Advanced IFR 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

How do you read the cdi needle?

A

Full displacement is 10 degrees (from center to either side) each dot is 2 degree increments.

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2
Q

Winds at 5,000 feet AGL on a particular flight are southwesterly while most of the surface winds are southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to

A

friction between the wind and the surface.
In the northern hemisphere, Coriolis force deflects the pressure gradient force wind to the right until the wind blows approximately parallel to the isobars. Surface friction reduces this deflection so that a southwesterly wind becomes southerly.

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3
Q

Frontal waves normally form on

A

slow moving cold fronts or stationary fronts.
Frontal waves and cyclones (areas of low pressure) usually form on slow-moving cold fronts or on stationary fronts.

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4
Q

Under which conditions is hydroplaning most likely to occur when landing?

A

During conditions of standing water, slush, high speed, and smooth runway texture.

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5
Q

In addition to a VOR receiver and two-way communications capability, which additional equipment is required for IFR operation in Class B airspace?

A

An operable coded transponder having Mode C capability.

FAR 91.131

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6
Q

During IFR en route operations using an approved TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS system for navigation, what must the aircraft have additionally?

A

the aircraft must have an approved and operational alternate navigation system appropriate for the route.
Aircraft using un-augmented GPS (TSO-C129 or TSO-C196) for navigation under IFR must be equipped with an alternate approved and operational means of navigation suitable for navigating the proposed route of flight.

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7
Q

A generally recommended practice for autopilot usage during cruise flight in icing conditions is

A

periodically disengaging the autopilot and hand flying the airplane.
Pilots may consider periodically disengaging the autopilot and hand flying the airplane when operating in icing conditions. When the autopilot is engaged, it can mask changes in handling characteristics due to aerodynamic effects of icing that would be detected by the pilot if the airplane were being hand flown.

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8
Q

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the left from a west heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

A

The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
An initial turn from either east or west will show a correct indication if the turn is done smoothly.

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9
Q

What frequency is normally available at all FSS?

A

122.2

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10
Q

What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?

A

The point of first intended landing.

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11
Q

Reception of signals from an off airway radio facility may be inadequate to identify the fix at the designated MEA. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?

A

MRA.
The minimum reception altitude, is the lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined.

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12
Q

What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?

A

700 feet AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace.
There are Class E airspace areas beginning at either 700 or 1,200’ AGL used to transition to/from the terminal or en route environment. These extend upward to the overlying or adjacent controlled airspace. 700’ is the more common base.
FAR 71.71

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13
Q

A ‘CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET’ clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to

A

vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC.
The term “cruise” may be used instead of “maintain” to assign a block of airspace to a pilot. Climb / descent within the block is to be made at the discretion of the pilot.

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14
Q

On the taxi check, the magnetic compass should

A

swing freely and indicate known headings.

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15
Q

A common type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that which is produced by

A

ground radiation on clear, cool nights when the wind is light.
An inversion is an increase in temperature with altitude - the lapse rate is inverted. It often develops near the ground on clear, cool nights when the wind is light.

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16
Q

How can you know what the MOCA is on an IFR chart?

A

It has an asterik.

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17
Q

During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant

A

the altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to reversing their direction of movement.

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18
Q

When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?

A

The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected.

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19
Q

Are military training routes above 1500 feet depicted on high or low altitude ifr charts?

A

High

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20
Q

What is indicated by the term ‘embedded thunderstorms’?

A

Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen.
When moist, unstable, warm air overrides a shallow front, there can be hidden thunderstorms among the usual clouds – embedded thunderstorms. They are more common with warm or stationary fronts.

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21
Q

What is the maximum forecast period for AlRMETs?

A

6 hours

22
Q

The operation of an airport rotating beacon during daylight hours may indicate that

A

the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet in Class B, C, D, or E airspace.

23
Q

When may a pilot make a straight in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?

A

A straight in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land.

24
Q

fDuring an IFR flight in IMC, you enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?

A

(AIM) Section 6-4-1, “Lost Communications” procedure.

At the EFC time or clearance limit, proceed to the fix specified in the approach clearance or, if none is specified, to the initial approach fix (IAF) of the approach you intend to fly.

Begin the approach as close as possible to the published or assigned ETA, and use the last assigned altitude until the final approach fix (FAF) is reached.

If the clearance limit is a holding fix, leave the fix on the outbound course in accordance with the last clearance received, and proceed as specified in step 2 above.

If you are unable to begin the approach at the specified time, hold as close as possible to the clearance limit until the specified time, and then proceed as specified in step 2 above

25
Q

What does the ATC term ‘Radar Contact’ signify?

A

Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight following will be provided until radar identification is terminated.

26
Q

Under which condition does advection fog usually form?

A

Moist air moving over colder ground or water.

27
Q

You are in IMC making a prolonged constant rate turn. If you make an abrupt head movement, which illusion could this cause?

A

Coriolis illusion.
An abrupt head movement in a prolonged constant-rate turn that has ceased stimulating the motion sensing system can create the illusion of rotation or movement in an entirely different axis. This most overwhelming of all illusions in flight may be prevented by not making sudden, extreme head movements, particularly while making prolonged constant-rate turns under IFR conditions.

28
Q

If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be used unless otherwise cleared by ATC.

A

Proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver.
When an early missed approach is executed, pilots should fly the IAP as specified on the approach plate to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver.

29
Q

During an IFR flight in IMC, you enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?

A

Depart the holding fix at the EFC time, and complete the approach.
When the clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach begins, leave the clearance limit at the expect-further-clearance time if one has been received.

30
Q

How can the pilot determine, for an ILS runway equipped with MALSR, that there may be a penetration of the obstacle identification surfaces (OIS), and care should be taken in the visual segment to avoid any obstacles?

A

The published visibility for the ILS is no lower than 3/4 SM.

31
Q

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the left from a north heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

A

The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.
On a turn from the north, the compass will indicate a turn in the opposite direction. It lags the turn.

32
Q

If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system become blocked, the indicated airspeed will

A

increase during a climb.
Since both the ram air input and the drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, the airspeed indicator may respond as an altimeter. It will increase when the aircraft is put in a climb and decrease when the aircraft is descending.

33
Q

For operations off established airways at 17,000 feet MSL in the contiguous U.S., (H) Class VORTAC facilities used to define a direct route of flight should be no farther apart than

A

200 NM.
The standard high altitude service volume between 14,500’ and 18,000’ is 100 NM. Therefore, between two “H” VORTACs the useful range is 200 NM.

34
Q

Which conditions result in the formation of frost?

A

Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint of surrounding air and the dewpoint is colder than freezing.

35
Q

While performing a VFR practice instrument approach, Radar Approach Control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds. What action should you take?

A

Advise “unable” and remain clear of clouds.

36
Q

What does 00000KT indicate?

A

Calm

37
Q

No pilot may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft, under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR unless that pilot has, within the preceding 6 calendar months, completed at least

A

six instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems, or passed an instrument proficiency check.

38
Q

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

A

The start of rain at the surface.

39
Q

If squalls are reported at your destination, what wind conditions should you anticipate?

A

Sudden increases in wind speed of at least 16 knots, rising to 22 knots or more, lasting for at least 1 minute.

40
Q

At what point are VOR and LNAV approaches terminated?

A

Missed approach point.

41
Q

If the outside air temperature increases during a flight at constant power and at a constant indicated altitude, the true airspeed will

A

increase and true altitude will increase.

Heat expands the atmosphere and vertically raises the pressure levels. True altitude and true airspeed will increase with the raised levels.

42
Q

When making a Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) approach, there is a special requirement for it. What is it?

A

Listening on two PRM frequencies, a tower PRM frequency and a final controller PRM frequency.
Approval for PRM approaches requires the airport to have a precision runway monitoring system and a final monitor controller who can only communicate with aircraft on the final approach course. Additionally, two tower frequencies are required to be used and the controller broadcasts over both frequencies to reduce the chance of instructions being missed. Pilot training is also required for pilots using the PRM system. IPH

43
Q

What night operations, if any, are authorized between the approach end of the runway and the threshold lights?

A

Taxi and takeoff operations are permitted, providing the takeoff operations are toward the visible green threshold lights.

44
Q

How can you tell from in IFR chart what the minimum altitude should be when crossing a way point or vor?

A

There will be a list of the routes under the information box marked

45
Q

How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?

A

Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a FROM indication.

46
Q

Pressure altitude is the altitude read on your altimeter when the instrument is adjusted to indicate height above

A

the standard datum plane.

47
Q

What conclusion(s) can be drawn from a 500 milli-bar Constant Pressure Chart for a planned flight at FL 180?

A

Observed temperature, wind, and temperature/dew point spread along the proposed route can be approximated.

48
Q

For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways?

A

Fixes selected to define the route.
The compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways are all the fixes the pilot selects to define the route of flight.

49
Q

How do you find minimum rate of climb?

A

GS * Climb rate/60 = minimum rate of climb

50
Q

Which substitution is appropriate during an ILS approach?

A

LOC minimums should be substituted for ILS minimums whenever the glide slope becomes inoperative.
When the glide slope component of the ILS system fails, the approach becomes a nonprecision approach, and the pilot should use LOC minimums.

51
Q

As a first step in planning an instrument cross-country in actual IFR conditions, you should:

A

Investigate the big picture, using the surface analysis chart.
Surface analysis, weather depiction, and significant weather prognostic charts are sources of current weather information. It shows the areas of high and low pressure, fronts, temperatures, dew points, wind directions and speeds, local weather, and visual obstructions.

52
Q

Which meteorological conditions are depicted by a prognostic chart?

A

Conditions forecast to exist at a specific time shown on the chart.