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ATPI Flashcards

1
Q

What is Direct Lift Control

A

The elevator/stabilizer provides direct lift control. The elevator and stabilizer are aerofoils that by their positions create an upward or downward balancing force that controls the direct lift force from the main aerofoils thus determining the attitude of the aircraft around the lateral axis.

On some specific aircraft types, direct lift control also refers to an automatic varying of spoiler deployment to maintain a constant pitch attitude on the approach to land.

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2
Q

What are the effects of spanwise flow over a wing

A

creates wingtip vortices
reduced aileron efficiency
reversed span-wise flow upper surface at wingtip leads to disturbed airflow at wingtip leading to loss of lift and wingtip stalling

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3
Q

what are effects of wingtip vortices

A

Induced drag
wake turbulence
Down-wash over tail-plane

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4
Q

purpose vortex generators/wing fences

A

reduce span-wise flow over the wing, vortex generators increase control efficiency by turning airflow perpendicular to control surface. There is a marked increase in air density.

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5
Q

What do winglets achieve

A

They are designed to reduce induced drag. They dispense the spanwise airflow from the upper and lower surface often at different points, depending on the particular design, thus preventing the intermixing of these airflows that otherwise would create induced drag vortices.

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6
Q

How does forward C of G effect weight

A

Downforce applied to the tailplane in order to maintain level flight is effectively a weight and an increase in weight leads to an increase in stalling speed

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7
Q

How does weight effect descent profile

A

Heavier the aircraft, earlier the descent if you want to achieve the same IAS/Mn

Increase weight = Increase IAS/Mn = Increase ROD

If you want to descent at a Constant IAS/Mn = reduce the ROD to counteract the increased weight = earlier descent

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8
Q

Describe how you would design a swept wing

A

Thin, minimal camber, swept wing

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9
Q

How does sweep increase Mach Crit

A

Since the wing is responsive only to the velocity vector normal to the leading edge, the effective chordwise velocity is reduced (in effect, the wing is persuaded to believe that it is flying slower than it actually is).

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10
Q

Disadvantages of swept wing aircrafts

A

Poor lift qualities due to wing sweep, leads to higher stall speeds
Wingtip stalling

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11
Q

Why does wing swept wing stall from wingtip to root

A

Higher aerodynamic loading at wingtip due to taper
Reverse span-wise flow air leading to boundary layer separation
Increased induced drag with wing sweep at tips

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12
Q

Why are wings tapered

A

High aspect ratio wing - Low Drag, High Lift

Taper is compromise of strength vs weight to allow for the highest possible lift with minimal drag

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13
Q

High aspect ratio lift/drag properties

A

reduces induced drag!!!

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14
Q

Reduce wing tip stall

A

Increase Camber at wingtip (Change aerofoil section)

Increase angle of incidence at wing root

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15
Q

Describe Characteristics Mach Crit

A

Mach Buffet - Due to shockwave

Increase drag - breakdown of airflow (turbulent flow)

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16
Q

CP movement during Mcrit

A

High camber above wing shockwave forms forcing C.P rearwards

Swept wing aircraft, high camber at wing root - CP moves rearward down the wing

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17
Q

Stall speed with altitude

A

Increases - IAS increases due to compressiblity error on the instrument

Total drag is increased because the Mach no compressiblity effect on the wing disturbs the airflow over the wing which effectively reduces lift, increasing drag leading to a higher EAS requried

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18
Q

Deep stall

A

Swept wing - Wing tip stalling, wing loading and forward moving C.P

Forward fuselage acts as a wing creating further lift

Turbulent airflow envelopes tail-plane of aircraft

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19
Q

Counter act Deep stall

A

STALL WARNING

Stick shaker stick pusher

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20
Q

6 reasons for spoilers

A
  1. Aileron size is limited
  2. Thin swept wing aircraft’s - Large airlerons lead to wing twist at high speed
  3. Spanwise flow at high speed reduces aileron effeciancy
  4. Counteract adverse rolling moment with yaw
  5. Speedbrakes
  6. Lift dumping devices in rejected take off, places greater weight on wheels increasing braking efficiancy
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21
Q

Effect of flaps on take off run and second segment climb performance

A

Higher flap setting = Increased chord = Increased lift for low drag penalty = reduced Vs

Reduced Vs = reduced Vr (1.05Vs), reduced V2 (1.2Vs)

NOTE

Drag is not significantly increased because the angle of attack is low. However, the drag increment is higher when the aircraft is in flight and out-of-ground effect because of the aircraft’s angle of attack is much higher.

Initial and second-segment climb performance thus will be reduced with a high takeoff flap setting.

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22
Q

Parallel/Series Yaw Dampers

A

Parallel - Moves with rudders - makes it difficult for pilot inputs during engine failures on take off or a crosswind landing

Series - Does not move rudder pedals, and makes rudder inputs for the pilot easier during crosswind/engine failurs

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23
Q

4 reasons for varible incidence stabalizer

A

Balancing force for a large C of G range
Cope with large trim changes (configuration is changed)
Reduce elevator trim drag to a minimum
Balancing force for large speed range (run out of elevator)

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24
Q

What is an active control

A

Control surface that moves independently from pilot input - balance tab

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25
Q

Advantages/Disadvantages of propeller

A

Slipstream effect, more lift, more responsive rudder, quick response to power changes

Lack of speed due to prop RPM limits due to tips becoming supersonic

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26
Q

Why is a propeller blade twisted

A

To ensure a constant angle of attack throughout the blade

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27
Q

Why is the number 1 engine the critical engine on a multi engine propeller aircraft

A

SLIPSTREAM EFFECT

ASYMMETRIC BLADE EFFECT

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28
Q

What is SFC

A

Ratio of fuel burnt per hour to thrust produced in lbs

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29
Q

Advantages of the Fan Engine

A 
Better SFC
Reduced Noise
Smaller engine
Reduced contamination
Larger airmass flow
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30
Q

Wide chord fan engines advantages

A

Better SFC, Reduced Weight, increased thrust, Less Noise

Pioneered by Rolls Royce

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31
Q

Why is an engine flat rated

A

The fan engine is flat rated to give it the widest possible range of operation, keeping within its defined structural limits, especially in dense air.

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32
Q

Why do Jet aircrafts operate as high as possible

A

Best SFC - as alt increases at constant Mach No. EAS decreases and therefore drag decreases, so thrust required decreases.

Due to decrease in density SFC reduces for optimal mixing of airflow

Engines operate at optimum efficiency at high 90-95% N1 - High RPM

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33
Q

Engine Hung Start Causes

A

High Altitude low density start
Hot temperature low density start
Inefficient compression - Damaged blades
Low starter RPMs

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34
Q

Engine Hot Start Causes

A

Tailwind Start
Over fueling combustion chamber
Blocked intake/exhaust

result of Hung, Wet start

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35
Q

Can a maximum takeoff weight aircraft use a reduced takeoff technique?

A

Yes, a reduced-thrust takeoff can be used even when an aircraft is at its maximum takeoff structural weight, providing the TOR/D is not limiting. This is so because you can trade momentum gained from a longer TOR/D to achieve the V1 and VR speeds at the performance-limiting conditions for a lower thrust setting

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36
Q

Why do you use variable/reduced thrust (flex) takeoffs in a jet aircraft?

A

Reduce Engine Noise, Increase engine life

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37
Q

Why does engine pressure ratio (EPR) need to be set by 40 to 80 knots on the takeoff role?

A
  1. So that the pilot is not chasing rpm needles on the takeoff roll.
  2. To ensure an adequate aircraft acceleration so that the performance-calculated V1 and VR speeds are achieved by the takeoff run required (TORR) rotate point for the given aircraft weight and ambient conditions.
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38
Q

6 main handling differences between Jet and Prop aircraft

A 
Momentum 
Speed stability - Drag curve
Swept wing - less lift
Poor acceleration response at low rpm
No Slipstream no Prop Drag
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39
Q

Measure change of latitude

A 
1nm= 1 minute
60minutes = 1 degree
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40
Q

What is an INS

A

An INS is an onboard self-contained inertia navigation system that can provide continuous information on an aircraft’s position without any external assistance. An IRS (inertia reference system) is a modern INS that usually has a greater integration into the flight management system (FMS), and provides the aircraft’s actual magnetic position and heading information with reference to the FMS required position and heading. The directional acceleration information provided from the INS’s accelerometers and gyroscopes is calculated by the position computer that determines the aircraft’s present latitude and longitude position,

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41
Q

Components of INS

A
  1. Accelerometers 2. Gyroscopes 3. Position computer The aircraft moves in three dimensions, but the navigation equipment is only interested in acceleration in the horizontal plane. Therefore, the key to the whole INS arrangement is the accelerometers.
42
Q

What are the disadvantages of an INS?

A

Bounded Errors - Errors than do not increase in time
Schuler Loop - Acceleration error, distance error
Incorrect alignment with true north - bounded velocity erros

Unbounded Errors - Errors that increase over time
Not make allowance that earth is not a perfect sphere
Initial position errors
True north error
System does not account for distance between to points at different heights

43
Q

How does differential GPS work?

A

Global Positioning System (GPS) signals are received at a ground installation, which has been surveyed accurately. The ground installation then computes the differences between the known position and the position at which the GPS says it is (known as differential position error). It then sends a differential correction factor to any aircraft within 70 nautical miles using an aircraft communications and reporting system (ACARS) link that enables the aircraft’s onboard GPS navigation computer to correct its own normal GPS-derived position into a refined differential GPS position that is accurate to within 1 to 3 m. Therefore, differential GPS has the potential accuracy to be suitable for precision landing approaches,

44
Q

Why is INS better than GPS

A

Only true self contained on board system, less prone to errors and external factors

45
Q

What is FANS

A

Future Air Navigation Systems - All systems which improve air navigation. (GPS/INS ect ect)

46
Q

What is R NAV

A

Area navigation - VOR/VOR DME/DME to plot track and position

47
Q

Free Flight Concept

A

Operators can plot there own routing’s and pilots are responsible for air traffic avoidance by the use of TCAS, allows more direct routing

48
Q

OMEGA FRQ

LORAN C FRQ

A

3-30 VLF

LF

49
Q

How does a VOR work

A

FM reference-phase signal, which is omnidirectional, i.e., the same in all directions, and (2) an AM variable-phase signal, which has its phase varying at a constant rate, thus creating unique signals for each of the 360 radials. These VOR tracks or position lines are called radials;

50
Q

VOR Errors

A

Propagation error - scalloping
Site Error
Equipment Error

51
Q

How many inches of mercury to 1 HP

A
  1. 0295

33. 89

52
Q

What happens to the indicated Mach number (MN) in a long-range cruise as weight decreases at the same flight level (FL)? It decreases.

A

DECREASES

53
Q

ASI Errors

A
  1. Instrument error
  2. Pressure error
  3. Density error
  4. Compressibility error
  5. Maneuver error 6. Blocked pitot static system
54
Q

Air Data Computer

A

Modern aircraft feed their static and pitot lines into an air data computer (ADC) that calculates the RAS, TAS, MN, TAT, ROC, and ROD and then passes the relevant information electronically to the servo-driven flight instruments

  1. Autopilot (AP)
  2. Flight director system (FDS)
  3. Flight management system (FMS)
  4. Ground proximity warning system (GPWS)
  5. Navigation aids
  6. Instrument comparison systems
55
Q

What is TCAS

A

Traffic (Alert) Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) provides traffic information and maneuver advice between aircraft if their flight paths are conflicting with each other.

TCAS uses the aircraft’s secondary surveillance radar (SSR) transponders and is completely independent of any ground-based radar units.

TCAS I is an early system that provides traffic information only.

TCAS II is a later system that provides additional maneuver advice but in the main is restricted to vertical separation.

56
Q

How Does TCAS work

A

An aircraft’s traffic collision avoidance system (TCAS) will interrogate the secondary surveillance radar (SSR) transponders of nearby aircraft to plot their positions and relative velocities.

57
Q

RA’s should be restricted in the following circumstances

A
  1. In dense traffic area (limited to TA use)
  2. Descent recommendations inhibited below 1000 ft
  3. All RAs inhibited below 500 ft (Note: All TAs also restricted below 400 ft)
58
Q

EGPWS

A

Terrain mapping - Predictive terrain closure

Probable windshear aural and visual warnings also can be generated to warn of an impending possibility of encountering windshear ahead.

59
Q

Inputs GPWS

A
  1. Barometric altitude for rate of descent (ROD) calculations
  2. Radio altimeter
  3. Flap position
  4. Gear position
  5. Instrument landing system (ILS) glide slope
  6. Approach minima
  7. Throttle position
60
Q

GPWS Warning system

A

Mode 1. Excessive barometric rate of descent
Mode 2. Terrain closure
Mode 3. Sinking flight path after takeoff or go-around Mode 4. Gear and flap not selected
Mode 5. Instrument landing system (ILS) glide slope deviation
Mode 6. Approach minimas

Windshear warning is sometimes classed as a GPWS mode because it uses the GPWS flight crew visual and aural warning system. However, strictly speaking, it is not a ground proximity warning but a separate system.

61
Q

GPWS Mode priority

A

Highest - 1,2,3,4 - WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP

Lowest - 5

62
Q

Descibe windshear warning system

A

Modern aircraft are provided with windshear warnings by using air data computer–detected changes in airspeed to calculate the presence of a windshear phenomenon, which it feeds to the ground proximity warning system (GPWS), which generates a “Windshear, windshear” aural and visual display on the main attitude directional indicator (ADI) flight instrument.

up to 1500ft AGL

A windshear warning requires an immediate go-around at full thrust and maximum flight director pitch-up attitude to avoid ground contact.

63
Q

Order or Priority GPWS, Windshear, TCAS

A
  1. WIndshear
  2. GPWS
  3. TCAS
64
Q

Describe FMS

A

Manages aircraft performance and navigation to achieve the most optimal flight possible

65
Q

FMS 3 inputs

A

Pilot Inputs
Stored database
Information from aircraft systems

66
Q

Tire Creep

A

Tyre turns around wheel eventually ripping out the valve and leading to a blow out

67
Q

Tire temperature prior to takeoff depends on what factors?

A
  1. Outside air temperature
  2. Aircraft weight
  3. Taxi time
  4. Amount of braking
68
Q

Brake temperature prior to takeoff depends on what factors

A
  1. Aircraft takeoff weight
  2. Pressure altitude
  3. Outside air temperature (OAT)
  4. Runway slope
  5. Tail/headwind
  6. Taxi times
69
Q

What oxygen supply is delivered when selected to normal?

Why do you use 100% oxygen

A

Sea level oxygen pressure

It is not practical to keep the aircraft at the atmosphere’s sea-level pressure of 14.7 psi, but it is practical to increase the percentage volume of oxygen, thereby maintaining sea-level oxygen partial pressure.

70
Q

BCF Fire extinguishers

A

Bromo-chlorodi-fluoro-methane

71
Q

Jet/Propeller Screen height

A

50ft/35ft - Jet is lower due to the fact that the CL is lower on a swept wing jet aircraft

72
Q

Weight effect V1

A

Field length limiting (ASDR) - V1 reduce

Field length unlimited - V1 Increase

73
Q

V2 Speed

A

V2 (TOSS) speed is the takeoff safety speed achieved by the screen height in the event of an engine failure that maintains adequate directional control and climb performance properties of the aircraft.

V2= 1.1 x Vmca or 1.2 x Vs

74
Q

Cruise Climb Profile

A

The cruise climb profile is a compromise between the best en route speed profile and the best climb profile—most commonly used by commercial traffic. It provides faster en route performance, a more comfortable aircraft attitude, better aircraft control due to lower angle of attack, and greater airflow over the control surfaces.

75
Q

VRA/MRA

A

Turbulent air penetration speed

76
Q

VDF/MDF

A

Max flight diving speed (certification trials)

77
Q

Absolute Ceiling

A

The absolute ceiling is an aircraft’s maximum attainable altitude/flight level at which the Mach number buffet and prestall buffet occur coincidentally.

78
Q

Service Ceiling

A

The maximum service ceiling is an aircraft’s’ imposed en route maximum operating altitude/flight level, which provides a safety margin below its absolute ceiling.

79
Q

MRC

A

Maximum-range cruise. This is the speed at which, for a given weight and altitude, the maximum fuel mileage is obtained.

It is difficult to establish and maintain stable cruise conditions at maximum-range speeds.

80
Q

LRC

A

This is a speed significantly higher than the maximum-range speed, i.e., 10 knots (M 0.01),this resuluts in a 1 percent mileage loss at a constant altitude. The long-range cruise schedule requires a gradual reduction in cruise speed as gross weight decreases with fuel burnoff.

81
Q

Cost Index

A

A cost index (CI) is a performance management function that optimizes the aircraft’s speed for the minimum cost.

CI = CT/CF kg/min or 100 lb/hour

RATIO OF FLIGHT TIME/CONSUMPTION RATE TO FUEL COSTS

82
Q

How is range increased flying into a headwind

A

Increase speed - Increase range due to reduced time - Increased SFC which is outweighed by time saving

LIGHT HEADWIND

83
Q

Cruise Step Climb

A

A cruise (step) climb occurs when an aircraft in the cruise loses weight due to fuel burn, which allows the aircraft to fly higher; therefore, a cruise (step) climb is initiated to climb the aircraft to its new maximum altitude. Note: An aircraft

84
Q

What is the Critical point in flight planning

A

Point of equal time along a route

85
Q

What is RLW?

A

Restricted Landing Weight, i.e., the maximum landing weight for the runway length (LDA) and conditions.

Engine-out overshoot performance, weight, altitude, temperature (WAT), runway length (LDA), and runway condition.

86
Q

What is latent heat

A

Latent heat is the heat energy, measured in calories, absorbed or released when water changes from one state to another.

87
Q

DALR/SALR

A

Dry adiabatic lapse rate (DALR) is the adiabatic temperature change for unsaturated air as it rises. Unsaturated

Saturated adiabatic lapse rate (SALR) is the adiabatic change in temperature for saturated air as it rises.

88
Q

Relative Humidity

A

and relative humidity is a measure of the amount of water vapor present in a parcel of air compared with the maximum amount it can support

89
Q

Cloud definitions

A
  1. Cirro, or high-level cloud: (cloud base > 16,500–20,000 ft 2. Alto, or medium-level cloud: cloud base > 6500 ft
90
Q

What is mist and fog

A

Mist and fog are simply parcels of low-level air in contact with the ground that have small suspended water droplets that have the effect of reducing visibility.

91
Q

Describe upper winds

A

Upper winds are determined by the thermal gradient. A difference in temperature between two columns of air will cause a pressure difference at height even if both columns of air have the same sea level pressure. This pressure difference creates a wind (parallel to the isobars) at altitudethat is different from the wind experienced at sea level, even if no wind was present at sea level. The vector sum of the isotherm thermal wind component and the surface and upper isobar pressure-driven geostrophic (or gradient) wind produces the direction and speed of the upper wind. In the northern hemisphere, the thermal gradient is generally north-south (north cold and south warm), and therefore, the upper winds generally are westerly in direction (i.e., from the west), with the highest wind speed where the thermal gradient is greatest, e.g., jetstreams.

92
Q

Where do you find Jetstreams

A

Jetstreams are driven by thermal gradients and therefore are found wherever the thermal gradient is high enough. There are two bands of rapid temperature changes (i.e., high/maximum thermal gradient) in each hemisphere that are marked enough to produce a jetstream. They are 1. At the polar front around 60 degrees of latitude, where the
polar air meets the subtropical air. This is a polar front jetstream, and is the most marked thermal gradient to be found, especially when it is over land in the winter. 2.

At the intertropical front, where the subtropical air meets the tropical air. This is known as the intertropical front jetstream.

93
Q

Where is CAT most severe in a Jetstream

A

The maximum windshear/clear air turbulence (CAT) associated with a jetstream can be found level with or just above the jet core in the warm air but on the cold polar air side of the jet.

94
Q

Windspeed with reduction in altitude

A

At the surface, the wind weakens in strength (speed) and backs in direction in the northern hemisphere (veers in direction in the southern hemisphere).

95
Q

Cause of a Microburst

A

The microburst is a result of the downdrafts breaking out of the base of the cloud being colder than the surrounding air because it has only been warmed at the saturated adiabatic lapse rate (SALR) during the descent within the cloud. Therefore, since it is colder, it is also denser/heavier than the surrounding air, and thus it continues down to the surface, where it often can be felt as the first gust.

96
Q

SIGMET

A
  1. Active thunderstorms
  2. Tropical revolving storms
  3. Severe line squalls
  4. Heavy rain
  5. Severe turbulence
  6. Severe airframe icing
  7. Marked mountain waves
  8. Widespread dust or sandstorms
97
Q

What is the definition of RAPID in a forecast?

A

Less than 30minutes

98
Q

What is an adequate/suitable aerodrome for ETOPS diversion

A
  1. Aircraft performance is suitable for the airfield
  2. Adequate emergency facilities are available at the aerodrome
  3. Adequate aerodrome lighting facilities are available for night flights
  4. A basic instrument approach is available for any expected instrument meteorologic conditions (IMC)
  5. The aerodrome is open
99
Q

Typical Engine Fire drill

A
  1. Thrust lever close
  2. Auto throttle disengage
  3. Start lever switch off
  4. Engine fire warning switch engage
  5. Extinguish if necessary
100
Q

ICAO Wake Turbulance Seperation

A

Heavy - Heavy - 4nm
Heavy - Medium - 5nm
Medium - Light - 5nm
Heavy - Light - 6nm

Cathay (5 decks)

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