainstem and sacral region of spinal chord

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42
Q

What kind of neurones are parasympathetic postganglionic neurones?

A

Cholinergic

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43
Q

What do parasympathetic postganglionic neurones release?

A

Acetylcholine

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44
Q

Which receptors do parasympathetic postganglionic neurones activate on target cells?

A

Muscarinic

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45
Q

Which part of the nervous system does the vagus nerve belong to?

A

Parasympathetic

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46
Q

Where does the vagus nerve come from?

A

Brainstem

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47
Q

What is an afferent neurone?

A

Receives information from organs etc. and transmits it to CNS

48
Q

What is an efferent neurone?

A

Sends impulses from CNS to organs etc.

49
Q

Where in the spinal chord are preganglionic neurones located?

A

Lateral horn

50
Q

Which preganglionic neurones are located in the brainstem?

A

Parasympathetic

51
Q

What does the hypothalamus regulate? (5)

A
  • Feeding
  • Thermoregulation
  • Circadian rhythms
  • Sex drive
  • Reproduction
52
Q

Which are the 2 main neurotransmitters in the ANS?

A
  • Acetylcholine

- Noradrenaline

53
Q

Which G protein are M1, M3 and M5 (muscarinic receptors) coupled to?

A

Gq

54
Q

What happens when a ligand binds to a receptor coupled to Gq?

A
  • Increases PLC action
  • Increased production of IP3 and DAG
  • Rise in intracellular calcium
55
Q

Where are M3 receptors found?

A

Endothelial cells

56
Q

What is the function of M3 receptors on endothelial cells?

A

Regulates NO production

57
Q

What does NO do to blood vessels?

A
  • Causes vasodilation

- Leads to drop in blood pressure

58
Q

Which G protein are M2 and M4 (muscarinic receptors) coupled to?

A

Gi

59
Q

What happens when a ligand binds to a receptor coupled to Gi?

A
  • Inhibits adenylyl cyclase
  • Lowers production of cAMP
  • Opens GIRK channels (K+)
  • Closes Ca+ channels
60
Q

Where are M2 mainly receptors found?

A

Heart:

  • Pacemaker cells
  • Atrial muscle
61
Q

What does activation of M2 receptors do to the heart? (2)

A
  • Opens GIRK channels which causes hyperpolarisation = slowing of heart rate
  • Decreases cAMP and activity of PKA which causes decreased phosphorylation of Ca2+ channels = decreased contractility
62
Q

Where are M1 and M3 receptors found?

A

Smooth muscle

63
Q

What does activation of M1 and M3 receptors on smooth muscle cause?

A
  • Rise of intracellular calcium

- Causes muscle contraction

64
Q

What does activation of M1 and M3 receptors on glands cause?

A

Secretion

65
Q

What symptoms are caused by consumption of muscarine? (4)

A
  • Drop in blood pressure (endothelial action)
  • Increased saliva, tears, sweating (secretion effects)
  • Abdominal pain (gut muscle contraction)
  • Death from cardiac (slows heart rate) and respiratory failure
66
Q

Which drug is a selective agonist for M3 receptors?

A

Cevimeline

66
Q

Which drug is a selective agonist for M3 receptors?

A

Cevimeline

67
Q

What is Cevimeline used to treat?

A

Dry mouth and eyes caused by Sjogren’s syndrome (autoimmune disorder)

68
Q

What is pilocarpine used to treat?

A

Glaucoma

69
Q

What is glaucoma?

A

Build up of pressure in the eye

70
Q

Which muscarinic receptors does atropine work on?

A

All 5 (non-selective)

71
Q

What is atropine an antagonist for?

A

Muscarinic receptors

72
Q

What does consumption of atropine cause? (2)

A
  • Inhibition of secretion

- Relaxation of smooth muscle

73
Q

Is muscarine an agonist or antagonist?

A

Agonist

74
Q

Is atropine an agonist or antagonist?

A

Antagonist

75
Q

What is pirenzepine used to treat?

A

Peptic ulcers

76
Q

Which receptor is pirenzepine an antagonist for?

A

M1

77
Q

Which drug is a selective antagonist for M1 receptors?

A

Pirenzepine

78
Q

Which receptor is cevimeline an agonist for?

A

M3

79
Q

Which drug is a selective antagonist for M3 receptors?

A

Darifenacin

80
Q

Which receptor is darifenacin an antagonist for?

A

M3

81
Q

What is darifenacin used to treat?

A

Overactive bladder/incontinence

82
Q

What are cholinomimetic drugs?

A

Drugs which mimic the effects of activating cholinergic signalling

83
Q

How do cholinomimetic drugs work?

A
  • Inhibit acetylcholinesterase which increases levels of ACh

- Increases signalling through nicotinic and muscarinic receptors

84
Q

What is physostigmine?

A

Anticholinesterase drug (cholinomimetic)

85
Q

What is physostigmine used to treat?

A

Glaucoma

86
Q

Which drugs are used in nerve gases?

A

Anticholinesterases

87
Q

Which receptors are used by parasympathetic postganglionic neurones?

A

Muscarinic ACh receptors

88
Q

Which receptors are used by sympathetic postganglionic neurones?

A

Alpha/beta adrenoreceptors

89
Q

Where is adrenaline released from?

A

Chromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla (adrenal glands)

90
Q

What kind of receptors are alpha/beta adrenoreceptors

A

Metabotropic (G-protein coupled)

91
Q

What does activation of alpha 1 adrenoreceptors cause?

A

Vasoconstriction (blood vessels)

92
Q

What does activation of beta 2 adrenoreceptors cause? (2)

A
  • Vasodilation

- Relaxation of airway smooth muscle

93
Q

What does activation of beta 1 adrenoreceptors cause? (2)

A
  • Increased heart rate

- Increased contractility

94
Q

Where are beta 1 adrenoreceptors found?

A

Heart

95
Q

Where are beta 2 adrenoreceptors found?

A

Bronchi

96
Q

Which G protein are alpha 1 adrenoreceptors coupled to?

A

Gq

97
Q

Which G protein are alpha 2 adrenoreceptors coupled to?

A

Gi

98
Q

Which G protein are beta adrenoreceptors coupled to?

A

Gs

99
Q

Which drug is a selective agonist for alpha 2 adrenoreceptors?

A

Clonidine

100
Q

Which drug is a selective agonist for beta 2 adrenoreceptors?

A

Salbutamol

101
Q

What is the effect of Salbutamol?

A

Bronchodilation

102
Q

What does activation of beta 1 adrenoreceptors cause?

A
  • Increased activity of adenylyl cyclase
  • Increase of cAMP
  • cAMP activates PKA
  • PKA phosphorylates Ca2+ channels
  • Increased contraction in heart
103
Q

How does ephedrine work?

A

Causes release of noradrenaline which constricts smooth muscle on nasal arteries to stop congestion

104
Q

What are sympathomimetic drugs?

A

Drugs which mimic the effects of increased sympathetic signalling

105
Q

What are alpha 1 selective antagonists used to treat?

A

Hypertension

106
Q

Which drug is an alpha 1 selective antagonist?

A

Prazosin

107
Q

What is Prazosin used to treat?

A

Hypertension

108
Q

What are adrenoreceptor antagonists used to treat? (3)

A
  • Hypertension
  • Heart failure
  • Anxiety
109
Q

What are beta blockers used to treat?

A
  • Heart failure

- Anxiety

110
Q

What are examples of beta blockers? (2)

A
  • Carvedilol

- Propranolol

111
Q

What is propranolol used to treat?

A

Anxiety

112
Q

How are beta blockers dangerous for asthma patients?

A
  • Beta 2 activation causes bronchodilation

- Blocking beta 2 would cause bronchoconstriction

113
Q

What are unwanted side effects of beta blockers?

A
  • Bronchoconstriction
  • Cardiac depression
  • Bradycardia
  • Fatigue
  • Cold extremities (vasodilation causes poor circulation)
114
Q

What is bradycardia?

A

Slow heart rate

115
Q

What is tachycardia?

A

Fast heart rate

Phys pharm (11 decks)

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