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Part II Boards > Associated Clinical Science (ACS) part 1 > Flashcards

Associated Clinical Science (ACS) part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the painful, soft, “weepy” chancre associated with?

A

Chlamydia

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2
Q

What is the painful, soft, “bleedy” chancre associated with?

A

Chancroid

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3
Q

What is the painless, hard chancre associated with?

A

Syphilis

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4
Q

What is the most common STD in the US?

A

Chlamydia

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5
Q

What are differential diagnoses for chlamydia?

A

(Lymphogranuloma venereum)
PID
Reuters disease (feet)

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6
Q

What STDs are asymptomatic in a female?

A

Chlamydia, Gonorrhea (knee) and Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)

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7
Q

What STDs are asymptomatic in a male?

A 
Trichomonas (Tricky Dick)
Candida albicans (yeast infection)
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8
Q

What discharge is seen with Gonorrhea?

A

copious and clear

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9
Q

What discharge is seen with Trichomonas?

A

frothy, foul and itchy

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10
Q

What discharge is seen with chronic vaginitis?

A

foul and itchy

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11
Q

What discharge is seen with Candidiasis?

A

Curdy and itchy

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12
Q

What discharge is seen with Herpes?

A

Watery

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13
Q

What discharge is seen with Chlamydia?

A

yellow

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14
Q

Is Gonorrhea gram positive or gram negative?

A

gram negative

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15
Q

Where does herpes go latent?

A

in the dorsal root ganglia

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16
Q

Does herpes have itching seen before or after the breakout?

A

before the breakout

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17
Q

What organism is seen with a chancroid?

A

haemophilus decrey (aka soft chancre)

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18
Q

What is a good saying to remember chancroid?

A

“how he do cry, he has a bloody chancre on his wanker”

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19
Q

Chancroid have large, painful, ulcers, and puss called what?

A

Buboes

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20
Q

What is seen with candidiasis in females?

A

white cheese material covering vaginal walls

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21
Q

What probiotics are used for Candidiasis?

A

Acidophilus and Lactobacilius

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22
Q

What type organism is seen with syphilis?

A

it is a Spirochete (treponema pallidum)

this can cross the placenta and IgG can’t protect it; this can lead to congenital syphilis

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23
Q

What is seen in stage 1 of syphilis?

A

painless, hard, firm (indurated), and singular lesion

stage 1 usually lasts 4-8 weeks

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24
Q

What is seen with stage 2 (skin) syphilis?

A 
Rash (80%)
lymphadenopathy (50%)
Condylomata lata (warts- wide based papule)
alopecia (hair loss)
appears 12 weeks later
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25
Q

What is seen with stage 3 (inside) syphilis?

A 
Gumma Iskin, viscera granulomatous lesion)
General Paresis (dementia) and argyll robertson pupil
Tabes dorsalis, domberg's test, and charcot's joint
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26
Q

What is the specific test to check for syphilis?

A

FTS-absorption

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27
Q

What are the screening tests (sensitive tests) for syphilis?

A

VDRL, RPR

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28
Q

What is seen with Congenital Syphilis?

A 
Hutchinson's Triad:
-Saddle Nose
-Interstitial Keratoses
-Peg teeth
(syphilis can cross the placenta; IgG cannot protect against it)
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29
Q

With lymphogranuloma venereum, the regional lymph nodes enlarge and may lead to what?

A

elephantiasis and rectal structures and abscesses

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30
Q

What is seen with Granuloma Inguinale?

A 
Donovania Granulomatous
Painless, velvety, show growing
Bright, Beeft, reg granulomatous lesions
This is an UGLY lesion
(DONOVANS BEEFY HAMBURGER)
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31
Q

What is seen with genital warts?

A

genital warts (16 and 18 is precancerous)
Condylomata Acuminata, cervical dysplasia (enlargement) leads to cancer
Usually a small itchy cluster (cauliflower)

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32
Q

What is a screening test for Genital warts?

A

speculum

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33
Q

What is the specific test for Genital Warts?

A

PAP (confirmatory)

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34
Q

What is molluscum contagiosum?

A

multiple skin tags that exfoliate, waxy papules

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35
Q

How can bollus lesions spread?

A

spread sexually or nonsexually

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36
Q

What is a pemphigoid?

A

Autoimmune, most common bulla lesion
lethal
middle aged, south americans
IgG (many types)

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37
Q

What is dermatitis herpetiformis (aka ichthyosis bolos siemens)?

A 
genital and extensor lesions
bulla
vesicles
papules
IgA (tip)
Itching, peeling, blistering, gluten sensitive, hereditary (blacks and asians)
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38
Q

Which parts of the brain control voluntary motor function?

A

posterior edge frontal lobe and cerebellum

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39
Q

What part of the brain controls personality and problem solving?

A

Frontal Lobe

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40
Q

What part of the brain controls somatosensory function (temperature, pressure, position sense)?

A

Anterior edge of Parietal lobes

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41
Q

What part of the brain controls vision (color and shape)?

A

Occipital lobe

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42
Q

What part of the brain controls auditory and smell

A

superior Temporal lobe

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43
Q

What part of the brain controls speech (motor)?

A

“broca’s” area in frontal lobe (left hemisphere)

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44
Q

What part of the brain controls speech (sensory, planning and understanding)?

A

“wernicke’s area at junction of parietal, temporal and occipital lobes

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45
Q

What part of the brain controls biological drives (thirst and hunger)?

A

hypothalamus

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46
Q

What part of the brain controls emotions (limbic)?

A

near corpus callous and temporal lobe

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47
Q

What part of the brain controls visual and spatial functions?

A

right parietal

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48
Q

What part of the brain controls the understanding of languages?

A

left parietal

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49
Q

What is the left hemisphere considered?

A

analytical

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50
Q

What is the right hemisphere considered?

A

intuitive

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51
Q

Which hemisphere moves the right side of the body and the right half of the “visual field”?

A

the left hemisphere

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52
Q

Which hemisphere moves the left side of the body and the left half of the “visual field”?

A

the right hemisphere

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53
Q

With mental health, what happened during the pre-1960s?

A

isolation, lobotomies, electroconvulsive shock therapy (ECT)

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54
Q

With mental health, what happened during the post-1960s?

A

drugs, therapy, de-institutionalization

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55
Q

With mental health, what happened in 1955?

A

spear’s chiropractic hospital very successful with mental disease

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56
Q

What is the theory of reasoned action?

A

perception + family/friends + beliefs = action (to go to chiropractor or not go to chiropractor)

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57
Q

communication is based on what?

A

speech, eye contact, body language, body contact and language

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58
Q

What is “funneling”?

A

combination of open-ended and direct questions

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59
Q

Hostility has a strong connection to _____ ______ _________?

A

Chronic Heart Diseae

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60
Q

Is dementia reversible or non-reversible?

A

non reversible

deterioration of cognition and behavior

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61
Q

Is delirium reversible or non-reversible?

A

often reversible

acute confusion that may fluctuate (ex. recovery from alcoholism)

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62
Q

What are the AKAs for Affect disorders?

A

affect = thymic = mood

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63
Q

What is bipolar disease?

A

episodes of mania (necessary) and melancholia (eventually happens)
mood swings

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64
Q

What is cyclothymic disorder?

A

causes hypomanic and mild depressive disorders

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65
Q

What is another name for unipolar disease?

A

depression (hopelessness), suicidal

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66
Q

___% of depression is misdiagnosed/unrecognized, self inflicted injuries (“cutter”)

A

50%

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67
Q

When you have major depression it should last about 2 weeks with 4 symptoms. what are some symptoms?

A

loss of appetite, insomnia, agitation, worthlessness, suicidal, poor concentration

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68
Q

How is dysthymic disorder different from depression (unipolar disorder)?

A

the diagnosis for dysthymic disorder is 2 years of at least 3 symptoms from the same symptoms as major depression

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69
Q

What is seasonal affect disorder?

A

when change in seasons affects your moods

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70
Q

With psychotic disorders, people have an _______ _______?

A

altered reality

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71
Q

What age group is schizophrenia prevalent in?

A

young adults are most commonly afflicted (reality is altered; perception is altered)
EPISODIC

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72
Q

What is alogia (seen with schizophrenia)?

A

poverty of speech

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73
Q

What is avolition (seen with schizophrenia)?

A

lack of purposeful action or motivation

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74
Q

What are the different types of schizophrenia?

A 
disorganized
catatonic
paranoid
schizophreniform
paraphrenia
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75
Q

What is disorganized schizophrenia?

A

unpredictable mood shifts (old term is hebephrenic)

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76
Q

What is catatonic schizophrenia?

A

rigid posture, expression flat affect, “masked facies” (frozen)

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77
Q

What is paranoid schizophrenia?

A

delusions of persecution

78
Q

What is schizophreniform (schizophrenia)?

A

adolescent/young adult onset, contradictory messages, short event (6 mo)

79
Q

What is paraphrenia schizophrenia?

A

geriatric (ex. paranoid that doctors are out to get them)

80
Q

What is a psychopath (old school term)?

A

no regard for self or others, abnormal lack of empathy

combines with strong amoral conduct masked by an ability to appear outwardly normal

81
Q

What is a sociopath/antisocial personality?

A

believes they are superior, grandiose, lack remorse, shallow emotions (need stimulation), pathological liar, violent

82
Q

What is dissociative disorder?

A

multiple personalities; usually due to childhood trauma and can be a short term event (create new personalities to escape reality)

83
Q

What are somatoform disorders?

A

physical complaint with no organic pathology
this is an entirely unconscious process
(exaggerate- making things worse than they are)

84
Q

What is dysmorphic disorder?

A

convinced of a body flaw (real or imagined) and becomes preoccupied with it (eg. anorexia nervosa or gender disorder)

85
Q

What are food disorders?

A

anorexia nervosa- fear of fat
bulimia- binge and purge (barrett’s)
pica- no nutritional value

86
Q

What is conversion disorder?

A

psychic conflict causing physical symptoms- single physical impairment cause by emotional event (hysteria)

87
Q

What is seen with a hypochondriac?

A

preoccupation with personal health or contracting illness

88
Q

What is somatization disorder (aka briquet’s syndrome)?

A

females under 30 (usually starts in adolescence), multiple systems, confusing (multi visceral)

89
Q

What is somatoform pain disorder (aka psychogenic pain disorder)?

A

underlying emotional process, pain often allows escape from responsibility

90
Q

What is morgelloan’s disease?

A

delusional parasitosis, believes they are invaded by insects, parasites, hair, etc…

91
Q

What is munchausen syndrome?

A

individual exaggerates personal complaints

92
Q

What is munchausen by proxy?

A

caregiver inflicts harm on individuals they are caring for

93
Q

What are anxiety disorders?

A

constant worry and fear

94
Q

What is general anxiety disorder?

A

constant excessive fear, hypervigilant

95
Q

What are the symptoms of general anxiety disorder?

A

twitching, sweating, dry mouth, headache, stomach ache, urinary frequency

96
Q

What can general anxiety disorder cause?

A

heart failure, head injury, hormone imbalance, endocrine disease, pneumonia and COPD

97
Q

What are panic attacks seen with?

A

general anxiety disorder (GAD)
phobias
obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)
post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

98
Q

What are the two types of phobias?

A

social and specific

most people know their fear is unreasonable

99
Q

What is a social phobia?

A

provoked by people or performance issues

100
Q

What is a specific phobia?

A

provoked by object or situation

101
Q

What is obsessive/compulsive disorder?

A 
repetitive thoughts (obsession)
repetitive actions (compulsion)- actions include cleaning, checking, repeating, hoarding, arranging, mental rituals
102
Q

What is post traumatic stress disorder?

A

fear an anxiety followed by a traumatic event
(flashbacks and sleep disorders are common)
can get fibromyalgia (tender points), MFS (trigger points), and restless leg syndrome (RLS)

103
Q

What is neurosis?

A

in reality most of the time, hard on themselves
low self-esteem
defense mechanisms are working overtime
(treatment is to support and enlighten)

104
Q

What is a masochist?

A

someone who likes abuse

105
Q

What is a sadist?

A

someone who inflicts abuse

106
Q

What is a voyeur?

A

someone who enjoys watching

107
Q

What is an exhibitionist?

A

someone who enjoys showing

108
Q

What are three common childhood disorders?

A

fetal alcohol syndrome
autism
attention deficit disorder

109
Q

What is commonly seen with fetal alcohol syndrome?

A

microcephaly
poor development
antisocial

110
Q

What is autism?

A

preoccupation with ones own thoughts (private world)
slow language development
amoxicillin and vaccinations

111
Q

How do you diagnose autism?

A 
no smiling (seen around 6 months)
no babble (seen around 12 months)
Repeated phrases (seen at 24 months)
Language issues *
112
Q

What is attention deficit disorder?

A

impulsive pattern inattentive often dyslexic, reading and sleep disorders are common
active leg decreases deep sleep
poor focus and academics

113
Q

What are defense mechanisms?

A

coping methods (things you DO)

114
Q

What is a reaction formation?

A

transfer one drive to opposite expression

115
Q

What is displacement?

A

acting out emotion on someone else

116
Q

What is denial?

A

NO feelings

117
Q

What is repression?

A

IGNORING feelings (co-dependent)

118
Q

What is regression?

A

acting younger

119
Q

What is projection?

A

give undesirable traits away (playing the blame game)

120
Q

What is rationalizing behavior?

A

excuse for behavior

121
Q

What is a transference behavior?

A

transfer of emotions to a doctor

Counter transference is the reverse (doctor transfers emotions to patient)

122
Q

What is sublimation?

A

replace socially unacceptable behavior with a more acceptable but similar one (Like the rocky movie)
“Make the Crime Sublime”

123
Q

What are personality disorders?

A

“in between”- neurotics and psychotics

Things you ARE

124
Q

What is narcissism?

A

self love (me, myself and I)

125
Q

What is an avoidant personality?

A

feels inadequate, isolates

126
Q

What is a paranoid personality?

A

believes everyone is out to get them

127
Q

What is a phobic personality?

A

afraid of a particular thing, event, etc.

128
Q

What is a schizotypal personality?

A

peculiar dress, magical thinking and beliefs

129
Q

What is a passive-aggressive personality?

A

forgets on purpose (disguised anger)

130
Q

What is a histrionic personality?

A

overly dramatic, victim

often seductive

131
Q

What is a borderline personality disorder?

A 
lacks primary (linear) thinking process
manipulates facts
132
Q

What is psychotherapy?

A

analyze underlying issues

133
Q

What is milieu therapy?

A

lifestyle change, in-patient, half-way house, etc (change environment)

134
Q

What is ECT?

A

electroconvulsive shock therapy

severe depression

135
Q

What is generalization therapy?

A

many different stimulus lead to the same response, slow exposure

136
Q

What is humanistic therapy?

A

psychotherapy, focused on self actualizing, and personal growth (gestalt, client oriented, etc.)

137
Q

What is maslow therapy?

A

hierarchy of needs- abraham maslow (physiological needs-self actualization)

138
Q

What is freud therapy

A

dream analysis, free association, hypnotherapy, unconscious entities

139
Q

What are the different unconscious entities seen in freud therapy?

A

ID (kid, unconscious primitive)
EGO (reality, control)
Super EGO (unconscious conscience, guilt)

140
Q

What is Jung Therapy?

A

Psychoanalysis (student of freud)

141
Q

What is a behaviorist point of view?

A

environmental controls behavior, habits and training

142
Q

What is behavioral medicine?

A

desensitization, flooding, aversion, reinforcements, shaping

143
Q

What are the three types of behavioral medicine?

A

Aversion, Avoidance, and Conditioning

144
Q

What is aversion (behavioral medicine)?

A

associate behavior with negative consequences

145
Q

What is avoidance (behavioral medicine)?

A

avoid person, place and things associated with behavior

146
Q

What are the different types of conditioning (behavioral medicine)?

A

classical, modeling, and operant conditioning

147
Q

What is classical conditioning?

A 
"PAVLOVs Dogs" (expensive procedure)
Unconditioned stimulus- food
Unconditioned reflex- salivate to food
Conditioned stimulus- bell
Conditioned reflex- salivate to bell
Stimulus and responser are similar
148
Q

What is modeling conditioning?

A

environment
influence
video
music

149
Q

What is operant conditioning?

A 
By Skinner
"pay offs" (cheaper procedure)
to change behavior
stimulus and response are unrelated
Negative- fastest
Positive- Longest
150
Q

Is standford binet (IQ) test an adult or child test?

151
Q

Is WISC (IQ) test and adult or child test?

152
Q

What type of test is MMPI?

A

a personality test

153
Q

What type of test is Rorschach?

A

projective test

INK BLOTS

154
Q

What is an MMSE test?

A

a memory and mental status test

155
Q

With first AID, what is the first thing you do?

A

GET HELP (before the ABCs)

156
Q

What are the ABCs of first aid?

A

Assessment/airway
Breathing
Circulation

157
Q

What do you do during the assessment/airway portion of the ABCs?

A

evaluate consciousness and condition, check airway

158
Q

What is done during the breathing portion of the ABCs?

A

2 puffs => reposition =>2 puffs => (jaw thrust)

159
Q

What is done during the circulation portion of the ABCs?

A

check pulse

CPR (up to 20 minutes)

160
Q

Emetics are _____ given for gasoline poisoning?

A

NEVER given (causes you to vomit and gas burns going in and out so you don’t want to give those)

161
Q

What is the most common emetic?

162
Q

What is the mildest emetic?

A

salt water

163
Q

What is the safest substance to treat alkaline or acid poisoning?

164
Q

If ingesting bleach or other cleaning chemicals, what should not be done?

A

Should not VOMIT IT OUT

165
Q

What is the universal antidote?

A

activated charcoal

166
Q

Is activated charcoal an ABsorbent or ADsorbent?

A

ADsorbent (whatever you want to get out is just added to the activated charcoal instead of absorbed into the charcoal)

167
Q

What should activated charcoal NOT be used for?

A

alcohol
iodine, boric acid and alkalies
lithium (metallic compounds)
sulphur, DDT

168
Q

What is the universal sign for choking?

A

hands on throat

169
Q

If someone is choking, they are conscious and have sound, what do you do?

A

DO NOT HELP

170
Q

If someone is choking, they are conscious and have no sound, what do you do?

A

Give the person the Heimlich (aka conscious abdominal thrust)

171
Q

What do you do for an unconscious choking infant?

A

give back blow and finger sweep

172
Q

What do you do for an unconscious choking adult?

A

give abdominal thrusts (just above the umbilicus)

173
Q

What is seen with anaphylactic shock?

A

swollen tongue

174
Q

When does anaphylactic shock usually occur?

A

When you are exposed a second time!

175
Q

What is seen with hypovolemic shock?

A

blood loss

176
Q

What happens when someone has early signs of anaphylactic shock?

A

restless or irritable, cool, clammy skin and rapid pulse

177
Q

What happens when someone has late signs of anaphylactic shock?

A

thready pulse, shallow rapid breathing, blue skin and dilated pupils

178
Q

What is the death warning sign with anaphylactic shock?

A

Decreased Blood pressure

179
Q

What happens with carbon dioxide poisoning?

A

Not enough O2, cyanosis occurs

RARE

180
Q

What happens with carbon monoxide poisoning?

A

hemoglobin binds to carbon molecule
“cherry red lips or skin”
cyanosis
(MOST COMMON poisoning)

181
Q

Where is Community Acquired MRSA seen?

A

in kids, athletes, skin and lungs

182
Q

Where is MRSA seen?

A

in hospitals, nursing home, the debilitated, and in joints

183
Q

In first aid, what do you do when someone has a fracture?

A

do no approximate

Immobilize in position found

184
Q

In first aid, what do you do when someone has a head injury?

A

determine if conscious

sharp stimulus on food (to check consciousness)

185
Q

What occurs when someone has heat cramps?

A

NO temp change (hot and sweaty)

186
Q

What occurs when someone has heat exhaustion?

A

elevated temperature

cool and wet skin

187
Q

What occurs when someone has a heat stroke?

A

elevated temperatures

hot and dry skin

188
Q

What is seen with a first degree burn?

189
Q

What is seen with a second degree burn?

190
Q

What is seen with a third degree burn?

A

desquamation

Part II Boards (4 decks)

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