Asthma Flashcards

1
Q

Most common allergen to trigger asthma

A

Dermatophagoides species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Most common triggers of acute severe exacerbations

A

RSV,Rhinovirus, Coronavirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Trigger of asthma that is linked to hyperventilation which results in increased osmolality in airway lining fluid and triggers mast cell mediator release resulting in bronchoconstriction..

A

Exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Asthma trigger that is used as a food preservative which may trigger asthma through the release of sulfur dioxide gas in the stomach

A

Metabisulfite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Dendritic cells

A

Specialized macrophage-like cells in the airway epithelium, which are the major antigen-presenting cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which phenotype predominates in asthma? TH2 or TH1?

A

TH2 phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

TH2 cytokines that mediate allergic inflammation

A

IL-4, IL-5, IL-9, IL-13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
A

Risk Factors and Triggers Associated with Asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
A

Inflammation in the airways of asthmatic patients leads to airway hyperresponsiveness and symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which interleukin induces airway hypersecretion in experimental models of asthma?

A

IL-13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Limitation of airflow is mainly due to? What is the effect in FEV1/FVC ratio and PEF (peak expiratory flow)?

A

Bronchoconstriction( from mast cell mediators)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the characteristic symptoms of asthma?

A

Wheezing, dyspnea, and coughing, which are variable, both spontaneously and with therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Lung function tests (spirometry) in asthma

A

reduced FEV1, FEV1/FVC ratio, and PEF

Reversibility is demonstrated by a >12% and 200-mL increase in FEV1 15 min after an inhaled short-acting β2-agonist (SABA; such as inhaled albuterol 400 μg) or in some patients by a 2–4 week trial of oral corticosteroids (OCS) (prednisone or prednisolone 30–40 mg daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Skin prick tests to common inhalant allergens (house dust mite, cat fur, grass, pollen) are _________in allergic asthma and _________ in intrisic asthma

A

Positive, Negative

*NOT helpful in diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is now used as a noninvasive test to measure eosinophilic airway inflammation?

A

Fractional exhaled Nitric oxide (FeNO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

These act primarily on airway smooth muscle to reverse the bronchoconstriction of asthma.

A

Bronchodilators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the three classes of bronchodilators?

A

B2 adrenergic agonists, anticholinergics, theophylline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the aims of asthma therapy?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Mechanism of B2 agonist

A

B2 Agonists activate B2 adrenergic receptors, which are widely expressed in the airways. B2 receptors are coupled through a stimulatory G Protein to adenylyl cyclase, resulting in AMP, which relaxes smooth muscle cells and inhibit cerain inflammatory cells, particularly mast cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the other additional non-bronchodilator effects that may be clinicaly useful in B2 agonists?

A
  1. Inhibition of mast cell mediator release
  2. Reduction in plasma exudation
  3. Inhibition of sensory nerve activation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

LABA and frequency of dose

A

Every 12 hours: SF

Salmeterol

Formoterol

Once daily VIO

Vilanterol

Indacaterol

Olodaterol

22
Q

Most common side effects of B2 agonists

A

Muscle tremor and palpitations, seen more commonly in elderly patients

23
Q

Anticholinergics-Muscarinic receptor antagonists mechanism

A

Prevent cholinergic nerve-induced bronchoconstriction and mucus secretion

24
Q

Mechanism of Theophylline

Mechanism of Inflammation in low doses of theophylline

A

The bronchodilator
effect is due to inhibition of phosphodiesterases in airway
smooth-muscle cells, which increases cyclic AMP.

25
Q

Mechanism of Inflammation in low doses of theophylline

A

Theophylline activates the key nuclear enzyme
histone deacetylase-2 (HDAC2), which is a critical mechanism for switching off activated inflammatory genes and may therefore reduce corticosteroid insensitivity in severe asthma.

26
Q

What are the most common side effects of theophylline?

A

Nausea, vomiting, and headache.

27
Q

At high concentrations of theophylline, what are the side effects? Mechanism of death

A

Cardiac arrythmias

Epileptic seizures

Death due to adenoside A1-receptor antagonism

28
Q

Molecular mechanism, major effect of corticosteroids?

A

The major effect of
corticosteroids is to switch off the transcription of multiple activated genes that encode inflammatory proteins such as cytokines,chemokines, adhesion molecules, and inflammatory enzymes

29
Q

Factors affecting clearance of theophylline

A
30
Q

Usual course of OCS

A

Prednisone/ Prednisolone 30-45 OD for 5-10 days. No need for tapering.

31
Q

Systemic side effects of corticosteroids

A

Truncal obesity, bruising, osteoporosis, diabetes, hypertension, gastric ulceration, proximal myopathy, depression, cataracts

32
Q

Depot Drug that may be used for those who need OCS but are noncompliant.

A

Intramuscular Triamcinolone Acetonide

33
Q

Potent bronchoconstrictors, cause microvascular leakage and increase eosinophilic inflammation through the activation of cys-LT1 receptors.

A

Cysteinyl-leukotrienes

34
Q

Controller Therapies

A

Inhaled Corticosteroids

Systemic Corticosteroids

Antileukotrienes

Cromones

Anti-IgE

Anti-IL5

35
Q

Asthma controller drugs that appear to inhibit mast cell and sensory nerveactivation and are, therefore, effective in blocking trigger-inducedasthma such as EIA and allergen- and sulfur dioxide-induced
symptoms.

A

Cromolyn sodium and nedocromil sodium

36
Q

Blocking antibody that neutralizes circulating
IgE without binding to cell-bound IgE. Given as a subcutaneous injection every 2-4 weeks.

A

OMALIZUMAB

37
Q

Antibodies that block IL-5,markedly reduce blood and tissue eosinophils and reduce exacerbations in patients who have persistently increased sputum eosinophils despite maximal ICS therapy.

A
mepolizumab, reslizumab) or
its receptor (benralizumab)
38
Q

Alternative therapies that are nonpharmacologic

A

Hypnosis

Acupuncture

Chiropraxis

Breathing control

Yoga

Speleotherapy

39
Q

__________ is an antibody against the common receptor for IL-4 and IL-13 (IL-4Rα) is more promising in reducing exacerbations and improving asthma control in severe asthma.

A

Dupilumab

40
Q

Parameters of Asthma control

(DANRL)

A
41
Q

Stepwise Approach to Asthma therapy According to the Severity of asthma and ability to control symptoms

A
42
Q

Mainstay of treatment of Acute Severe Asthma

A

High does of SABA given either by nebulizer or via a MDI with a spacer.

43
Q

True or False. Prophylactic intubation may be indicated
for impending respiratory failure, when the PCO2
is normal or rises.

A

TRUE

44
Q

What is the most common reason for poor control of asthma?

A

Poor Adherence with medication, particularly ICS.

45
Q

How is adherence to OCS measured?

A
  1. Suppression of plasma cortisol
  2. Expected concentration of prednisone/Prednisolone in the plasma.
46
Q

True or False. Women may develop severe premenstrual worsening of asthma which is responsive to corticosteroids.

A

FALSE. Treatment with progesterone or gonadotropin-releasing factors.

47
Q

Complete resistance to corticosteroids is defined as

A

Failure to respond to a high dose of oral prednisone/prednisolone 40 mg OD over 2 weeks ideally with a 2 week run-in with matched placebo.

48
Q

Type of Brittle asthma that has generally normal or near-normal lung function but precipitous, unpredictable
falls in lung function that may result in death

A

Type II

49
Q

Most effective treatment for brittle asthma

A

Subcutaneous epinephrine

50
Q

________ is a welldefined phenotype of asthma that is usually preceded by perennial rhinitis and nasal polyps in nonatopic patients with a late onset of the disease.

A

Aspirin-sensitive asthma

51
Q

results from an allergic pulmonary reaction to inhaled spores of Aspergillus fumigatus and, occasionally, other Aspergillus species.fleeting eosinophilic infiltrates in the lungs, particularly in the upper lobes.
Airways become blocked with mucoid plugs rich in eosinophils, and patients may cough up brown plugs and have hemoptysis.

A

Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis