Automatic flight Flashcards

1
Q

F/D is off and you engage A/P. What happens?

A

A/P engages in HDG HOLD or TRK HOLD, or if bank greater than 5 degrees ATT. V/S or FPA as vertical mode.

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2
Q

How can bank angle protection be disabled?

A

A/P disengage bar.

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3
Q

You arm F/D on the ground. What happens?

A

F/D arms in TO/GA mode for roll and pitch.

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4
Q

You arm the F/D in flight with A/P disengaged. What happens?

A

F/D engages in HDG HOLD or TRK HOLD, or ATT if bank is greater than five degrees. V/S or FPA as pitch mode.

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5
Q

You position the F/D to on with A/P engaged in flight. What happens?

A

F/D engages in the currently selected A/P modes.

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6
Q

What conditions are needed to display F/D steering indications with F/D switches in off?

A

Speed greater than 80 kts, flaps not up and TO/GA button pushed.

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7
Q

When is CLB/CON switch inoperative?

A

On the ground and below 400 ft during takeoff.

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8
Q

Pushing CLB/CON will give you…?

A

Two engines: Thrust to FMC selected climb thrust.

One engine: Thrust limit to CON (max continous)

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9
Q

Pushing A/T above 400 ft gives you?

A

Appropiate A/T mode for pitch mode, or if no pitch mode, SPD mode.

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10
Q

What are the IAS/MACH window changeover speeds during climb/descent?

A

0,84M/310kts

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11
Q

What are the criteria for LNAV engagement?

A
  • Above 50 ft
  • within 2.5 NM of active leg
  • if not within 2.5 NM, on intercept heading, engages when approaching the active leg
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12
Q

You’re in LNAV and pass the last active waypoint. What happens?

A

LNAV maintains current HDG.

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13
Q

When does VNAV engage during takeoff?

A

At 400 ft above runway elevation.

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14
Q

Changing from TO/GA to FLCH, what speed will you get in the speed window?

A

Highest of current and selected speed.

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15
Q

Explain FLCH climb/descend logic.

A

FLCH gives 500 fpm per 1000 ft of altitude change. Tries to reach commanded altitude within two minutes. If unable, climbs/descends in CLB/IDLE.

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16
Q

What happens when you push HDG/TRK HOLD?

A

Wings level and holds the HDG/TRK established when wings are level.

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17
Q

Explain BANK LIMIT selector logic.

A

AUTO varies between 15-25 dependent on TAS. Otherwise selected bank angle is max.

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18
Q

During climb or descent, what happens with every push of the altitude selector?

A

Deletes next waypoint constraint between aircraft altitude and MCP altitude.

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19
Q

You’re in a climb, with no constraints, and you’re cleared above FMC cruise altitude. How can you transfer the new altitude from the MCP to FMC.

A

Push altitude selector.

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20
Q

What are the criteria for intiation of DES NOW feature?

A

MCP below cruise altitude, within 50 NM of T/D, push the altitude selector.

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21
Q

What intercept track angle is required for localizer capture?

A

120 degrees.

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22
Q

How can LOC be disengaged?

A
  1. Roll mode other than LNAV
  2. TO/GA
  3. Disengage A/P, turn off F/D
  4. Push LOC above 1500 ft radio.
23
Q

LOC captures. Within how many degrees must intercept track angle be for G/S capture?

A

Within 80 degrees.

24
Q

How can you deselect APP?

A
  1. Push APP above 1500 ft radio
  2. HDG SEL or HDG HOLD
  3. TO/GA
25
Q

An amber horizontal line is displayed through a pitch or roll mode. What has happened?

A

Flight fault mode is detected.

26
Q

On ground, below which speed must TO/GA be pushed to activate THR REF? What happens if TO/GA is pushed after reaching said speed?

A

50 kts. A/T operation is inhibited till 400 ft altitude.

27
Q

What happens if you push TO/GA above 80 kts on the ground?

A

LNAV/VNAV disarms.

28
Q

What happens if you push TO/GA after lift-off?

A
  1. Derates and assumed temperature reduction is removed.
  2. HOLD changes to THR REF
  3. 50 to 400 ft, selects TO/GA roll mode
  4. Above 400 ft selects TO/GA roll and pitch
29
Q

What happens when you push TO/GA on approach with flaps out of up and glideslope captured?

A
  1. A/T in THR mode
  2. TO/GA roll and pitch modes
  3. No A/P or F/D active, activates THR REF
  4. Arms or activates LNAV if path is available
30
Q

What happens with a second push of the TO/GA during GA?

A

A/T activates in THR REF mode.

31
Q

When is the only time rudder inputs will disengage the A/P?

A

Pedals will only disengage the A/P with LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated.

32
Q

How will you recognize a persisting F/D mode degradation?

A

The affected flight director bar is removed.

33
Q

What is the ILS Signal Interference Monitor?

A

The A/P will disregard the ILS signal and engage in a attitude stabilizing mode if short term ILS signal interference is detected.

34
Q

When is ROLLOUT (armed) displayed? When does it engage?

A

Below 1500 ft. Below 2 ft.

35
Q

In flight, when is TO/GA armed? Where is it annunciated?

A

When the flaps are out of up or at G/S capture.

36
Q

When does TO/GA pitch and roll guidance become active?

A

At lift-off.

37
Q

Where does the AFDS take it’s V2 speed from?

A

IAS/MACH window.

38
Q

After lift-off, what does the AFDS command in regards to pitch and speed?

A
  • target speed of V2 plus 15 kts, or airspeed at rotation plus 15 kts, whichever greater
  • target speed exceeded for more than 5 seconds, lesser of new speed or V2 plus 25 kts.
  • IAS/MACH window speed, if it is changed to a speed greater than target speed
39
Q

What is the command speed when a go-around is initiated?

A

Speed window speed or current airspeed, whichever is higher. Max speed window speed plus 25 kts in any case.

40
Q

When does the CDU scratchpad message RESET MCP ALT display?

A

MCP altitude set to current cruise altitude and within 2 mins of T/D.

41
Q

What actions are required to get out of VNAV ALT?

A

Change MCP altitude and push the altitude selector or change pitch mode.

42
Q

When does FLARE (armed) display? When does it activate? Deactivate?

A

Below 1500 ft RA during autoland. Between 60 and 40 ft RA. At touchdown, and smoothly lowers nose wheel to the runway.

43
Q

What thrust is set with THR REF indicated?

A

Thrust is set to the selected thrust limit on the EICAS.

44
Q

What does the A/T mode HOLD indicate?

A

A/T servos are inhibeted and the pilot can set the thrust levers manually.

45
Q

Which speed does the A/T mode SPD maintain?

A

The speed displayed on the PFD.

46
Q

Explain the logic of the ATT mode.

A

ATT will mainain bank between 5 and 30 degrees, or if the bank is greater than 30 degrees, return bank to 30 degrees.

47
Q

What steering indication will TO/GA roll mode maintain?

A

Present track at mode engagement.

48
Q

What is the initial pitch indication on the ground when TO/GA is pushed?

A

8 degrees pitch up.

49
Q

When does A/T reduce thrust to idle during a manual landing?

A

At 25 ft, unless FLCH or TO/GA is active.

50
Q

What altitude does the FMC use to decide when to engage VNAV during takeoff, accelerate for flap retraction and set climb thrust?

A

The barometric altitude recorded when accelerating through 100 kts.

51
Q

If an engine failure occurs on the ground, what would be the target speed at lift-off?

A

V2 or airspeed at lift-off, whichever greater.

52
Q

When does runway alignment occur?

A

Corsswinds requiring greater than 10 degrees of crab, at 500 ft. 5 to 10 degrees, intially at 500 ft, then once more at 200 ft. Less than 5 degrees, at 200 ft.

53
Q

When is a wings level sideslip introduced with an engine failure?

A

At 1300 ft or when the engine failure is detected.

54
Q

How can you terminate TO/GA mode above 400 ft?

A

Select a different roll or pitch mode.