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HA LEC > assessment of the eyes, and ears > Flashcards

assessment of the eyes, and ears Flashcards

1
Q

what does the eye transmit to the brain for interpretation

A

visual stimuli

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2
Q

what protects the eyeball?(2)

A
  1. bony orbit
  2. fat fusion
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3
Q

what does the the external structure or the EYELIDS do for the lower and upper eyes? (2)

A
  1. limits the amount of light
  2. lubricate the surface
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4
Q

what part of the eye allow drainage of tears into the lacrimal system containing SEBACEOUS GLAND? (middle eyeliner- external KANTO)

A

Medial canthus

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5
Q

this is the WHITE SPACE between open eyelids (where i put eyeshadow)

A

palpebral fissure

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6
Q

projections of stiff hair

A

eyelashes

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7
Q

glands and ducts that LUBRICATE EYES

A

lacrimal apparatus

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8
Q

this is a MUSCLE that control 6 diff directions of the eye

A

extraocular muscles

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9
Q

Conjuctiva area: covers ANTERIOR EYE merging w cornea at the limbus (border) (OPENS AND CLOSES)

A

palpebral conjuctiva

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10
Q

internal structure: the eyeball consists of 2 parts:

A
  1. sclera
  2. cornea
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11
Q

this is a dense, protective WHITE COVERING that PHYSICALLY supports the internal structures

A

sclera

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12
Q

permits the entrance of light

A

cornea

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13
Q

circular disc of muscle containing pigments that determine EYE COLOR

A

IRIS

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14
Q

central APERTURE of the IRIS (black spot)

A

PUPIL

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15
Q

the innermost layer

A

retina

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16
Q

cream-colored circular area located on the retina toward the MEDIAL NASAL SIDE OF EYE

A

optic side

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17
Q

refers to what a person see with the eye

A

visual field

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18
Q

4 quadrants of the visual field of the eye

A
  1. upper temporal
  2. lower temporal
  3. upper nasal
  4. lower nasal
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19
Q

this is being transformed into nerve impulses, conducted to the brain through the optic nerve, and interpreted

A

visual perception

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20
Q

causes pupil immediately to CONSTRICT AND DILATE (direct reflex)

A

pupillary light reflex

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21
Q

allow eyes to focus on near objects

A

functional reflex

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22
Q

test for distant visual acuity

A

Snellen

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23
Q

test for distant visual acuity when patients have no verbal communication

A

E chart

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24
Q

how far does the client stand away w an opaque card?

A

20 ft

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25
Q

what is the normal distant acuity w/ w/out corrective lenses?

A

20/20

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26
Q

what do you call an impaired far vision when the second number in the test result is larger than the first (20/40) **the higher the second number, the poorer the vision.

A

Myopia

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27
Q

true or false. a client can wear reading glasses for test in distant visual acuity

A

false

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28
Q

what do you consider of the client when vision in the better eye with corrective lenses is 20/200 or less? (worse than 20/30)

A

legally blind

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29
Q

who are eligible for the test for NEAR visual acuity?

A

middle aged or others w dfficulty reading.

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30
Q

how far can the hand held vision chart (near vision test) be from the eyes?

A

14 inches away

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31
Q

what is the normal finding for NEAR visual acuity w or w/out corrective lenses?

A

14/14

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32
Q

what is an impaired NEAR vision called?

A

presbyopia

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33
Q

how far will u stand to test visual fields for GROSS PERIPHERAL vision?

A

2 feet away from the client eye

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34
Q

what is a complete blindness of one eye?

A

unilateral blindness

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35
Q

loss of vision in both temporal fields

A

bitemporal hemianopia

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36
Q

partial lesion of temporal loop (optic radiation)

A

left superior quadrant anopia

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37
Q

lesion of optic chiasm

A

bitemporal hemianopia

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38
Q

lesion in eye or optic nerve

A

unilateral blindness

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39
Q

lesion in right optic tract or lesion in temporal loop (optic radiation)

A

right visual field loss or similar loss of vision in half of each field

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40
Q

normal in young children, pupils will appear at the inner canthus (due to epicanthic fold)

A

pseudostrabismus

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41
Q

constant misalignment of the eye axis

A

strabismus

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42
Q

movement of weaker eye is an inward drift of the eye when the stronger eye is covered

A

esophoria

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43
Q

movement of weaker eye outward drift of the eye when the stronger eye is covered

A

exophoria

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44
Q

an oscillating (shaking) movement of the eye

A

nystagmus

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45
Q

constant malalignment of the eye axis. one eye turns INWARD

A

esotopia

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46
Q

constant malalignment of the eye axis. one eye turns outward

A

exotopia

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47
Q

usually the result of weakness or PARALYSIS of one or more EXTRAOCULAR MUSCLES..

A

paralytic strabismus

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48
Q

this is a paralysis where weakness or PARALYSIS of one or more EXTRAOCULAR MUSCLES when the eye cannot look at the OUTER SIDE

A

6th nerve paralysis

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49
Q

this is a paralysis where weakness or PARALYSIS of one or more EXTRAOCULAR MUSCLES when the eye lost the UPWARD, DOWNWARD AND INWARD MOVEMENTS

A

3rd nerve paralysis

50
Q

this is a paralysis where weakness or PARALYSIS of one or more EXTRAOCULAR MUSCLES when the eye cannot look DOWN

A

4th nerve paralysis- client can only loook down to the right

51
Q

drooping of the upper lid that

52
Q

inverted lower lid as the eyelash brushes against against the conjuctiva and cornea

53
Q

everted lower eyelid (drying of conjuctiva)

54
Q

separates the external ear from the middle ear

A

tympanic membrane

55
Q

can ba used to assess the external ear and tympanic membrane

56
Q

3 parts of the external ear

A

auricle-pinna
cerumen
tympanic membrane/eardrum

57
Q

what is the yellow plaques at inner canthus

A

xanthelasma

58
Q

follicle infection in the eye

59
Q

meibomian gland infection

60
Q

protrusion q retracted eyelids

A

exophthalamos

61
Q

yellow nodules at bulbar conjuctiva

A

pinguecula

62
Q

opacities of lens

63
Q

results from a cardiopulmonary problem, whereas peripheral cyanosis may be a local problem resulting from vasoconstriction.

A

central cyanosis

64
Q

butterfly rash found in dark people

A

malar rash

65
Q

caused by iron deficiency, anemia

A

koilonychia

66
Q

caused by hypoalbuminemia of chronic liver disease

A

leukonychia

67
Q

caused by decreased protein synthesis. palpabale and does not disappear upon blanchinh

A

meuhrke’s lines

68
Q

lines caused by infection, injury, trauma

A

beau’s lines

69
Q

caused by psoriasis

A

pitting of nails

70
Q

caused by lung disease, cyanotic heart, heart disease

A

nail clubbing

71
Q

indicates local infection in the nails

A

paronychia

72
Q

Detachment of nail plate from nail bed.

A

onycholysis

73
Q

malaligned or low set ears. Smaller than 4cm or larger than 10 cm (normally, ears are 4-10cm equal in size)

A

chromosomal defects

74
Q

painful auricle or tragus. Foul smelling, sticky YELLOW DISCHARGE

A

otitis externa

75
Q

painful auricle or tragus

A

Post auricular cyst

76
Q

tenderness over the mastoid process

A

Mastoiditis

77
Q

tenderness behind the ear. RED Bloody, purulent discharge.

A

otitis media

78
Q

gradual sensorineural hearing loss due to degeneration of the degeneration of the cochlea or vestibulocochlear nerve common in older clients. Difficulty hearing consonants and whispered words that increase difficulty over time.

A

presbycusis

79
Q

occurs with AGING as the auditory ossicles develop spongy consistency that results in conductive hearing loss.

A

otoscelorosis

80
Q

startle in new borns

A

moro reflex

81
Q

blink eyes in response to NOISE

A

acoustic blink reflex

82
Q

how many decibels can new borns hear and react with the startle reflex?

A

90 decibels

83
Q

weber’s test. The client reports LATERALIZATION of sound to the POOR EAR. (hears sounds in poor ear or sounds conducted by BONE VIBRATION.) the good ear is distracted by bg noise, conducted air which the poor ear has trouble hearing

A

conductive hearing loss

84
Q

the client reports lateralization of sound to the GOOD EAR due to nerve damage in the bad ear

A

Sensorineural hearing loss

85
Q

compares air and bone conduction sounds.

A

Rinne test-

86
Q

bone conduction sound is heard longer than air conduction sound

A

conductive hearing loss

87
Q

air conduction sound is heard longer than bone conduction if anything is heard at all.

A

Sensorineural hearing loss

88
Q

romberg test (equilibrium test) if client moves FEET APART or FALL from loss of balance

A

Vestibular disorder

89
Q

rich supply of blood vessels known as “KIESSELBACH’S AREA”

A

nasal septum

90
Q

receding red gums w loss of teeth. disease is an infection of the tissues that hold your teeth in place.

A

periodontitis

91
Q

normally, how many teeth are there?

92
Q

upper or lower incisors PROTRUDE

A

malocclusion

93
Q

red, swollen gums that bleed easily

A

Gingivitis/Scurvyphenytoin(vit C deficiency), leukemia

94
Q

enlarged, redenned gums that COVER TEETH. (seen in pregnancy, puberty, leukemia and medications such as )

A

hyperplasia

95
Q

drug for epilepsy causes gingival enlargement.

96
Q

(usually lateral incisors) occur in up to 8% of Asians esp to those without 3rd molars

97
Q

yellowish- whitish raised spots, are normal ectopic sebaceous glands

A

fordyce spots

98
Q

seen in chronic irritation and smoking. precancerous lesion
cannot be removed after brushing

A

leukoplakia

99
Q

“thrush”- Whitish, curdlike patches that scrape off over reddened mucosa and bleed easily

A

candida albicans

100
Q

Many brown patches inside the cheeks of clients with adrenocortical insufficiency.occurs when the adrenal glands don’t produce enough hormones, particularly cortisol and aldosterone, leading to various symptoms and potential life-threatening complications

A

canker sores

101
Q

deep longitudinal fissured topographic map like tongue

A

dehydration

102
Q

black, hairy tongue; a smooth, reddish, shiny tongue without papillae indicative of niacin or vitamin B12 deficiencies, certain anemias, and antineoplastic therapy.

A

bismuth toxicity

103
Q

Decreased tongue strength may occur with a defect of the nerve?

A

12th nerve- hypoglossal

104
Q

Loss of taste discrimination- occurs w what deficiency and defect in nerve?

A

zinc deficiency, 7th cranial nerve(facial)

105
Q

may appear as thick white plaques on the hard palate.

A

candidal infection

106
Q

Deep purple, raised, or flat lesions (seen in clients with AIDS)

A

kaposi’s sarcoma

107
Q

Fruity or acetone breath

A

diabetic ketoacidocis

108
Q

is often associated with kidney disease.

109
Q

indicate oral or respiratory infection or tooth decay

A

foul odors

110
Q

occurs in end stage liver disease

A

fetor hepaticus (sulfur odor)

111
Q

split in two or partially severed

A

bifid uvula

112
Q

Asymmetric movement or loss of movement may occur after

A

stroke/ cerobrovascular accident

113
Q

Palate fails to rise and the uvula deviates to the normal side of the uvula.

A

cranial nerve X ( vagus)

114
Q

when is drooling evident for infants?

115
Q

deciduoud tooth eruption takes place bet the ages?

A

6-24 months

116
Q

this is calles the yello white retention cysts on the hard palate and gums that are common for infants

A

epstein’s pearls

117
Q

tonsils are visbile in newborns. true or false?

118
Q

at what age a child may loose deciduous teeth (temporary)?

A

6-12 years ols

119
Q

what age does permanent teeth grow?

A

6 years old

120
Q

at what age frontal sinuses develop?

121
Q

at what age sphenoid sinuses develop?

A

after puberty

122
Q

The tonsils and adenoids rapidly grow, reaching maximum development by age

HA LEC (9 decks)

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