Autoimmunity Flashcards

1
Q

Autoimmune diseases operate by what types of hypersensitivity?

A
  1. Type II - cytotoxic
  2. Type III - immune complex
  3. Type IV - T-cell mediated/delayed
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2
Q

What causes autoimmunity?

A
  • Developmental regulation disfunction
  • Genetics
  • Environment

NO ONE FACTOR CAN CAUSE AUTOIMMUNITY

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3
Q

Mutations in what gene(s) is the most common genetic determinant of autoimmunity?

A

HLA - MHCI and MHCII

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4
Q

11% of caucasian people have the HLA-A1-B8-DQ2-DR3 haplotype, which is more likely to _______

A

bind self-antigen, thus predisposing them to autoimmunity

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5
Q

What are the 3 “immune-privileged” sites of the human body?

A
  1. Corneas
  2. Brain
  3. Testes
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6
Q

What is the only autoimmune disease that is more common in men than women?

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

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7
Q

What is the normal function of the autoimmune regulator (AIRE) gene?

A

Production of self-antigen to aide in negative selection

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8
Q

What is autoimmune polyglandular disease (APD)?

A
  • Autoimmune response against many endocrine glands
    • hypoparathyroidism
    • adrenal failure
    • ovarian failure
    • type I diabetes
    • candidiasis
    • enamel hypoplasia
    • nail dystrophy
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9
Q

What are the mechanisms that contribute to central tolerance? (3)

A
  1. Negative selection of B cells in the bone marrow
  2. Expression of tissue-specific proteins in the thymus so that they participate in negative selection of T-cells (AIRE)
  3. Negative selection of T-cells in the thymus
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10
Q

What are the mechanisms that contribute to peripheral tolerance? (3)

A
  1. Exclusion of lymphocytes from immune-privileged sites
  2. Induction of anergy in autoreactive B and T cells that reach the peripheral circulation
  3. Suppression of autoimmune responses by regulatory T-cells
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11
Q

Mutation of the X-linked FoxP3 gene causes a rare immunodeficiency that principally affects boys, called _______

A

immune dysregulation, polyendocrineopathy, enteropathy, X-linked disease (IPEX)

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12
Q

Children with IPEX have normal levels of _____ cells and elevated levels of ______ cells

A
  • CD25 T-reg cells
  • TH17 cells
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13
Q

How does IPEX present clinically?

A
  • Enteritis → chronic diarrhea
  • Type 1 diabetes
  • Eczema
  • Failure to thrive
  • Do not survive past 1 y/o
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14
Q

_____ tolerance is negative selection during lymphocyte development, occurring in primary lymphoid organs

A

Central tolerance

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15
Q

_____ tolerance refers to anergy or suppression of auto-reactive cells; occurring in secondary lymphoid organs

A

Peripheral tolerance

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16
Q

True or false, peripheral tolerance only occurs after infection occurs.

A

True

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17
Q

What is the consequence of a T-cell failing to receive a co-stimulatory signal from B7 on APCs?

A

Anergy

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18
Q

Binding of pathogen to self-protein results in _____

A

pathogen creating a unique epitope for autoimmunity to occur

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19
Q

How can disruption of cell tissue or barrier result in autoimmunity?

A

Unregulated release of cellular contents (self-antigen) can activate nontolerized lymphocytes

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20
Q

What is molecular mimicry?

A

Pathogen antigen resembles host antigen, which triggers production of cross-reactive antibodies or T-cells

21
Q

How do superantigens elicit an autoimmune reaction?

A

Stabilization of the MHC-TCR complex without the need for a co-stimulatory signal, thus activating potential auto-reactive T-cells

22
Q

Describe the Bystander effect in regard to B and T cells.

A

Self-reactive B/T cells receive second signal for activation from nearby cells

23
Q

Grave’s disease is associated with mutations in what gene?

24
Q

Describe the mechanism of Grave’s disease

A

Auto-IgG are generated against TSH receptor, however these antibodies are agonistic so they cause activation of the receptor and cause chronic overproduction of T3 and T4

25
What are the symptoms of Grave's disease?
* **Hyperthyroid** * heat intolerance * nervousness * irritability * weight loss * bulging eyes * enlarged thyroid
26
Grave's disease can be treated with drugs that inhibit uptake of \_\_\_\_\_
Iodine
27
True or false. If someone with Grave's disease was pregnant, they cannot transfer the disease to their child.
False. IgG cross the placenta so the newborn will suffer the disease until the IgG is cleared
28
Describe the mechanism of myasthenia gravis
Auto-IgG against acetylcholine receptors are antagonistic and marks them for endocytosis and degradation
29
Describe the clinical presentation of myasthenia gravis in its early and late stages
* Early - drooping eyelids (ptosis); double vision (diplopia) * Late - weakening of chest muscles; impaired breathing
30
How do pyridostigmine and azathioprine work to treat myasthenia gravis?
Inhibits the breakdown of acetylcholine
31
What are the differences between warm antibody types and cold antibody types in autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
* Warm - IgG against RhD * Cold - IgM against glycophorin (I antigen) * only produced in individuals that live in cold climates (advised to move)
32
Infection by _______ produces a mimicry response by cross-reacting with the I antigen on hemoglobin.
*Mycoplasma pneumonia*
33
Describe the mechanism by which Rheumatic fever is triggered.
* IgG against *Streptococcus pyogenes* cross-reacts with heart myosin, joints, and kidneys * Occurs weeks after infection
34
Describe the mechanism by which Goodpasture's syndrome develops
* Auto-IgG against Type IV collagen against the glomerulus basement membrane * Triggers complement cascade leading to inflammatory damage
35
How does Goodpasture's syndrome present clinically?
* Glomerulonephritis * Pneumonitis (in smokers) * Pulmonary hemorrhage (in smokers)
36
How is Goodpasture's syndrome treated?
Plasma exchange
37
Rheumatoid arthritis is associated with mutations in what gene?
HLA-DR4
38
Describe the two possible mechanisms by which Rheumatoid arthritis develops.
1. Deposition of immune complexes in the joints (rheumatoid factor) 2. Abs directed against citrullinated epitopes of self-proteins (peptidyl arginine deaminases); citrulline is a non-human amino acid
39
What exactly is rheumatoid factor?
Auto-IgG directed against the Fc region of other IgG
40
How do adalimumab and rituximab treat rheumatoid arthritis?
* Adalimumab - antibodies against TNF-α * Rituximab - antibodies against CD20
41
In Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE), how are antinuclear antibodies generated?
* UV radiation induces apoptosis and alteration of DNA structure * CD4 T-cells specific for self nucleosomal antigens produced
42
In SLE, where do immune complexes deposit? (4) Consequences?
1. Kidneys → glomerulonephritis 2. Joints → arthritis 3. Blood vessels → vasculitis 4. Skin → rash
43
How is SLE treated?
* NSAIDs * Immunosuppressants * Biologics
44
\_\_\_\_\_\_ is caused by a CD4 TH1 response against a variety of thyroid antigens, leading to an infiltration of lymphocytes that destroy normal architecture and impairs thyroid function
Hashimoto's thyroiditis
45
How does cell architecture change in Hashimoto's thyroiditis?
Thyroid becomes organized like lymphatic tissue
46
How is Hashimoto's thyroiditis treated?
Replacement thyroid hormone therapy
47
Mutations in ______ confer susceptibility to type I diabetes, whereas ____ confers resistance and overrides the former.
* DR4 * DQ6
48
Infections by _____ can induce type I diabetes by cross-reacting with insulin, glutamate decarboxylase, or protein components of β-islet cells, mediated by CD8+ T-cells
* Coxsackie (A&B) virus * Echovirus
49
Describe the mechanism by which celiac disease develops
* TH1 cells release inflammatory cytokines * Macrophages activated * More cytokines and ROS * Destruction of intestinal epithelial cells