ATC and IFR

Question 1

Vertical seperation is 1000’ up to FL41, because the lapse rate of pressure at higher altitude is greatly reduced, what is needed in the airplane to ensure this happens?

Answer 1

Very precise instruments are required to accurately display altitude at high altitudes.

Question 2

What is the vertical seperation above FL41?

Answer 2

2,000’

Question 3

What do pilots do on IFR if there is a radar outage? IPTFTEN

Answer 3

Make position reports.
1. Identification
2. Position
3. Time over reporting point
4. Flight level
5. Type of flight plan
6. ETA and name of next point
7. Name of reporting point after next

Question 4

What is a complusory reporting point and how do I know what it is?

Answer 4

It is a solid black VOR symbol, whereas a non-complusory point is a hollowed VOR symbol.

Question 5

What is a typical vertical range of approach control’s range?

Answer 5

10,000-12,000 feet

Question 6

Where are center boundaries shown?

Answer 6

On the enroute chart. It’s a blocked squiqqly line. There are 20 centers in the lower 48 states.

Question 7

What is the typical range of a low VOR between 1,000’ - 18,000’?
What is the typical range of a high VOR? (18k-41k)

Answer 7

Low: 40 NM
High: 130 NM

Question 8

What are T Routes?

Answer 8

Low-altitude RNAV routes

Question 9

What is a terminal VOR?

Answer 9

Normally appears on or near airports and is used for instrument approach procedures.

Question 10

What is MEA?

Answer 10

Minimum Enroute Altitude

Question 11

What is MOCA?

Answer 11

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude

Question 12

What is ARTCC?

Answer 12

Air Route Traffic Control Center, handles airspace beyond what TRACON handles. Usually split between low and high altitudes (FL23)

Question 13

What is the airspeed threshold to notify ATC?

Answer 13

+-5% or 10 KNOTs of TAS from filed flight plan

Question 14

What is a SID

Answer 14

Standard Instrument Departure
1. Graphic departure route designed by ATC
2. Standardizes traffic flow
3. Ensures aircraft seperation
4. Provides obstacle clearance

Question 15

What is ODP?

Answer 15

Obstacle Departure Procedure: an alternative to the SID, not graphical, it’s text.

1. Pilot chooses to fly it and has responsibility to follow it.
2. Should be flown under less than VFR conditions
3. Clarify with ATC if clearance conflicts with ODP
4. Controller can’t reduce the minimums on an ODP (or even SID)

Question 16

Where can a pilot find the Rate of Climb Table chart to help convert the required ground speed and climb gradient into a safe rate of climb?

Answer 16

Terminal Procedures Publication or the Digital Terminal Procedures Supplement.

Question 17

What is a STAR?

Answer 17

Standard Terminal Arrival Routes

Question 18

What is the descent rate expected by ATC on an arrival?

Answer 18

250-350 ft/NM (@120 KT, then 500-700 ft per minute)

Question 19

What is a visual approach?

Answer 19

Granted by ATC on good weather (VFR) They are initated by ATC

Question 20

What is a contact approach? And what are the weather minimums?

Answer 20

Must be requested by pilot. flown when weather is less than VFR.
1. Clear of clouds, and 1 mile visibility in the air and on the ground
2. Airport must have instrument approach procedure
3. Pilot is responsible for obstruction clearance during the approach

Question 21

How much of an altitude change before ATC asks why your altitude is changing?

Answer 21

200 feet

Question 22

What does the altimeter get set to at FL18?

Answer 22

29.92 Hg

Question 23

What are the 11 things that would require a notification to ATC? Marvelous vfr c500

Answer 23

Missed approach
Airspeed change +- 10kts/5%
Reaching a holding fix
Vfr on top
*Eta change +-3 minutes
Leaving a hold/fix point
*Outer marker
Unforecasted weather
Safety of flight

Vacating an altitude / FL
*Final approach fix
Radio/nav/approach equipment failure
*Compulsory reporting points
500, unable to maintain 500 fpm

Question 24

When not in radar contact, when does ATC need to be notified? (additionally)

Answer 24

1. Time and altitude when passing designated passing point
2. Time over designated point missed by more than 3 minutes
3. Leaving the FAF inbound on a non-precision approach
4. Leaving the OM (outer marker) inbound on a precision approach

Question 25

What is the transponder code for radio failure?

Answer 25

7600

Question 26

Where is ADS-B Out required?

Answer 26

1. Class A
2. Class B (within 30 NM of primary airport) (mode c)
3. Within and above Class C
4. Class E airspace above 10,000 MSL, but not below 2500 AGL

Question 27

What is a TCAS and what does it do?

Answer 27

Traffic Collision Avoidance System. It interrogates the transponders of nearby aircraft.

Question 28

GPS available track settings

Answer 28

TRK: The direction the airplane is moving
BRG: (Bearing) The direction to arrive at the next waypoint
DTK: Desired Track
XTK: Cross track error, (shows how many NM off course you are)

Question 29

What is WAAS, and what does it do?

Answer 29

Wide Area Augmentation System
WAAS uses two additional geostationary satellites to improve the accuracy of GPS. WAAS augmentation allows more precise position locations in both the horizontal and vertical planes.