Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Single-Engine Instrument Airplane Written/Oral Review > Assorted Review Questions > Flashcards

Assorted Review Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum speed for an approach that involves a procedure turn?

A

200 knots IAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a contact approach? Who can initiate it?

A

Contact approaches are used when a visual approach isn’t possible, but the pilot is able to see the ground at some point during the instrument approach. ONLY THE PILOT can initiate a contact approach; ATC cannot do it. Contact approaches do not have a missed approach.

Prerequisites (don’t need to test on this, just for reference):
You need to remain clear of clouds, have 1 statute mile of flight visibility, and reasonably expect to continue to the airport in those conditions. Plus, the airport must have a published instrument approach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What illusion can be caused by a sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon, and a dark scene spread with ground lights/stars?

A

False horizons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What will happen if you disengage the auto sensitivity while conducting a GPS approach?

A

The approach mode annunciation will disengage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What weather would you expect when moist, cool air blows over a warm land mass?

A

Thunderstorms – the cool air is warmed by the warmer surface below, creating convective currents, and causing air to rise. This leads to moist, unstable air, which causes cumulus clouds, showers, and turbulence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What aural indication will you receive when passing the outer marker?

A

Dash, dash, dash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

IFR below 18,000 feet, VORs used to describe the “route of flight” should be a maximum of how many miles apart?

A

80 miles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Decode the following winds aloft forecast: at 34,000 feet, wind = 760150

A

Wind = 260 @ 101 kts, temperature = -50ºC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In a standard atmosphere, how much does the temperature change every 1,000 feet? In other words, what is the temperature lapse rate?

A

2ºC per 1,000 ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Regarding slant range error, what’s the furthest you can be from a DME station and still consider the reading reliable?

A

1 or more miles per 1,000 ft. of altitude above the facility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When is supplemental oxygen required?

A
  1. Between 12,500-14,000 ft., the MINIMUM FLIGHT CREW must use supplemental oxygen for any part of the flight EXCEEDING 30 MINUTES
  2. Above 14,000 ft., the MINIMUM FLIGHT CREW must use supplemental oxygen for the ENTIRE FLIGHT TIME
  3. Above 15,000 ft., the minimum flight crew AND PASSENGERS must use supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When do frontal waves normally form?

A

Frontal waves & cyclones (areas of low pressure) usually form on slow-moving cold fronts or on stationary fronts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If you encounter icing with the autopilot on, what should you be aware of?

A

It may be best to periodically disengage the autopilot and hand-fly the aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How long down the runway is: (a) the touchdown zone marker, and (b) the fixed distance marker?

A

(a) 500 ft, (b) 1,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where do squall lines most often develop?

A

Ahead of a cold front

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If both the ram air and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, how will the airspeed indicator react to large changes in power during level flight?

A

During level flight, the airspeed indicator will remain constant even during large power changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When using a VOR test facility (VOT) to test a dual VOR system, (a) what radials should the VORs be set to and (b) what is an acceptable deviation between the two VORs?

A

It should be set to 180º TO and 360º FROM, and a deviation of 4º is acceptable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If the weather at your destination is VFR, but the airport has NO INSTRUMENT APPROACH, how much fuel do you need to plan for?

A

Enough fuel to get to your destination, to fly to an alternate, and to fly for 45 mins at cruising speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The presence of wet snow at your flight level indicates the freezing level is where in relation to you?

A

The freezing level is above you

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If the pitot tube becomes clogged with ice, which instrument (s) will be affected?

A

The airspeed indicator ONLY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

On the written test, most “rate of climb” questions are (a) high, (b) medium, or (c) low?

A

Most rate of climb are HIGH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

On the written test, most “initial rate of descent” questions are (a) high, (b) medium, or (c) low?

A

Most rate of descent are MEDIUM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

To enter a CONSTANT AIRSPEED descent, and maintain cruising speed, how should power and pitch attitude be adjusted?

A

SIMULTANEOUSLY reduce power and adjust pitch using the attitude indicator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What information does HIWAS broadcast?

A

SIGMETs, Convective SIGMETs, AIRMETs, Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW), and Center Weather Advisories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What vertical speed should be used on ATC-ordered altitutde changes of more than 1,000 feet?

A

As rapidly as possible to 1,000 ft. above/below the assigned altitude, then between 500-1,500 feet/minute until reaching the assigned altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When the pilot is conducting “timed approaches from a holding fix,” what weather conditions are required at the airport?

A

The reported ceiling and visibility minimums must be equal to or greater than the HIGHEST CIRCLING MINIMUMS for the procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What would be the difference in indicated altitude if the altimeter setting was changed from 29.92” to 30.10”?

A

The altitude would INCREASE by 180 ft. Increase HG, increase indicated altitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Clouds, fog, or dew will always form WHEN:

A

Water vapor condenses (NOT necessarily when temperature and dewpoint are equal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

In what type of air does a temperature inversion normally form?

A

In STABLE air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What type of icing should be expected when SLDs (supercooled large droplets) that splash or spatter on impact at temperatures below 5ºC?

A

Ice that forms on the wing AFT of the active part of the deicing boots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What causes surface winds to flow against the isobars at an ANGLE rather than PARALLEL to the isobars?

A

Surface friction causes this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which precipitation type typically indicates freezing rain at higher altitudes?

A

Ice pellets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What type of clouds will be formed if very stable moist air is forced UP SLOPE?

A

Stratified clouds with little vertical development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

By what measurement of the atmosphere can STABILITY be determined?

A

Ambient lapse rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What determines the structure/type of clouds which form as a result of air being forced to ascend?

A

The stability of the air BEFORE lifting occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What does the suffix “nimbus” mean in naming clouds?

A

Rain cloud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the four families of clouds?

A

High, middle, low, and those with extensive vertical development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Steady precipitation, as opposed to showers, preceding a front, is usually associated with what type of clouds/turbulence?

A

Stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are characteristics of an unstable cold air mass moving over a warm surface?

A

Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and GOOD visibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is meant by the term “embedded thunderstorms”?

A

Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which clouds have the greatest turbulence, cumulonimbus or towering cumulus?

A

Cumulonimbus clouds have the greatest turbulence

42
Q

What dangers could come from standing lenticular clouds over a mountainous area?

A

Severe mountain wave turbulence could exist

43
Q

Standing lenticular altocumulus clouds are a good indication of what weather phenomenon?

A

Very strong tubulence

44
Q

Where can wind shear occur?

A

Wind shear can occur at any level of the atmosphere – wherever there is a wind shift or change in wind speed (wind speed gradient)

45
Q

In a warm front, when is the most critical period for low level wind shear?

A

The most critical period is BEFORE the front passes the airport

46
Q

Which conditions result in the formation of frost?

A

When the temperature of the collecting surface is BELOW the dewpoint of the SURROUNDING air, and the dewpoint is COLDER than freezing

47
Q

Which family of clouds (out of the 4 families) is LEAST likely to contribute to structural icing?

A

HIGH clouds

48
Q

In which environment/precip is structural icing most likely to have the HIGHEST RATE of accumulation?

A

Freezing rain

49
Q

Ice, snow, or frost having a thickness/roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge of a wing can have what effect on the wing’s aerodynamics/lift production?

A

LIft can be reduced by as much as 30% and drag can be increase by as much as 40%

50
Q

What signals the start of the MATURE stage of a thunderstorm?

A

The start of rain at the surface

51
Q

Which stage of a thunderstorm is characterized mostly by downdrafts?

A

Dissipating stage

52
Q

What is the best way to maintain control if you unintentionally fly into a thunderstorm in IMC?

A

Set power for recommended turbulence penetration speed and attempt to maintain a level flight attitude

53
Q

What conditions typically lead to ADVECTION fog?

A

Moist air moving over colder ground or water

54
Q

What types of fog depend upon a wind to exist?

A

ADVECTION fog and UP-SLOPE fog

55
Q

What conditions typically lead to RADIATION fog?

A

Clear sky, little or no wind, small temperature/dewpoint spread, and over a LAND surface

56
Q

A jetstream is defined by winds of what speed?

A

50 knots or greater

57
Q

How does the strength and location of the jet stream change between summer & winter?

A

The jet stream is usually further north and weaker during the summer.

58
Q

What does a “cruise four thousand” clearance mean?

A

The pilot is authorized to operate anywhere from the minimum IFR altitude to 4,000 ft. and may vacate altitude without notifying ATC.

59
Q

Which types of airspace are depicted on the En Route Low Altitude Chart?

A

Special use airspace

60
Q

When should the timing begin for the first leg OUTBOUND in a NONSTANDARD holding pattern?

A

When over or abeam the holding fix, whichever occurs later

61
Q

You are in a non-military turbojet aircraft holding above 14,000 ft. What is the maximum permitted airspeed?

A

265 knots

62
Q

What obstacle clearance and nav signal coverage is a pilot assured with the MSAs (Minimum Sector Altitude) depicted on IAP charts?

A

1,000 ft. within a 25nm radius of the navigation facility, but NOT acceptable navigation signal coverage

63
Q

What action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected?

A

Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal

64
Q

What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?

A

Haze creates the illusion of being a greater distance than actual from the runway

65
Q

What is the maximum IFR altitude you may fly in an unpressurized aircraft without providing passengers with supplemental oxygen?

A

15,000 ft.

66
Q

If your static system was tested on June 4th, 2020, what would be the LAST day that the aircraft would be IFR-legal?

A

June 31st, 2022 (24 CALENDAR months)

67
Q

If you receive a VFR-on-Top clearance and are flying a course of 180º, what altitude should you fly?

A

An even thousand + 500 feet

68
Q

When flying VFR-on-Top, is cruising altitude based on (a) true course, (b) magnetic course, or (c) magnetic heading?

A

(b) Magnetic course

69
Q

Squalls are characterized by what wind conditions??

A

A sudden increase in wind speed by at least 15 knots to a peak of 20 knots or more, lasting for at least 1 minute.

70
Q

A TAF covers what radius around the forecast airport?

A

5 mile radius from the center of the airport

71
Q

If a TAF includes “VRB,” expect winds of…

A

6 knots or less

72
Q

Area forecasts cover a geographical area of what size?

A

An area the size of several states

73
Q

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you turn RIGHT from an EASTERLY heading?

A

“Correct if Smooth” –Correct heading if turn is smooth

74
Q

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you turn RIGHT from an SOUTHERLY heading?

A

“Right but Faster” – The compass will indicate a turn to the RIGHT, but at a FASTER rate than is occurring

75
Q

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you turn RIGHT from an WESTERLY heading?

A

“Correct if Smooth” –Correct heading if turn is smooth

76
Q

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you turn RIGHT from an NORTHERLY heading?

A

“Initial Left” – The magnetic compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.

77
Q

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you turn LEFT from an EASTERLY heading?

A

“Correct if Smooth” –Correct heading if turn is smooth

78
Q

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you turn LEFT from an WESTERLY heading?

A

“Correct if Smooth” –Correct heading if turn is smooth

79
Q

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you turn LEFT from an SOUTHERLY heading?

A

“Left but Faster” – The compass will indicate a turn to the LEFT, but at a FASTER rate than is occurring

80
Q

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you turn LEFT from an NORTHERLY heading?

A

“Initial Right” – The magnetic compass will initially indicate a turn to the RIGHT.

81
Q

During a skidding turn to the right, what is the relationship between: the component of lift, centrifugal force, and load factor?

A

Centrifugal force is greater than horizontal lift and load factor is increased.

82
Q

You plan to file to an airport which has only a VOR approach as your alternate airport. What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at the alternate airport?

A

800ft ceilings + 2sm visibility

83
Q

Approximately what height is the glide slope at the middle marker (MM) of a typical ILS?

A

200 ft.

84
Q

Which range facility associated with the ILS can be identified by a TWO LETTER coded signal?

A

The compass locator

85
Q

What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?

A

Haze creates the illusion of being at a greater distance than actual from the runway.

86
Q

What is the maximum cruising altitude that can be used on a Victor airway heading west? How about heading east?

A

West – 16,000 ft. (Victor airways are up to, but NOT INCLUDING 18,000 ft.)
East – 17,000 ft.

87
Q

What is the purpose of “fly-by” and “fly-over” waypoints?

A

– With a “fly-by” waypoint, the aircraft should BEGIN a turn to the next course PRIOR to reaching the waypoint.
– With a “fly-over” waypoint, the aircraft MUST fly over the waypoint PRIOR to starting a turn.

88
Q

What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a FULL SCALE deflection of the CDI?

A

10 degrees

89
Q

What’s the difference between an LDA and an ILS localizer?

A

The LDA is not aligned with the runway

90
Q

How wide is an SDF course?

A

Either 6º or 12º

91
Q

If the destination airport does NOT have an approved approach procedure, what are alternate requirements?

A

An alternate must be filed in ANY circumstances/weather conditions

92
Q

What is the maximum tolerance for an airborne VOR check?

A

+/- 6 degrees when over the checkpoint

93
Q

What is the maximum tolerance for a ground VOR check?

A

+/- 4 degrees when at the checkpoint

94
Q

What does the “*6000” indicate on low enroute chart?

A

Minimum altitude which provides reception within 25sm/22nm of the VOR AND obstacle clearance along the route segment

95
Q

What is the primary reason for departure procedures?

A

To provide obstacle clearance protection information for the pilot.

96
Q

What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airport which has an approved IAP?

A

700 feet AGL

97
Q

Why is a transport jet’s wake turbulence at it’s maximum just after takeoff?

A

Because of the high angle of attack and high gross weight

98
Q

Why does wind speed and direction vary at the surface compared to 2,000-5,000 AGL?

A

Because of the FRICTION between surface and wind.

99
Q

Regarding changes in temperature & airspeed, what will happen to residual ice after cycling deicing boots?

A

Residual ice will increase as the airspeed or temperature DECREASES.

100
Q

How can the stability of an air mass usually be determined?

A

The combination of moisture and temperature determines the stability of the air and the resulting weather.

MORE DETAIL: Cool, dry air is very stable and resists vertical movement, which leads to good/clear weather. Moist, warm air creates the greatest instability, like Florida, etc.

Single-Engine Instrument Airplane Written/Oral Review (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions