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Airbus 320 > Autoflight > Flashcards

Autoflight Flashcards

1
Q

How many FMGCs are there?

A

Two

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2
Q

Does managed or selected guidance have priority?

A

Always selected guidance

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3
Q

What are the two parts of the FMGC?

A

Flight management and Flight guidance

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4
Q

What is the pilots main interface with the FMGS?

A

The MCDU

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5
Q

What are the three modes of operation for the FMGC?

A
  • Dual
  • Independent
  • Single
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6
Q

What causes independent mode of operation?

A

Mismatch in database validity or program compatibility.

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7
Q

What is the indication of independent mode of operation?

A

Amber “Independent Operation” on MCDU scratchpad.

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8
Q

What is the indication of single mode of operation of the FMGC?

A

“OPP FMGC IN PROCESS” on MCDU scratchpad

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9
Q

What causes single mode of operation of the FMGC?

A

Failure of one FMGC

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10
Q

Which FMGC is master with one autopilot engaged?

A

Onside FMGC

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11
Q

Which FMGC controls the FMAs?

A

Master FMGC controls both FMA 1 and 2

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12
Q

How is managed guidance indicated on the FCU?

A

Associated display window has dashes with a white managed dot next to it.

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13
Q

How is selected guidance of a mode engaged?

A

Turning control knob to set desired value, then pulling it out.

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14
Q

How is managed NAV mode armed indicated?

A

By blue NAV on second line of lateral FMA

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15
Q

Will the display in altitude window show dashes in a managed climb or descend?

A

No

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16
Q

Is it possible to be in a managed vertical mode and a selected lateral mode?

A

No

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17
Q

What is the meaning of an ALT indication in magenta on the second line of the vertical FMA?

A

Target altitude for level off is a constraint

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18
Q

What is the meaning of an ALT indication in blue on the second line of the vertical FMA?

A

Target altitude for level off is the FCU armed altitude

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19
Q

What is the meaning of a FMA “FINAL APP NAV” in blue?

A

Managed non-precision approach is armed

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20
Q

When can two autopilots be engaged?

A

ILS mode armed or engaged

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21
Q

What is the indication of A/THR armed?

A

A/THR displayed in blue in the fifth column of the FMA

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22
Q

How is the FM position calculated?

A

Each FMGC computes FM position from MIX IRS position and radio or GPS position.

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23
Q

What is GPIRS position?

A

Hybrid MIX IRS/GPS position calculated by each IRS

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24
Q

What is the bias in navigation?

A

Vector calculated from MIX IRS to GPIRS or Radio position. Applied to MIX IRS position to calculate FM position.

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25
Q

What is the significance of the Navigation Accuracy high or low?

A

High - Estimated Position Uncertainty (EPU) within RNP.

Low - Estimated Position Uncertainty (EPU) outside RNP.

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26
Q

What is meant by the message “GPS PRIMARY”

A
  • Accuracy HIGH

- Integrity criterion met (FDE RAIM)

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27
Q

When is the ILS autotuned?

A
  • Departure runway has an associated ILS, or

- Arrival in flight plan has an ILS

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28
Q

What is normal IRS alignment time?

A

10 minutes

29
Q

How long is the fast alignment time?

A

30 seconds

30
Q

When is the ADF autotuned?

A

When the flight plan has a NDB approach and a fix in the approach is the TO waypoint.

31
Q

How many DME frequencies are used by the FMGC?

A

5

32
Q

When do the FD bars become visible?

A

Pitch bar - T/O thrust applied

Roll bar - Soon after liftoff

33
Q

When is the yaw bar visible?

A

< 30’ RA with a localizer signal

34
Q

What happens with the FD with the failure of one FMGC?

A

Valid FD will be supplied to both PFD from functioning side. 1 FD 1 or 2 FD 2 on FMA.

35
Q

What is the indication of a lost G/S and/or localizer signal?

A

FD bars will flash continuously

36
Q

What is the earliest the A/P can be engaged?

A

5 seconds after liftoff but not before 100’

37
Q

How are the A/P signals distributed from FCU to the F/CTL computers?

A

From FCU - FMGCs - ELACs and FACs - SECs and BCSU

38
Q

How can the autopilot be disengaged?

A
  • Side stick takeover pushbutton
  • A/P button on FCU
  • Side stick or rudder moved beyond limit
  • MDA -50’ on managed NPA
  • High speed protection active
  • AOA protection active
  • Bank angle >45°
39
Q

How can the A/THR be deactivated but remain armed?

A

Moving thrust levers forward of Climb detent.

40
Q

What is the indication of A/THR armed?

A

Blue A/THR in the fifth column of FMA

41
Q

What are the different A/THR modes?

A
  • Thrust
  • Speed/Mach
  • Retard
42
Q

What are the different settings of the A/THR thrust mode?

A
  • MCT
  • CLB
  • IDLE
  • THR
43
Q

Will altitude constraints be taken into account in OP climb or descent mode?

A

No

44
Q

Which thrust setting will be used in OP descent?

A

Idle thrust

45
Q

When does Altitude Hold mode engage from Altitude Aquire mode?

A

When within 20’ of target altitude.

46
Q

What speed will be used in Expedite Climb or Expedite Descent mode?

A

Climb - Green dot

Descent - 340kts / M0.80

47
Q

How is expedite mode cancelled?

A
  • Engage open climb/descent (Pull alt selector)
  • Engage managed climb/descent (Push alt selector)
  • Engage vertical speed mode (Pull V/S selector)
  • Activate selected speed (Pull speed selector)
48
Q

Is V/S and FPA a managed or selected mode?

A

Selected only

49
Q

Does speed mode or V/S mode have priority?

A

V/S mode has priority

50
Q

When will managed NAV engage if armed before takeoff?

A

At 30’

51
Q

When will RWY mode engage and what does it provide?

A

Engages on takeoff run, provides yaw bar and guidance up to 30’.

52
Q

When will RWY TRACK mode engage?

A

At 30’ unless NAV mode was armed before takeoff.

53
Q

What is the speed target for pitch in SRS mode?

A

2 engines - V2 + 10kts

1 engine - V2 or current speed

54
Q

What are the pitch limits for SRS mode?

A

Maximum 18°NU

Minimum 120 ft/min

55
Q

When does the LAND mode engage?

A

400’

56
Q

When does the FLARE mode engage?

A

40’

57
Q

When does the ROLLOUT mode engage?

A

Touchdown

58
Q

How can the LAND mode be disengaged?

A

Only by selecting Go-Around mode

59
Q

How long will FINAL APP mode provide guidance?

A

To MDA-50’ or 400’ (with no MDA selected)

- Autopilot disconnects and F/D reverts to HDG V/S.

60
Q

When is the G/S mini function available?

A

On approach in managed speed

61
Q

With the G/S mini function active, what speed will be maintained on approach?

A

Vapp + difference between reported wind and actual wind.

62
Q

How is G/A mode engaged?

A

By moving the thrust levers to the TOGA detent

63
Q

Which vertical and lateral modes will be engaged at TOGA?

A

SRS vertical and GA TRK lateral

64
Q

Which speed will be maintained by SRS in G/A?

A

Higher of Vapp or the speed upon activation of TOGA

65
Q

What is the minimum A/P disengage height for a CAT 1 approach?

A

160’ AGL

66
Q

What is the minimum A/P disengage height for a CAT 2 approach?

A

80’ AGL

67
Q

What is the minimum A/P disengage height for a NPA approach?

A

MDA

68
Q

What are the CAT II/III wind limitations?

A

Headwind - 30kts
Crosswind - 20kts
Tailwind - 10kts

69
Q

When does the approach phase activate?

A

When overflying the DECEL pseudo waypoint with NAV mode engaged <9.500’

Airbus 320 (15 decks)

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