AUTONOMIC DRUGS Flashcards
- The parasympathetic preganglionic fibers leave the CNS through
these cranial nerves
A. 1, 5, 9, 10
B. 10, 3, 7, 9
C. 3, 7, 5, 10
D. 2, 7, 10, 5
E. None of the above
ANSWER: B. 10, 3, 7, 9. The parasympathetic preganglionic
fibers leave the CNS through the cranial nerves (CN 3:
Oculomotor, CN 7: Facial, CN 9: Glossopharyngeal, and CN 10:
Vagus).
- The primary receptor type of autonomic ganglia
A. Cholinergic: nicotinic
B. Cholinergic: muscarinic
C. Adrenergic: beta 1
D. Adrenergic: beta 2
E. Dopaminergic: D1-5?
ANSWER: A. Cholinergic: nicotinic.
- Most thoracolumbar preganglionic fibers are?
A. Short
B. Long
C. In networks
D. Connected to organs
E. None of the above
ANSWER: A. Short. Most thoracic and lumbar sympathetic
preganglionic fibers are short and terminate in ganglia located
in the paravertebral chains that lie on either side of the spinal
column. Most of the remaining sympathetic preganglionic fibers
are somewhat longer and terminate in prevertebral ganglia,
which lie in front of the vertebrae, usually on the ventral surface
of the aorta.
- Cholinergic drugs act on receptors normally stimulated by?
A. Norepinephrine
B. Acetylcholine
C. Epinephrine
D. Dopamine
E. None of the above
ANSWER: B. Acetylcholine
- It catalyzes the rate-limiting step in catecholamine biosynthesis
A. L-amino acid decarboxylase
B. Dopamine beta-hydroxylase
C. Phenylethanolamine-N-methyl transferase
D. Tyrosine hydroxylase
E. Dopa decarboxylase
ANSWER: D. Tyrosine hydroxylase catalyzes the rate-limiting
step in the biosynthesis of catecholamines, the conversion of
Tyrosine to Dopa.
- Parasympathetic direct cardiac effects?
A. Decrease heart rate, decrease contractility
B. Increase heart rate, increase contractility
C. Increase AV nodal conduction velocity
D. Decrease heart rate, increase contractility
E. Increase heart rate, decrease contractility
ANSWER: A. Decrease heart rate, decrease contractility
- Drug that prevents the storage of acetylcholine in synaptic
vesicle?
A. Botulinum toxin
B. Vesamicol
C. Metyrosine
D. Tetrodotoxin
E. None of the above
ANSWER: B. Vesamicol. Acetylcholine (ACh) is transported into
the storage vesicle by a vesicle-associated transporter (VAT),
which can be inhibited by vesamicol.
- The rate-limiting step in catecholamine biosynthesis can be
blocked by?
A. Botulinum Toxin
B. Hemicholinium
C. Synaptosomal nerve-associated membrane proteins
D. Metyrosine
E. Vesamicol
ANSWER: D. Metyrosine.
see figure
- The acetylcholine vesicle release process can be blocked by?
A. Hemicholinium
B. Vesamicol
C. Botulinum toxin
D. Vesicle-associated membrane proteins
E. Synaptosomal nerve-associated membrane proteins
ANSWER: C. Botulinum toxin. The resulting increase in
intracellular calcium causes fusion of vesicles with the surface
membrane and exocytotic expulsion of acetylcholine and
cotransmitters into the junctional cleft. This step can be blocked
by botulinum toxin.
- In the cytoplasm, acetylcholine is synthesized from choline and
Acetyl-CoA by what enzymes?
A. Acetylcholinesterase
B. Choline acetyltransferase
C. Vesicle associated transporter
D. Phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase
E. None of the above
ANSWER: B. Choline acetyltransferase. Acetylcholine (ACh) is
synthesized in the cytoplasm from acetyl-CoA and choline
through the catalytic action of the enzyme choline
acetyltransferase (ChAT).
- This drug can block the reuptake of noradrenergic transmitters
into the nerve terminal
A. Reserpine
B. Cocaine
C. Guanethidine
D. Metyrosine
E. Bretylium
ANSWER: B. Cocaine. NET can be inhibited by cocaine and
certain antidepressant drugs, resulting in an increase of
norepinephrine activity in the synaptic cleft.
- Rate limiting step in acetylcholine synthesis
A. Availability of acetate
B. Choline acetate activity
C. Choline uptake
D. Vesicular protein synthesis
E. Acetylcholinesterase activity
ANSWER: A. Availability of acetate
- Inhibits choline transfer into cholinergic vesicles
A. Atropine
B. Bretylium
C. Reserpine
D. Vesamicol
E. All of the above
ANSWER: D. Vesamicol
- Influx of this ion promotes fusion between axoplasmic
membrane and nearby vesicles
A. Potassium
B. Chloride
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
E. All of the above
ANSWER: C. Calcium. Release of transmitters occurs when
voltage-sensitive calcium channels in the terminal membrane
are opened, allowing an influx of calcium. The resulting increase
in intracellular calcium causes fusion of vesicles with the surface
membrane and exocytotic expulsion of acetylcholine and cotransmitters into the junctional (synaptic) cleft.
- Which is not a choline ester?
A. Arecoline
B. Acetylcholine
C. Bethanechol
D. Carbachol
E. Methacholine
ANSWER: A. Arecoline. Acetylcholine and methacholine are
acetic acid esters of choline and β-methylcholine, respectively.
Carbachol and bethanechol are carbamic acid esters of the same
alcohols.
- Which among the following choline ester drugs is the most
susceptible to hydrolysis by the enzyme cholinesterase?
A. Arecoline
B. Carbachol
C. Acetylcholine
D. Metacholine
E. Bethanecol
ANSWER: C. Acetylcholine.
- Which among the following choline ester drugs has the most
muscarinic action?
A. Acetylcholine
B. Bethanecol
C. Carbachol
D. Methacholine
E. Arecoline
ANSWER: D. Methacholine. See above table.
- This direct-acting cholinomimetic drug is used for postoperative
ileus and urinary retention?
A. Pilocarpine
B. Carbachol
C. Arecoline
D. Bethanecol
E. Nicotine
ANSWER: Bethanecol
- Effects of direct-acting cholinoceptor stimulants except?
A. Sinoatrial node: positive chronotropy
B. Bronchial muscles: bronchoconstriction
C. Sphincter muscle of iris: miosis
D. Gastrointestinal tract motility: increase
E. All are correct
ANSWER: A. Sinoatrial node: positive chronotropy
- The ff are indirect acting cholinomimetic drugs except
A. Acetylcholine
B. Neostigmine
C. Echothiophate
D. Edrophonium
E. Carbaryl
ANSWER: A. Acetylcholine is a direct-acting cholinomimetic
drug.
- The following are effects of anticholinesterase except?
A. Miosis
B. Bradycardia
C. Reduced muscle contraction
D. Hypersalivation
E. All are correct
ANSWER: C. Reduced muscle contraction. Anticholinesterases
aka cholinesterase inhibitors block the degradation of
acetylcholine and thereby prolong its action. Because the
primary action is to amplify the actions of endogenous
acetylcholine, the effects are similar (but not always identical)
to the effects of the direct-acting cholinomimetic agonists.
- Long-term therapy for myasthenia gravis is usually
accomplished with?
A. Pyridostigmine
B. Physostigmine
C. Neostigmine
D. Edrophonium
E. Echothiophate
ANSWER: A. Pyridostigmine. Edrophonium is for acute
treatment only. While both pyridostigmine and neostigmine are
both used for treatment of myasthenia gravis, pyridostigmine
has a longer duration of action (4-6 hours).
- This anticholinesterase organophosphate drug was used as an
ophthalmic solution for treating glaucoma?
A. Neostigmine
B. Echothiophate
C. Edrophonium
D. Physostigmine
E. Pyridostigmine
ANSWER: B. Echothiophate. See above table.
- Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitor is not
used in the treatment of myasthenia gravis?
A. Physostigmine
B. Pyridostigmine
C. Neostigmine
D. Edrophonium
E. All drugs can be used
ANSWER: A. Physostigmine is used for anticholinergic
poisoning. Refer to #23 table.
- Anticholinesterase used for atropine intoxication
A. Neostigmine
B. Physostigmine
C. Pyridostigmine
D. Echothiophate
E. NOTA
ANSWER: B. Physostigmine is used for anticholinergic
poisoning
- Effect of Atropine on the heart?
A. Tachycardia
B. Bradycardia
C. Hypercapnia
D. Bradyarrhythmia
E. No effect on the heart
ANSWER: A. Tachycardia. Atropine will increase the heart rate.
- Atropine is previously used prior to general anesthesia to reduce
A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Muscle tone
C. Oral secretions
D. Anxiety
E. All of the above
ANSWER: C. Oral secretions. The use of atropine became part
of routine preoperative medication when anesthetics such as
ether were used, because these irritant anesthetics markedly
increased airway secretions and were associated with frequent
episodes of laryngospasm. Preanesthetic injection of atropine or
scopolamine could prevent these hazardous effects.
- Which of the following antimuscarinic drug is often effective in
preventing or reversing vestibular disturbances especially
motion sickness?
A. Homatropine
B. Atropine
C. Benztropine
D. Tropicamide
E. Scopolamine
ANSWER: E. Scopolamine. Certain vestibular disorders respond
to antimuscarinic drugs (and to antihistaminic agents with
antimuscarinic effects). Scopolamine is one of the oldest
remedies for seasickness and is as effective as any more recently
introduced agent.
- The following are clinical uses of muscarinic blocking drugs
except?
A. Parkinson’s disease
B. Hypertension
C. COPD
D. Hypermotility
E. Prevention of synechia
ANSWER: B. Hypertension. The sinoatrial node is very sensitive
to muscarinic receptor blockade. Moderate to high therapeutic
doses of atropine cause tachycardia in the innervated and
spontaneously beating heart by blockade of vagal slowing.
- Oxybutynin that is used to relieve bladder spasm after
prostatectomy, is somewhat selective to what specific receptor?
A. M1
B. M2
C. M3
D. M4 and M5
E. AOTA
ANSWER: C. M3
- The prototype drug for parasympatholytic group is?
A. Homatropine
B. Atropine
C. Scopolamine
D. Dicyclomine
E. Glycopyrrolate
ANSWER: B. Atropine
- The definitive treatment for organophosphate poisoning is?
A. Atropine
B. Ipratropium
C. Physostigmine
D. None of the above
ANSWER: A. Atropine. Treatment: 1–2 mg of Atropine sulfate
may be given intravenously every 5–15 minutes until signs of
effect (dry mouth, reversal of miosis) appear.
- Primary effects of muscarinic blocking agents except
A. Miosis
B. Bronchodilation
C. Decreased salivary secretion
D. Increased heart rate
E. Mydriasis
ANSWER: A. Miosis. The primary effect in the eye is mydriasis
(dilation).
- This drug directly interacts with and activate adrenoreceptors
A. Tricyclic antidepressants
B. Tyramine
C. Epinephrine
D. Cocaine
E. COMT inhibitors
ANSWER: C. Epinephrine
- This drug induces the release of catecholamines by displacing
them from adrenergic nerve endings
A. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
B. Tyramine
C. Tricyclic antidepressants
D. Cocaine
E. Norepinephrine
ANSWER: B. Tyramine. Induce release of catecholamines by
displacing them from adrenergic nerve endings is the
mechanism of action of Tyramine.
- Vasopressor of first choice in the management of shock?
A. Dopamine drip
B. Epinephrine
C. Norepinephrine drip
D. Dobutamine drip
ANSWER: C. Norepinephrine.
- Alpha 2 receptor agonist that is used in the treatment of
hypertensive emergency?
A. Clonidine
B. Oxycarbamazine
C. Ipratropium
D. Dobutamine
E. Phenylephrine
ANSWER: A. Clonidine. Clonidine, Methyldopa (for pregnant
with high bp), Guanfacine and Guanabenz are useful in the
treatment of hypertension. Dobutamine is used as a
pharmacologic cardiac stress test. Phenylephrine increases BP
without increasing heart rate. Ipratropium is an anticholinergic
drug
- Adverse effects from using phenoxybenzamine includes all of
the following except:
A. Inhibition of ejaculation
B. Bradycardia
C. Orthostatic hypotension
D. Nasal stuffiness
E. Sedation
ANSWER: B. Bradycardia. Adverse effects of
Phenoxybenzamine: (a) Orthostatic hypotension and
Tachycardia (b) Nasal stuffiness and inhibition of ejaculation (c)
Enters the CNS – may cause fatigue, sedation and nausea.
- Which of the following alpha receptor blocker does not
dissociate from receptors and the block cannot be surmounted
with sufficiently high concentrations of agonists?
A. Labetalol
B. Phentolamine
C. Phenoxybenzamine
D. Prazosin
E. All of the above
ANSWER: C. Phenoxybenzamine. Phenoxybenzamine is an
irreversible drug that do not dissociate and cannot be
surmounted. Phentolamine and Prazosin are reversible
antagonists that dissociate from receptors and the block can be
surmounted with sufficiently high concentrations of agonists.
Labetalol is a beta-receptor blocker
- Selective alpha antagonist like prazosin, terazosin, alfuzosin and
tamsulosin are indicated in?
A. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
B. Hypertensive emergencies
C. Pheochromocytoma
D. Erectile dysfunction
E. All of the above
ANSWER: A. Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)
- An alpha-adrenoceptor antagonist that was used in the
treatment of male erectile dysfunction is?
A. Phentolamine
B. Prazosin
C. Yohimbine
D. Labetalol
E. None of the above
OTHERTERM- SILDENAFIL
ANSWER: C. Yohimbine. Treat male erectile dysfunction but has
been superseded by phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors like
- An alpha-adrenoceptor antagonist that was used in the
treatment of male erectile dysfunction is?
A. Phentolamine
B. Prazosin
C. Yohimbine
D. Labetalol
E. None of the above
ANSWER: C. Yohimbine. Treat male erectile dysfunction but has
been superseded by phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors like
sildenafil.
- An ultra-short-acting beta 1-selective adrenoreceptor
antagonist that is rapidly metabolized by esterases in red blood
cell
A. Esmolol
B. Atenolol
C. Nadolol
D. Timolol
E. None of the Above
ANSWER: A. Esmolol. Ultra-short-acting beta 1-selective
adrenoceptor antagonist. Esterases in red blood cells rapidly
metabolize esmolol to a metabolite that has a low affinity for
beta receptors. Metoprolol and Atenolol preferable in patients
with diabetes or peripheral vascular disease when therapy with
a beta blocker is required. Nadolol has a very long duration of
action. Timolol has excellent ocular hypotensive effects when
administered topically in the eye.
- Immediate precursor in the synthesis of noradrenaline?
A. Midodrine
B. Adrenaline
C. Epinephrine
D. Dopamine
ANSWER: D. Dopamine. Tyrosine is converted to dopamine and
transported into the vesicle by VMAT, which can be blocked by
reserpine and tetrabenzine. Dopamine is converted to
norepinephrine in the vesicle by dopamine-beta-hydroxylase.
- Most highly selective beta 1-adrenergic receptor blocker?
A. Timolol
B. Nadolol
C. Nebivolol
D. Labetalol
E. Carvedilol
ANSWER: C. Nebivolol.
- Beta-receptor antagonist drug with the longest duration of
action?
A. Levobunolol
B. Betaxolol
C. Metoprolol
D. Atenolol
E. Nadolol
ANSWER: Nadolol
- Propranolol, which is a beta 1 and 2 adrenoceptor antagonist, is
indicated for the ff diseases except:
A. Migraine
B. Glaucoma
C. Arrythmia
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Angina pectoris
ANSWER: D. Bronchial asthma
- The following are beta 1 selective antagonist except?
A. Timolol
B. Esmolol
C. Propranolol
D. Atenolol
E. All of the above is correct
ANSWER: A. Timolol / C. Propranolol both has no selectivity.
- The prototype beta-receptor antagonist drug?
A. Metoprolol
B. Atenolol
C. Timolol
D. Propranolol
E. Nadolol
ANSWER: D. Propranolol
- Preferred beta blocker drug for patients with diabetes or
peripheral vascular disease
A. Propranolol
B. Esmolol
C. Metoprolol
D. Nadolol
E. None of the above
ANSWER: C. Metoprolol. Metoprolol and Atenolol preferable in
patients with diabetes or peripheral vascular disease when
therapy with a beta blocker is required.
- The primary transmitter at ANS ganglia, at the somatic neurons
ANSWER: Acetylcholine
- The primary transmitter at most sympathetic postganglionic
neurons
ANSWER: Norepinephrine
Sympathetic Nervous System – originates from thoracolumbar
(Thoracic 1-T12 and L1-L2)
Parasympathetic – originates from Craniosacral
(CN 3- Oculomotor, CN 7- Facial, CN 9- Glossopharyngeal, CN 10- Vagus)
Five Key Features of Neurotransmitter Function
(SSR-TR)
1. SYNTHESIS
2.STORAGE
3.RELEASE
4.TERMINATION OF ACTION OF THE TRANSMITTER
5.RECEPTOR EFFECTS
There are two types of transmission:
1.CHOLINERGIC TRANSMISSION
2.ADRENERGIC TRANSMISSION
involves the transmission of Acetylcholine
CHOLINERGIC TRANSMISSION
involves release of Norepinephrine/Noradrenaline
ADRENERGIC TRANSMISSION
WHAT TYPE OF TRANSMISSION
Choline is transported into the cytoplasm at the terminal button by a sodium-dependent choline transporter (CHT). This symporter can be blocked by research drugs called ___
CHOLINERGIC TRANSMISSION
HEMICHOLINIUMS
Once the acetylcholine is formed, it must be stored inside a vesicle by a vesicle-associated transporter (VAT).
inhibited by VESAMICOL
inhibit the release of stored choline
BOTULINUM TOXIN
Once the acetylcholine is released in the synaptic cleft, it will be degraded by____ and others would bind on cholinergic receptors and others will go back into the nerve by the acetylcholine autoreceptors.
acetylcholinesterase (AChE)
Tyrosine is transported into the noradrenergic nerve ending by a sodium-dependent carrier.
ADRENERGIC TRANSMISSION
Tyrosine is converted to dopamine by the rate limiting enzyme ____ and it can be blocked by ____
Tyrosine is converted to dopamine by the rate limiting enzyme tyrosine hydroxylase and it can be blocked by metyrosine
From dopamine it will converted into norepinephrine by
_______ and transported into the vesicle by the vesicular monoamine transporter (VMAT), which can be blocked by ______ and _____. The same carrier transports norepinephrine (NE) and several related amines into these vesicles.
—dopamine β-hydroxylase
—blocked by
reserpine and tetrabenazine.
which blocks the vesicular monoamine transporter (VMAT)
RESERPINE
TETRABENZINE
rate limiting enzyme in the convertion if tyrosine to dopamine
TYROSINE HYDROXYLASE
in adrenergic transmission
After release, norepinephrine diffuses out of the cleft or is transported into the cytoplasm of the terminal by the norepinephrine transporter (NET), which can be blocked by ___________ and ____________
COCAINE
DEPRESSANTS
CHOLINOCEPTOR
- MUSCARINIC
- NICOTINIC
ADRENOCEPTOR
- alpha adrenoceptor
- beta adrenoceptor
- dopamine receptor
Bind to and activate muscarinic or nicotinic receptors.
DIRECT-ACTING CHOLINOMIMETIC DRUGS
- Produce their primary effects by inhibiting
acetylcholinesterase, which hydrolyzes acetylcholine to choline and acetic acid. - there will be an increase in the concentration of acetylcholine receptors in the synaptic cleft
INDIRECT-ACTING CHOLINOMIMETIC DRUGS
SUSCEPTIBILITY TO CHOLINESTERASE
- Acetylcholine chloride
- Methacholine chloride
SUSCEPTIBILITY TO CHOLINESTERASE
- Acetylcholine chloride. ++++
- Methacholine chloride +
MUSCARINIC ACTION
- Acetylcholine chloride
- Methacholine chloride
MUSCARINIC ACTION
- Acetylcholine chloride +++
- Methacholine chloride ++++
—In Methacholine chloride it is mostly in the muscarinic receptor that it will activate.
NICOTINIC ACTION
- Acetylcholine chloride
- Methacholine chloride
NICOTINIC ACTION
- Acetylcholine chloride +++
- Methacholine chloride none
When you inject acetylcholine in patients,
the heart rate and the contraction of the heart will ____.
increase or decrease?
DECREASE
When you inject acetylcholine in your patients
what happens to the bronchial glands?
+there will be SECRETION
The antidote for acetylcholine overdose is _____.
and will ____ the heart rate.
(increase or decrease)
ATROPINE
-INCREASE
used as a diagnostic test for myasthenia gravis
EDROPHONIUM
MYASTHENIA GRAVIS TREATMENT
- NEOSTIGMINE
- PYRIDOSTIGMINE
Organic derivatives of phosphoric acid
ECHOTHIOPHATE
In GLAUCOMA, the optic nerve is damaged due to increase intraocular pressure in the eyes.
The normal intraocular pressure is 10-21 mmHg.
VASODILATION
1. relieve ICP
2. decrease formation of aqeous humor
3. contract ciliary body to have outflow of aqeous humor
ECHOTHIOPHATE
CHOLINOMIMETICS
• Treat diseases of the eye (glaucoma, accommodative
esotropia)
In glaucoma, the optic nerve is damaged due to increase intraocular pressure in the eyes. The normal intraocular pressure is 10-21 mmHg.
• Gastrointestinal and urinary tracts (postoperative atony, neurogenic bladder)
• Neuromuscular junction (myasthenia gravis, curare- induced neuromuscular paralysis)
• Treat patients with Alzheimer’s disease
• Treatment of Atropine overdosage
• Atrial arrhythmias (rare)
decrease in ACETYLCHOLINE
to increase it give CHOLINOMIMETICS
ALZHEIMERS DISEASE
Smoking cessation
Insecticides
Nicotine
Post operative and neurogenic ileum
Urinary retention
Bethanechol
GlaucOma
sjogrens syndrome
Pilocarpine
(C-A-P)
CNS neurons,
autonomic postganglionic cell bodies
presynaptic sites
M1 RECEPTOR SUBTYPE
(M-S)
Myocardium
smooth muscle organs
M2 RECEPTORS
Effector cell membranes
- glandular
- smooth muscle cells
M3 RECEPTORS
Î in CNS than Periphery
M4 & M5 RECEPTORS
They block the effects of parasympathetic autonomic
discharge ( acetylcholine )
Muscarinic Antagonists
Antimuscarinic
Parasympatholytic
Prototype
Atropine
For asthma
COPD
Î airway
Tiotropium
↓ lackimation
Glycopyprolate
Mydriatic
Cycloplegic
Tropicamide
Peptic disease
Hypermotility
Dicyclomine
Î acetylcholine
↓ dopamine
Parkinson’s disease
Combination of an antimuscarinic agent with a
dopamine precursor drug (LEVODOPA) provide an effective therapy
PARKINSONS DISEASE
− Involve muscarinic cholinergic transmission
− Antimuscarinic drugs
MOTION SICKNESS
treatment for Motion sickness
SCOPOLAMINE
____ greatly facilitates ophthalmoscopic examination
of the retina
-Antimuscarinic agents (topically as eye drops or ointment)
-Prevent synechia (adhesion) formation in uveitis and iritis
MYDRIASIS
CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS
a. Vasovagal attack (give __ to increase the heart rate)
b. Hyperactive carotid sinus reflexes
c. Graves’ disease (hyperthyroidism) also have such
antibodies that may facilitate the development of atrial
fibrillation.
ATROPINE
r related antimuscarinic agent
COPD
(A-T-I-U) x -IUM
ACLIDINIUM
TIOTROPIUM
IPRATROPIUM
UMECLIDINIUM
GASTROINTESTINAL DISORDERS
a. Peptic Ulcer Disease
b. Common traveler’s diarrhea
c. Other mild or self-limited conditions of hypermotility
Atropine + diphenoxylate (LOMOTIL)
Bladder spasm after urologic surgery (prostatectomy)
OXYBUTYNIN (M3 RECEPTOR)
Urinary incontinence
Propiverine (anti-muscarinic)
Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
α-adrenoceptor antagonist
combined with a muscarinic antagonist
CHOLINERGIC POISONING
a. Cholinesterase inhibitor insecticides
b. Chemical warfare “nerve gases”
c. Organophosphorus poisoning
ATROPINE SULFATE
1–2 mg of Atropine sulfate
INTRAVENOUSLY every 5–15 minutes until signs of effect
( dry mouth, reversal of miosis) appear.
Organophosphate poisoning and insecticide poisoning are treated with antimuscarinic drugs.
○ In insecticide poisoning, there is low heart rate, increased secretions, miotic, breathing problems due to bronchial secretions, and increased bronchial activity.
CHOLINERGIC POISONING
