Advanced IFR 3

Question 1

What is the difference between REIL, HIRL, and MALSR?

Answer 1

REIL - Runway End Identifier Lights: REILs are a pair of synchronized flashing lights located on each side of the runway threshold. Their purpose is to help pilots identify the end of the runway during approach and landing.

HIRL - High-Intensity Runway Lights: HIRLs are a series of lights that run along the length of the runway. They provide bright, uniform illumination of the runway surface to help pilots see the runway during takeoff and landing, particularly in low-light conditions.

MALSR - Medium-Intensity Approach Light System with Runway Alignment Indicator Lights: MALSRs are a series of lights located along the approach path to the runway. They provide visual guidance to pilots during approach and landing, including a vertical glide slope and horizontal runway alignment. MALSRs are typically used for precision approaches, such as those used by commercial airliners.

In summary, while all three lighting systems serve to enhance the safety of aircraft operations during takeoff and landing, REILs are used to identify the end of the runway, HIRLs provide bright, uniform illumination of the runway surface, and MALSRs provide precise guidance during approach and landing.

Question 2

In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of

Answer 2

4 NM from the course flown.

Question 3

What altitude may a pilot on an IFR flight plan select upon receiving a VFR on Top clearance?

Answer 3

Any appropriate VFR altitude at or above the MEA in VFR weather conditions.

Question 4

Due to visual illusion, when landing on a narrower than usual runway, the aircraft will appear to be

Answer 4

higher than actual, leading to a lower than normal approach.

Question 5

Which types of airspace are depicted on the En Route Low Altitude Chart?

Answer 5

Limits of controlled airspace, military training routes and special use airspace.

Question 6

What pretakeoff check should be made of a vacuum driven heading indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?

Answer 6

After 5 minutes, set the indicator to the magnetic heading of the aircraft and check for proper alignment after taxi turns.

Question 7

From what source can you obtain the latest FDC NOTAM’s?

Answer 7

FDC NOTAMs are transmitted and kept on file at the FSS until canceled. FSSs are responsible for maintaining a file of current NOTAMs. The most current and up−to−date information on NOTAMs may also be found in the FAA’s official NOTAM Search website, which can be found at https://notams.aim.faa.gov/notamSearch/

Question 8

Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff because

Answer 8

of the high angle of attack and high gross weight.

Question 9

When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between

Answer 9

500 feet per minute and 1,500 feet per minute.

Question 10

How can you determine the pressure altitude on an airport without a tower or weather reporting station?

Answer 10

Set the altimeter to 29.92 inches Hg and read the altitude indicated.

Question 11

What are the four families of clouds?

Answer 11

High, middle, low, and those with extensive vertical development.

Question 12

Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter setting of 29.92 inches Hg?

Answer 12

In colder than standard air temperature.
True altitude is the actual altitude of the aircraft above MSL. Indicated altitude depends on air temperature below the aircraft. When the air is colder than average it is more dense and true altitude is lower than indicated altitude.

Question 13

Where do squall lines most often develop?

Answer 13

Ahead of a cold front.

Question 14

What is the indication of the FAF on a precision course on the chart?

Answer 14

The one with the harry potter lightening bolt

Question 15

To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern, what is the maximum airspeed above 14,000 feet for civil turbojet aircraft?

Answer 15

265 knots.

Question 16

When are ATIS broadcasts updated?

Answer 16

Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values.

Question 17

Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?

Answer 17

Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.

Question 18

If the RVR is not reported, what meteorological value should you substitute for 2,400 RVR?

Answer 18

A ground visibility of 1/2 SM.

Question 19

Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway?

Answer 19

Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

Question 20

For IFR operations off of established airways below 18,000 feet, VOR navigational aids used to describe the ‘route of flight’ should be no more than

Answer 20

80 NM apart.

Question 21

What should the pilot suspect and what is the appropriate corrective action if the pilot experiences the following after flying through icing conditions?
1. Elevator control pulsing, oscillations, or vibrations.
2. Abnormal nose down trim change.
3. Sudden uncommanded nose down pitch when flaps are lowered to the approach position.

Answer 21

Suspect an ice induced tailplane stall. Correct by retracting the flaps and applying appropriate nose up elevator pressure. Utilize sufficient airspeed and power for a no-flap approach and landing.

Question 22

What is the maximum altitude that Class G airspace will exist?

Answer 22

14,500 feet MSL.

Question 23

Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as

Answer 23

6000 feet per minute

Question 24

While on an IFR flight plan, you should notify ATC of a variation in speed when:

Answer 24

average TAS changes 10 knots or 5 percent.

Question 25

The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be obtained from

Answer 25

the FSS.

Question 26

If you experience tunnel vision and cyanosis you may have symptoms of

Answer 26

Hypoxia

Question 27

What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport, that has only a VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight plan?

Answer 27

800 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility.

Question 28

Where is the VOR changeover point on V20 between Beaumont and Hobby?

Where is the VOR changeover point between two vors?

Answer 28

halfway if no point specified, “S”.

Question 29

If, while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following should the pilot expect?

Answer 29

The vertical speed to momentarily show a climb.

Question 30

Your indicated altitude is 5,500 feet MSL. The current ATIS is reporting an altimeter setting of 30.21” Hg but your altimeter is set to 29.97” Hg. How does your actual altitude compare to what is indicated?

Answer 30

Higher than indicated.

Question 31

Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix, indicate that departing aircraft will normally be routed to the fix by

Answer 31

an instrument departure procedure (DP), or radar vectors.

Question 32

During the descent on a GPS approach in IMC, you notice the message “RAIM not available” pops up on your GPS display, indicating unsatisfactory RAIM performance. What action should you take?

Answer 32

Begin the missed approach procedure, no matter which segment of the approach you are currently flying.

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring

Question 33

At which point does the basic instrument departure procedure terminate?

Answer 33

Find the thick line with arrow on the radial. This thicker line represents the basic departure route.

Question 34

In rolling out of a turn, to be sure the turn is stopped, use the:

Answer 34

Heading Indicator

Question 35

Which limitation is imposed on the holder of a Commercial Pilot Certificate if that person does not hold an instrument rating?

Answer 35

The carrying of passengers for hire on cross country flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited.

Question 36

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

Answer 36

The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.

Question 37

What does RAESNB42 mean on a metar?

Answer 37

rain ended and snow began at 42 minutes past the hour.

Question 38

Under which of the following circumstances will ATC issue a VFR restriction to an IFR flight?

Answer 38

When the pilot requests it.

Question 39

As a rule of thumb, to minimize DME slant range error, how far from the facility should you be to consider the reading as accurate?

Answer 39

One or more miles for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility.

Question 40

What are the airspeed thresholds for the different categories of aircraft on an approach?

Answer 40

AIM 5-4-3: Approach Categories

Category A: Maximum airspeed of 90 knots or less.
Category B: Maximum airspeed between 91 knots and 120 knots.
Category C: Maximum airspeed between 121 knots and 140 knots.
Category D: Maximum airspeed between 141 knots and 165 knots.
Category E: Maximum airspeed between 166 knots and 210 knots.
Category F: Maximum airspeed between 211 knots and 250 knots.

Question 41

As you’re descending below 1,000’ AGL on a nonprecision instrument approach, what is the maximum descent rate that should be used?

Answer 41

1,000 fpm

Question 42

During a flight, the controller advises ‘traffic 2 o’clock 5 miles southbound.’ The pilot is holding 20° correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic?

Answer 42

40° to the right of the aicraft’s nose.
Traffic information includes the position of the target in terms of its azimuth from the aircraft relating to the 12 hour clock. Two o’clock is 60° off the nose. The pilot is holding a 20° right correction, so 40° is the correct answer.

Question 43

What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector Altitudes depicted on the IAP charts?

Answer 43

1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility, but not acceptable navigation signal coverage.

Question 44

What visual illusion creates the same effect as a narrower than usual runway?

Answer 44

An upsloping runway.

Question 45

What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?

Answer 45

Less than 15 minutes

Question 46

When ATC amends your IFR clearance, you should always read back:

Answer 46

Part of the clearance that contains altitudes, headings or runway assignments.

Question 47

Where can the VOT frequency for a particular airport be found?

Answer 47

In the Chart Supplement U.S.

Question 48

What is the maximum IFR altitude you may fly in an unpressurized aircraft without providing passengers with supplemental oxygen?

Answer 48

15,000 feet

Question 49

To ensure proper airspace protection while holding at 5,000 feet in a civil aircraft, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?

Answer 49

200 knots

Question 50

The amount of wind shear is usually greater in which kind of front?

Answer 50

A warm front.

Question 51

When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?

Answer 51

When priority has been given.
Each pilot in command who (though not deviating from a rule of this subpart) is given priority by ATC in an emergency, shall submit a detailed report of that emergency within 48 hours to the manager of that ATC facility, if requested by ATC.

Question 52

What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?

Answer 52

Haze creates the illusion of being a greater distance than actual from the runway, and causes pilots to fly a lower approach.

Question 53

An abrupt change from climb to straight-and-level flight can create the illusion of

Answer 53

tumbling backwards

Question 54

If, while in Class E airspace, a clearance is received to ‘maintain VFR conditions on top,’ the pilot should maintain a VFR cruising altitude based on the direction of the

Answer 54

magnetic course

Question 55

The middle and far bars of a 3 bar VASI will

Answer 55

constitute a 2 bar VASI for using the upper glidepath.
The 3 bar VASI provides two visual glide paths (an upper and a lower). The upper glide path, provided by the middle and far bar, is normally ¼° higher than the lower glide path and constitute a 2 bar VASI.

Question 56

Which of the following statements is true regarding Parallel ILS approaches?

Answer 56

Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1 1/2 miles radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course.

Question 57

No flight crewmember or pilot shall permit or engage in any activity not pertinent to the safe operation of the aircraft during which phases of flight?

Answer 57

Critical phases of flight, which include all ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, and landing, and all other flight operations conducted below 10,000’ except cruise flight.

Question 58

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass when you roll into a standard-rate turn to the left from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

Answer 58

The compass will indicate a turn to the left, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.

Question 59

Which frequencies are available at all FSS?

Answer 59

122.2 and 121.5

Question 60

What temperature condition is indicated if wet snow is encountered at your flight altitude?

Answer 60

The temperature is above freezing at your altitude.

Question 61

When being radar vectored for an ILS approach, at what point may you start a descent from your last assigned altitude to a lower minimum altitude if cleared for the approach?

Answer 61

When established on a segment of a published route or IAP.