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Cathay > Airlink Interview Questions > Flashcards

Airlink Interview Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is an EAT

A

Expected approach time. The time you are expected to be overhead the IAF in order to commence the approach procedure

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2
Q

What is OCT

A

Onward clearance time, the time ATC expects you to leave an en route fix in order to position for the IAP (Normally within 10 minutes of your EAT)

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3
Q

IFR Alternate requirements

A

91.06.34 You may not nominate an aerodrome as an alternate unless it has a published letdown procedure if the aerodrome is expected to be in IMC conditions

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4
Q

Special VFR

A 
Take off/Landing
Within a control zone
Cloud base of 600ft
1500m visibility 
By day only
May not interfere with IFR traffic
By ATC approval only
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5
Q

VMU

A

Minimum unstick speed - Aircraft testing speed which is the minimum speed an aircraft will be able to rotate and climb out with all engines operational

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6
Q

Aquaplaning speed

A

9x square root of tire pressure for take off

7.6x square root of tire pressure for landing

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7
Q

3 types of hydroplanning

A

Dynamic - Deep standing water, where tire build a wedge up against the water and is lifted above the ground

Viscous - Thin layer of water that the tire cannot penetrate, normally on smooth surfaces with rubber deposits

Reverted Rubber - Occurs as a result of dynamic hydroplaning, heavy braking and a long skid. Tire heats due to friction and reverts to its original state, water boils and forms a pocket of steam which lifts the wheel off the ground, signs are long white streaks on runway

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8
Q

Effects of spanwise flow over a wing

A

reduced aileron efficiency
Increased wing tip vortices
Tip stalling

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9
Q

What is the purpose of a Mach Trimmer

A

To counteract the nose down pitching moment of Mach Tuck and increases the aircraft Mach Crit. It uses information from Mach meter and controls the angle of incidence of the Horizontal Stabilizer

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10
Q

What wing is most effected by dutch roll

A

Swept wing aircraft - Initial Yaw, upgoing wing is more exposed to airflow, greater lift and rolls. Increased drag causes a yaw in the opposite direction and therefore roll in opposite direction.

Oscillations in Yaw and Roll

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11
Q

What increases Dutch Roll

A

Wing Sweep
High Wing loading
High Altitude flight

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12
Q

What is propeller blade twist

A

Helix Angle, reason is the prop tips turn at a higher speed than the propeller root. By twisting the propeller you ensure a constant angle of attack throughout the blade

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13
Q

Describe maximum continues thrust

A

Maximum thrust which may be set for an indefinite period of time expressed as N1 or EPR

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14
Q

Where will you find a Microburst

A

Below well developed CB cloud and in the vicinity of thunderstoms

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15
Q

What is VMCG

A

Minimum control speed on the ground by use of aerodynamic control surfaces only (Rudder)
It is higher than VMCA
Increased with increased engine thrust and rearward C of G

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16
Q

What hazards to aviation does icing cause

A 
Increased weight
Reduced engine power
Blocking of vents (Pitot, static)
Degraded aerodymanic properties (Loss of lift)
Freezing of control surfaces
Degraded communication and navigation
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17
Q

What is the missed approach climb gradient

A

2.5%

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18
Q

MSA in ICAO and RSA

A

1000ft and 1500ft

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19
Q

What do you understand about an IRS

A

Internal Reference System
Independent navigation system
Makes use of accleromenters, gyros and a computer to plot great circle tracks

Accelerometers - Plot aircraft’s movement from parking bay
Gyro - Aligns to true north
Computer - Corrects for variation and errors

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20
Q

What is the Jeppesen definition of cloud ceiling

A

Lowest Layer of cloud covering more than half the sky below 20 000ft

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21
Q

Definition of LVP’s

A

Low Visibility Procedures

Procedures put in place by ATC to ensure safe traffic separation in the localizer sensitive area during low visibility operations

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22
Q

LVTO

A

Low visibility take off - Any take off conducted where the RVR is less than 400m

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23
Q

What is Mach No

A

Ratio of TAS compared to the LSS

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24
Q

GNSS Approach

A

Global Navigation Satellite System

A letdown procedure utilizing the GPS

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25
Q

Explain Windshear in a Microburst

A

Initial up draft followed by an extreme down draft

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26
Q

Why do tropical cyclones not form on the Equator

A

No Coriolis effect

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27
Q

Wet and contaminated Runways

A

Wet - Shiny apperance to it, less than 3mm standing water

Contaminated - more than 3mm of standing water covering more than 25% of the runway, slush, snow or ice

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28
Q

What is an Approach Ban

A

A point at FAF where the approach must be abandoned if the RVR and cloud ceiling (Only for NPA) falls below minima

You may continue beyond the FAF under the following conditions

  1. Cloud base/RVR is variable on minima
  2. It is a training flight and missed approach is pre planned
  3. The weather drops below the minima once you have passed the FAF

Where there is NO FAF indicated, Glideslope is intercepted for PA
For NPA 1000ft AGL
Jeppesen - Maltese Cross
91.07.2

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29
Q

FAF or Precision/Non Precision approaches

A

Final approach segment begins - Maltese cross/Glideslope intercept or within 5 degrees of the inbound were no FAF is indicated

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30
Q

Why is it important to Check Outer Marker Crossing height

A

Check for false glideslopes and that you have the correct QNH set

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31
Q

If Transmissiometer at TDZE is unservicable may you continue your appraoch

A

Yes, you can convert Visibility to RVR via the tables 91.07.4

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32
Q

What do you understand about WAT limtiation

A

Weight, altitude, temperature limitations which ensure you comply with 4 segment climb profile with one engine inoperative

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33
Q

Define VA,VLO,VSO

A

VA - Maneuvering speed - Maximum speed at which full scale control deflection is achieved without over stressing the aircraft
VLO - Landing gear operating speed
VSO - Basic stall speed in the landing configuration

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34
Q

What does established mean

A

5 degrees for an NDB

half scale on the localizer/VOR

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35
Q

Maximum RVR recorded

A

1500m

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36
Q

What is Mach Tuck

A

Nose down pitching moment caused by rearward movement of the C of P as the shockwave moves down over the upper surface of the wing

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37
Q

Balanced field

A

V1 is calculated that you ASDR is equal to your TODR

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38
Q

Advantages of Swept wing aircrafts

A

Higher Mach Crit

More lateral stability in turbulence - Due to reduced lift of swept wings

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39
Q

AIRMET

A

Recorded telephone message which provides FORECAST of weather for a particular area

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40
Q

SIGMET

A

Significant Meteorological Weather Report
Valid 4 hours unless volcanic ash/TRS = 6 hours
Thunderstorms
Squall lines
Severe Windshear/turbulance
Severe Icing conditions
Heavy Rain

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41
Q

What is a METAR

A

Meteorological Aerodrome Report releasing the actual weather at an aerodrome every 1 hour

42
Q

What is a Speci

A

Aviation Select Special Weather Report (valid for the same period as a METAR)

43
Q

TEMPO
BECMG
PROB

A

Temporary changes of less than 1 hour but longer than 30min
Becoming indicated with a time frame
Probability of weather indicated in a percentage up until 40%

44
Q

Two types of Reverse Thrust

A

Bucket/Clamshell

Cascade

45
Q

What happens to V1 on a wet runway

A

V1 may reduce in order to remain within limits of TORR

46
Q

Explain FADEC

A

Full Authority Digital Engine Control

Control engine start sequence and all aspects of engine parameters throughout flight allowing the engine to operate at its optimum efficiency

Total FADEC failure = Engine Failure

47
Q

ICAO Weight Categories

A

Light - 0 - 7000kg
Medium - 7000 - 136000kg
Heavy - above 136000kg

48
Q

Lost Comm Procedure

A

IMC - Radar control area - Maintain last assigned flight level or lowest safe altitude for 7 minutes starting once 7600 is squawking, aircraft failed to report over compulsory point, last assigned level MSA/MORA is reached. Continue climb to planned level, route over head aerodrome and descent in hold, commence approach at closest time to EAT or ETA and land within 30 in of EAT.
No Radar control - Maintain last assigned level for 20min

VMC - Route to nearest suitable aerodrome, report arrival to ATC as soon as practical

49
Q

Visual and VMC Apprpoach

A

Visual

ATC responsible for traffic separation
25nm of airfield
passed known reporting point
Ceiling above MSA
Visual reference to terrain

VMC

Requested by Pilot
Responsible for own traffic separation
Ensure approach is able to be flown in VMC conditions
Prescribed by ATC

50
Q

ICAO Holding speeds

A

14000ft - 230kts (170)
14000ft -20000ft - 240kts
20000ft - 34000ft -265kts

51
Q

What is DA referenced to

A

Threshold elevation

52
Q

Mayday and Pan call

A

Grave and eminent life theatening danger to safety of crew and passengers on board
Commander has an urgent message to relay regarding the safety of the flight

53
Q

How does anti skid system work

A

By sensing wheel rotation, when wheel rotation is to slow or stops, break pressure is reduced in order to prevent wheel lockup effectively increasing braking efficiency

54
Q

Prevent Aquaplaning

A

Firm touchdown, aerodynamic breaking, anti skid braking, only apply brakes when all 3 wheel points are on the ground

55
Q

The only 7 things you can be cleared for

A 
Start
Taxi
Enter/cross active runway
Take off
Enter an airspace
Approach
Landing
56
Q

Localiser Sterile area

A

Extends 150m either side of the centreline, extends from the localiser aerial to the beginning of the runway.

No aircraft/vehicle may enter this area from the time an aircraft is on a 10nm final until the time it vacates the runway or until a departing aircraft has completed its take off run

57
Q

What is an MEL

A

Minimum equipment list of an operator as approved by the state authority and the MMEL from the aircraft manufacturer which allows aircraft’s to be dispatched with open snags under certain conditions and restrictions

58
Q

What is a CDL

A

Configuration Deviation List - Same as a MEL put refers to the structure of the aircraft

59
Q

Speeds for CTR and ATZ

A 
below 10 000ft outside controlled airspace - 250kts
Turbine - 200kts
Piston - 160kts
50nm of beacon  - 250kts
15nm of beacon - 210kts
60
Q

En route holding times

A

14000ft - 4min and 984ft OCH

61
Q

Classes of Airspace in SA

A

Class A - IFR only above 20 000ft
Class C - IFR/VFR traffic and separation, controlled
Class F - Advisory - IFR/VFR receive advisory traffic service
Class G - Information service is provided in requested

62
Q

Stages of a Thunderstorm

A

Developing - Growing CB, updrafts
Mature - Heavy rainfall, large downdrafts, windshear, MB
Dissipating - Exhausted local supply of moisture, light rain, Anvil

63
Q

Microburst

A 
1-5min in length
Severe downdrafts
5km in diameter
associated with large well developed thunderstorms
may not be associated with rain
64
Q

What is a Jetstream

A

Narrow band of fast flowing air in the upper troposphere
caused by large temperature gradient
wind speed greater than 60kts to be classified JS
1500nm in length, 600nm wide, 12000ft deep
23000ft - 56000ft
associated with CAT
Polar Jet, Sub tropical Jet - Westerly
Equatorial Jet - Light Easterly

65
Q

What is a tropical cyclone

A

TRS - Typhoon - Indian ocean
Hurricane in the Pacific Ocean
Takes its energy from the latent heat in water 27 deg
dissipates over land
Backs in NH
Veers in SH
Deep low depression found along ITCZ
5-20 degrees North and South of Equator
Requires large Coriolis force
Fly right in NH, left in SH to take advantage of winds
Strong winds and spiral arrangement of storms

66
Q

Advantages of T Tail design

A

undisturbed airflow, reduced drag, increased lift, allows for tail mounted engines, more responsive pitch control

67
Q

Disadvantages of T Tail design

A

Deep stall

increased weight

68
Q

CANPA/CDFA

A

Constant angle non precision approach/ Constant descent final approach

69
Q

Windshear

A 
Rapid changes in wind direction and speed
elevated runways
vicinity of thunderstorms
approach over water
mountainous terrain

Approach techniques
Predictive windshear mode, increase Vref, reduce flap setting to minimum required, listen for pilot reports, monitor indicated airspeed

In event of go around do not make rapid configuration changes

70
Q

Wake Turbulance

A

Created by wingtip vortices of large aircraft’s at high angels of attack and low speed

Take off - Rotate before point of rotation of aircraft
Landing - stay above the glide path and land after touchdown point of aircraft

Most severe at point of rotation of large aircraft where a light crosswind exists

Radar Control separation - 5nm

71
Q

Visaul signs of wake turbulance

A

plumbs of dust on either side of runway, rotary clouds

72
Q

What can change wake turbulance delay times

A

Wind Direction and speed

Intersection take off

73
Q

What do you do if tower tells you runway is contaminatd

A

Refer to aircraft performance graphs to ensure you are within the limits for landing distance available
Calculate landing distance at 115% of available
Aerodynamic and anti skid braking with firm touchdown
brief on aquaplaning

74
Q

Coffin Corner

A

Occurs at aircraft’s absolute ceiling

Onset of the Mach buffet is equal to the lower end of the stall speed

75
Q

Compressor Stall

A

Axial Velocity of airflow is low compared to the tangential velocity of the turbine blade

Stall occurs, leads to pressure rise and reverse flow

Reasons - Worn turbine blades, disturbed airflow at intake, excessive combustion chamber pressure, high altitude flight

Pilot Response - Reduce Power, AOA, descent, increase airspeed

76
Q

RVSM

A

Reduced vertical seperation minima by ICAO, allows 1000ft clearance between flight levels from FL290-F410

77
Q

Water/Alcohol Injection

A

Boosting and cooling incoming by water vapour, methanol injection - increases air density and increases performance

Disadvantages - quenching flame and leads to un burnt fuel out of exhaust and black smoke trail

78
Q

CAVOK

A

Ceiling and visibility Ok

greater than 10km
Ceiling above 5000ft or MSA
NSW
No thunderstorms (CB)
withing 25mn of aerodrome
79
Q

Deep/Superstall

A

Swept wing aircrafts with T tail design are most prone
Wing tip stalls first, CP moves up the wing leading to a nose up pitching moment, aircraft stalls the tail plane is enveloped in disturbed airflow from the wing causing elevator control to be rendered uselss

Prevent - Stick pushers and Shakers

80
Q

Why do engines have auto ignition

A

In order to prevent engine flame out and protect against disturbed/turbulent airflow

81
Q

TORA/TODA

A

TORA - usable runway

TODA - Usable runway + Stopway + Clearway

82
Q

Circle to Land Minima ICAO

A

Cat A - 400ft 1500m
Cat B - 500ft 1600m
Cat C - 600ft 2400m
Cat D - 700ft 3600m

83
Q

ILS Minima

A 
CAT 1  - 200ft 550m RVR 800m vis
CAT 2 - 100ft 300m RVR
CAT 3a - 0-100ft 200m RVR
CAT 3b - 0-50ft  75m-200mm RVR
CAT 3c - 0ft 0 RVR
84
Q

RVR TDZE lighting out

A

Pilot assessment, you can count the runway center-line/edge lights and calculate RVR. If above applicable minima you may depart

85
Q

How can one increase Mach Crit

A

Reduce Camber, thinner wing, sweepback, Mach Trimmer,

86
Q

What is the difference between fog and mist

A

Fog - 1000m

Mist - 1000m-5000m

87
Q

Localiser and glideslope range

A

Localizer - 35 degree’s 17nm, 10 degrees 25nm

Glideslope - 8 degrees withing the localiser area

88
Q

How many phases are in an approach

A 
5
Arrival
Initial
Intermediate
Final 
Missed approach
89
Q

What is the troposphere, its temperature and altitude

A

The top of the troposphere where the temperature becomes isothermal. ISA conditions 36090ft -56.5 degrees. Most of the worlds weather occurs in the troposphere.

Warmer at poles than at the equator, greater isothermal layer at the poles

At Equator - 56000ft
At Poles - 30000ft

90
Q

SID climb gradient

A

3.3% Gross, 2.5% net

91
Q

Give 6 reasons for spoilers

A

Ailerons are limited in size and therefore effectiveness
Sweep-back reduces aileron effectiveness
Ailerons can lead to wing twist at high altitude, high speed flight
Used as speed brakes to slow the aircraft down
Used as lift dump devices on the ground
Used to counteract adverse aileron yaw but applying drag to the down going wing

92
Q

What is Q feel

A

Artificial feel system for fly by wire controls

calculated at 1/2r V squared

93
Q

What is the helix angle

A

Angle between the resultant relative velocity and the blade rotation angle

94
Q

MABH

A

Minimum break off height - aircrafts with large inertia, minimum height on an ILS where in the event of a missed approach procedure the wheels will not come in contact with the ground

95
Q

You encounter red centreline lights? what does this mean?

A

last 300m of the active runway….

Threshold to 900m left - white
900-300m - alternating red and white
300m - red

96
Q

ICAO wake turbulence separation

A

Light- heavy - 3min 6nm
Medium-heavy - 2min 5nm
Heavy-Heavy - 4nm

Intersection take off add 1min

97
Q

VMCL

A

VMCA in the landing config on approach, VMCL 2 is when 2 engines on the same side fail

98
Q

Why is an engine flat rated

A

To give the widest possible operating range keeping within its defined structural limitations, especially in dense air. Guarantees a constant rate of thrust up until a certain temperature at which the engine can produce its maximum rated thrust

99
Q

What does TCH mean

A

Threshold crossing height (50ft)

100
Q

Difference between magenta and green grid mora

A

magenta above 10 000ft

Cathay (5 decks)

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