Autoflt Flashcards
During an autolanding, thrust is automatically reduced to idle at _____.
between 50 and 25 feet RA
For automatic landings with crosswinds requiring a crab angle less than 5 degrees, runway alignment occurs at___?
200 ft AGL
Pulling the autopilot disengagebar down:
A. Disables bank angle envelope protection
B. Generates EICAS message “No Autoland”.
Other than during reverse thrust operation, the EICAS caution messsage “AUTOTHROTTLE DISC’ is displayed and aural alertsounds when the autothrottle is manually or automatically disconnected.
A. True
The Approach (APP) Switch:
A. When pushed, displays LOC or FAC and G/S or G/P in white (armed) prior to capture.
Pushing the Altitude Selector inner knob during clmb or descent:
A. With waypoint altitude constrains between the airplane altitude and the MCP altitude window, deletes the next altitude constraint.
B. With no altitude constraints and the MCPaltitude widow set above the FMC cruise alt, will reset the FMC cruise altitude, will reset the FMC cruise altitude to the window altitude
The Bank Limit Selector____.
In AUTO, controls bank limit between 15 and 25 degrees when in HDG SEL or TRK SEL depending on TAS.
Pushing the Lateral Navigation (LNAV) Switch:
A. Engages LNAV if the airplane is above 50 ft RA and within 2.5 NM of the active leg
B. When engaged, displays LNAV in green on the FMA roll window.
During an autoland approach, the autopilot may be disengaged using:
A. either control wheel disconnect switch or pulling the MCP Autopilot disconnect bar down.
B. appropriate force applied to the control wheel and/or control column
C. appropriate force applied to the rudder pedals (LAND 3 or LAND 2 only)
With LAND 3 indication, the autopilot system level of redundancy is such that a single fault cannot prevent the autopilot system from making an automatic landing.
A. True
The autothrottles disconnect automatically:
A. If a fault in the engaged autothrottle mode is detected.
B. When either reverse thrust lever is raised to idle.
C. If the thrust levers are overidden during a manual landing, after the autothrottle has begun to retard the thrust levers to idle.
What does it mean when the TO/GA annunciation in the FMA roll and pitch windows are both green?
C. TO/GA is engaged for roll and pitch.
With LOC and G/S armed, to capture the localizer, which of the followng conditions must exists?
B. ILS / GLS frequency must be set.
C. Aircraft heading must be within 120 degrees of localizer course.
With LNAV and VNAV armed for take-off, they can be disarmed:
C. Above 80 knots by pushing either TO/GA switch.
What does the “AUTOPILOT” EICAS message mean when an amber line is drawn through the pitch mode on the FMA?
B. The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot is continuing to operate.
If the autothrottle system is not engaged by 50 kts on takeoff it cannot be engaged until above ____.
400 ft
Overriding the autopilot with control wheel, control column inputs with LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated will cause the autopilot to disengage.
A. True
During cruise with the autopilot engaged, how many autopilots actually control the aircraft?
All operating autopilots
If landing on runway 26 with flaps 30 and the autothrottles engaged and with the winds reported as 230/15 G 25, what should the target speed be ____?
Vref 30 + 5
On an ILS with LOC and G/S captured, below 1500 feet, the LOC and G/S modes can only be disengaged by:
Disconnecting the autopilot and turning both Flight Directors off, or engaging TO/GA.
Pushing the FLCH button in flight will automatically engage the autothrottles:
In the THR mode.
When climbing or descending in V/S O FPA, the AP/FD pitch mode will change to _____when the selected altitude is reached.
ALT
Below 1500 ft with LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated:
Any combination of two or more autopilots are controlling the aircraft.
When VNAV is armed for takeoff it engages:
At 400 ft above runway elevation.
In flight, TO/GA is armed whenever the flaps are out of up, or a glidescope capture.
A. True
During a Go-Around, pushing either TO/GA switch once causes the autothrottle to:
Engage in thrust (THR) mode for a 2,000 fpm climb.
Windshear recovery guidance is provided by the command bars and is:
A. Engaged by selecting TOGA on either throttle.
B. Always armed in the takeoff mode.
The minimum altitude the autopilot may be initially engaged at is ___ with one or both engines operating.
C. 200 ft
During CAT III LAND 3 operations, the autopilot automatically disengages when the thrust reversers are stowed.
B. False
What envelope protection(s) does the autopilot provide during operation in the normal flight control mode?
A. Stall
B. Overspeed
C. Bank Angle
What pitch and roll commands does the Flight Director provide during T/O
A. V2 +15 kts or the speed at rotation plus 15 kts whichever is greater.
B. Heading to maintain the track existing at 5 ft RA after rotation.
C. If target speed is exceeded for 5 seconds, a new target speed up to V2 + 25 kts max.
During climb, if CLB DIR is selected, all altitudes between the airplane altitude and the lower of the MCP or FMC cruise altitude will be deleted.
A. True
During autoland operations, which of the following occurs at 1500 ft AGL?
A. Self test of autoland system.
C. LAND 2 or 3 annunciated on the ASA (Rollout and Flare annunciated as armed).
A flight director mode failure, in either pitch or roll, causes the respective ______ to disappear.
A. Steering bar
With the autothrottle FMA indication of THR REF, the thrust is set to _____.
C. The selected thrust limit displayed on the EICAS.
During the takeoff roll prior to lift off, if the autothrottles are not egaged by _____, they cannot be engaged until above 400 feet AGL.
C. 50 kts
The Mode Control Panel (MCP) provides input to:
The autopilot, the flight director, and the autothrottles.
What display indicates positive engagement of a mode selected on the MCP?
The Flight Mode Annunciator.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Climb / Continuos (CLB / CON) Thrust Switch on the MCP?
A. Selecting CLB / CON with two engines operating selects FMC climb thrust.
B. Selecting CLB / CON with one engine operating selects max coontinuos thust.
C. Selecting CLB / CON is not necessay after an engine failure at cruise altitude if ENG OUT is executed pn the VNAV CRZ page of the CDU.
With an EICAS advisory message NO LAND 3 displayed, which of the following is true?
A CAT III approach and autoland can be safely conducted to LAND 2 minimums if supported by airport and aircrew requirments.
Approaches flown using IAN feature:
always use FMC computed glide path for vertical path guidance.
Autoland capability is available for ILS. GLS and IAN approaches.
B. False
During a low visibility takeoff using HUD guidance, lateral guidance is provided using _____.
A. ILS signals
B. GLS signals
When using HUD guidance for takeoff, the gidance cue becomes active as the aircraft approaches the centerline and _____.
is within 45 degrees or runway heading
If the autopilot remains engaged below 100 ft RA on a non-ILS approach, ____ is displayed.
NO AUTOLAND
To use IAN feature, flight crews should use the ____ mode to enable the approach.
APP
On an Autopilot Go-Around, TOGA to LNAV engages the LNAV function at a minimum altitude of ____.
200 ft RA
During a HUD Low Visisbility takeoff, the roll bar on the PFD can be used for lateral guidance.
B. False
Maximum capture angle for LOC or FAC cannot exceed ____ degrees
120
