Auto Flight Flashcards

1
Q

What systems make up the Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS)?

A

The flight director (FD), autopilot (AP) and the auto throttles (AT). AOM 9-03-01

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2
Q

Which panel hosts the controls for the AP, AT and FD, plus lateral and vertical reference /mode selection and course selection?

A

The Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS) panel. AOM 9-03-30

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3
Q

What does pushing the FD button on the AFCS panel do?

A

Engages and disengages the flight director on those PFD’s. AOM 9-03-30

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4
Q

What does pushing the AT button on the AFCS panel do?

A

Engages and disengages the auto throttle. AOM 9-03-30

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5
Q

What does the outer ring of the SPD knob do?

A

Select the source of the speed reference between MAN and FMS. AOM 9-03-30

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6
Q

What does pushing the HDG button on the AFCS panel do?

A

Select heading mode when pushed once and alternates with roll mode is pushed again. AOM 9-03-30

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7
Q

Pushing the BANK button on the AFCS will toggle between what bank angles?

A

+/- 15° and +/- 30° AOM 9-03-30

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8
Q

What is the up and down range of the FPA mode?

A

9.9° up and down. AOM 9-03-30

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9
Q

How can the flight path angle/reference line be selected?

A

By rotating the FPA knob. AOM 9-03-30

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10
Q

What does the outer knob of the ALT knob select? The inner knob?

A

Selects the altitude increasing/decreasing 1000 feet. Select the altitude increasing/decreasing 100 feet.

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11
Q

What does pushing the SRC button do?

A

Alternates between PFD 1 and PFD 2 FMA modes as the source for the auto pilot. AOM 9-03-30

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12
Q

When the autopilot is engaged, what does pushing the TCS button on the sidestick do?

A

It activates the TCS (AP override) as long as neither the takeoff nor go-around mode is active. AOM 9-03-30

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13
Q

Where are the AT/DISC buttons located? The TO/GA buttons?

A

On the thrust levers. AOM 9-03-30

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14
Q

With the AP engaged, will the AP disengage if the force is applied on the sidestick, either in the pitch or roll direction?

A

Yes. AOM 9-03-30

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15
Q

What are the two FD cues presented?

A

The flight director cue (a magenta circle) and the takeoff cross bar. AOM 9-03-30

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16
Q

What does the green Flight Path Vector cue indicate?

A

The current flight path in reference to the horizon line. AOM 9-03-30

17
Q

Where is the Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA) located and what does it display?

A

On the upper part of both PFD’s; annunciation for auto throttle, autopilot, approach status, lateral and vertical modes. AOM 9-03-30

18
Q

List the FMA color codes for normal operation.

A
  • Magenta – For FMS active/engaged modes
  • Green – Non-FMS active/engaged modes
  • White – Armed modes;
  • Amber – Alert condition
  • Red – Abnormal condition. AOM 9-03-30
19
Q

What does an amber LIM on the FMA indicate?

A

The auto throttle is in speed mode and the selected speed target cannot be achieved because the auto throttle has limited N1 rating. AOM 9-03-30

20
Q

What are the two precision approach capabilities of the airplane?

A

Either APPR 1 or APPR 2. AOM 9-03-30

21
Q

When is the autopilot aural alert triggered?

A

When the auto pilot is disengaged by the pilot or due to a system failure. AOM 9-03-30

22
Q

How can the autopilot aural alert be cancelled?

A

By pressing AP/PTY buttons on either side stick. AOM 9-03-30

23
Q

When will the airplane automatically transition to the half bank mode?

A

When the aircraft altitude is greater than 25,000 feet during a climb. AOM 9-03-40

24
Q

Prior to selecting the TO/GA button, what must be set in order to display the takeoff crossbar on the PFD?

A

The flaps set to 1 or 2, the aircraft weight must be set and the takeoff speeds must be sent in the FMS. AOM 9-03-40

25
Q

What computed takeoff speed reference is set in T/O mode?

A

V2 + 15 kts (AEO); in the case of OEI below V2 the speed reference will be set to V2. AOM 9-03-40

26
Q

What altitudes are associated with the ILS approach check points to try to engage the highest system capability available?

A

1500 ft RA and 800 ft RA. AOM 9-03-40

27
Q

What is Emergency Descent Mode (EDM)?

A

A function than can automatically bring the airplane to a safe altitude in the ultimate scenario of cabin depressurization and pilot incapacitation. AOM 9-03-40

28
Q

When is EDM enabled?

A

When the autopilot is engaged and the aircraft is above 25,000 ft. AOM 9-03-40

29
Q

When is EDM activated?

A

When EDM is enabled and a depressurization event occurs (a red CABIN ALTITUDE CAS message is displayed) AOM 9-03-40
Note: EDM is triggered specifically by the CABIN ALTITUDE HI CAS message, which can itself be triggered by high cabin altitude OR by setting the oxygen knob to PAX OVRD.

30
Q

If the autopilot (AP) is engaged, what happens to the auto throttle (AT) when the airspeed is below the top of the LSA white bar +5 kt?

A

The auto throttle will automatically be engaged and the speed bug will be set to LSA white bar +5kt. AOM 9-03-40

31
Q

What happens to the Autopilot (AP) when the AOA limit function is activated?

A

It is disengaged. AOM 9-03-40

32
Q

What phases of flight is the auto throttle system approved to operate in?

A

All phases of flight; takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, approach, landing and during OEI operations. AOM 9-03-50

33
Q

What is the purpose of the HOLD mode of the auto throttle?

A

To ensure that no undesirable thrust reductions are experienced during the takeoff. AOM 9-03-50

34
Q

When will the auto throttle (AT) HOLD mode be activated?

A

From the time the airplane exceeds 60 kts during the takeoff until 400 ft AGL. AOM 9-03-50

35
Q

What is the minimum autopilot engagement height?

A

400 ft. AOM 2-56

36
Q

What is the minimum autopilot use height with Vertical Path Reference?

A

80 ft. AOM 2-56

37
Q

What is the minimum autopilot use height without Vertical Path Reference?

A

180 ft. AOM 2-56

38
Q

When planning to land with the auto throttle engaged, what is the Vref additive and how much is unfactored landing distance multiplied by?

A

5 kias; 1.1. AOM 2-56