Assessment, Dx, and Tx Planning Flashcards

1
Q

What stage is Pre-Contemplation in change? What is it?

A

1st Stage! –> When a person in unwilling to make change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What stage is Contemplation in change? What it is?

A

2nd Stage!

–> when someone is considering change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What stage is Preparation for Change? What is it?

A

3rd stage!

–> when someone is preparing/deciding to make a change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What stage is Action in change? What is it?

A

4th Stage

–> direct action towards a goal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What stage is Maintenance in change? What is it?

A

5th grade

–> avoiding temptation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What stage is relapse in change? What is it?

A
6th stage (last stage)
--> using the substance.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the Rorshach Inkblot test?

A

Clients responses to inkblots to assess perceptual reactions and other psychological functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Folie a Deux?

A

Having a shared delusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Exogeneous Depression

A

Depression caused by external events.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Endogenous Depression

A

Depression caused by biochemical imbalance rather than psychological stressor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Contraindicated

A

When a substance use not recommended or safe to use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Comorbid

A

Existing with or at the same time.

ex: having two illnesses at the same time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Casual Information observation

A

The 1st stage level of observation, where the provider gleans information from watching the client during unstructured activities throughout the day.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Guided Observation

A

the 2nd level of observation, an intentional style of direct observation accomplished with a checklist or rating scale to evaluate the performance or behavior seen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Clinical level of observation

A

The 3rd level of observation, where observation is done in a controlled setting for a lengthy period of time. Most of the time this is accomplished at a doctoral level with applied instruments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some indicators of sexual dysfunction when assessing?

A

Hx of promiscuity and/or prostitution, Asexual behaviors, hyper sexual behaviors, bragging, or gender dysphoria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are some indicators of behavioral dysfunction when assessing?

A

Appearance, labile mood, attitude, dishonesty, truancy, SIB, or counter-culture identification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is psychosocial stress?

A

this type of stress occurs when when one perceives a threat as part of social interaction with other individuals. Those most at risk are those experiencing resocialization (recently released from incarceration), role change (death or divorce), or situation change (foster care or rehab).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Indicators of psychosocial stress..

A
  • SIB
  • Speech alterations (speaking quickly or not saying anything)
  • Self-comforting measures (rubbing hands together, arms folded, deep breaths)
  • Substance abuse
  • Stress related ailments (GI issues, hypertension, headaches)
  • Sleep disturbances
  • Mental health issues (depression is most common)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The Bender Visual-motor Gestalt Test (Bender Gestalt II)

A

A brief examination that involves 16 stimulus cards containing geometric figures which the person must either copy or recall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The Benton Visual retention test (BVRT)

A

Assesses visual memory, spacial perception and visual motor skills.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the 5 phases of the Five-phase aggression cycle?

A
  1. Triggering (pt responds to a triggering event)
  2. Escalation (pt shows movement towards lack of control, increased physical symptoms and not logical)
  3. Crisis (pt loses physical and emotional control)
  4. Recovery (pt regains control and is able to think more rationally.)
  5. Post-crisis (pt may attempt reconciliation)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the 1st gen Anti-psychotics for Schizophrenia and Psychotic symptoms?

A
  1. Haldol
  2. Thorazine
  3. Stelazine
  4. Prolixin
  5. Navane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the Atypical/2nd gen Antipsychotic drugs for Schizophrenia and psych symptoms?

A
  1. Clazoril (requires frequent blood testing due to risk of side effect for blood disorder)
  2. Risperdal
  3. Seroquel
  4. Zyprexa
  5. Abilify
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What 4 drugs are used for Bipolar Disorder? and what kind of medication are they?

A
  1. Lithium
  2. Tegretol
  3. Depakote
    4.Lamictal
    –> These medications are mood stabilizers.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What 4 drugs are used for Anxiety?

A
  1. Ativan
  2. Xanax
  3. Klonopin
  4. Valium
27
Q

Phenylketonuria (PKU) occurs when …

A

an infant lacks the enzyme to metabolize amino acids and is a rare genetic disorder. These people typically are blue eyed and fair skinned.

28
Q

What is Conduct Disorder?

A

a disorder for a persistant pattern of behavior in which significant age-appripriste rules or societal nors are ignored, and other’s rights and/or property are violated; aggresssion to people and animals and property are common.
To meet criteria…a person must display 3 of 15 symptoms over the course of a year. These are categorized 4 ways: aggression to people or animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness, and serious violations of rules.

29
Q

What is ODD?

A

A disorder similar to conduct disorder and is characterized by:
- patterns of negative or hostile behaviors towardsd authority figures
- frequent outbreaks of temper or rage.
- deliberately annoying people
- blaming others
- spite and vindictiveness

30
Q

What is the best treatment for disorders such as, conduct disorder and ODD?

A

The best treatment for these disorders are interventions that are administered to preadolescents and include the immediate family members. Also, parent therapy, helping them to reward positive behavior while consistently punishing bad behavior.

31
Q

What is Pica D/o?

A

a disorder of persistant eating of non-food substances such as paint, sand, clothes…etc. Symptoms must persist for at least a month and is most often manifested between the ages of 12 and 24 months.

32
Q

What is Rumination disorder?

A

a disorder is when someone is regurgitating and re-chewing their food.

33
Q

What is Flooding? What disorder does it help most with?

A

An effective treatment for panic attacks. Using in vivo exposure with response prevention.

34
Q

What’s an obsession?

A

Continuous, repetitive thoughts, compulsions, or things imagined that are unwanted and cause distress. The individual will try to suppress thoughts, ignore them, or do compulsive behavior.

35
Q

What is a compulsion?

A

recurrent behavior or thought the individual feels obliged to perform after an obsession to decrease anxiety; however, the compulsion is usually not connected in an understandable way to an observer.

36
Q

Whats the best treatment for PTSD?

A
  • Exposure therapy
  • CBT
  • Anxiety management
  • medication
37
Q

What are the requirements to dx for Somatic Symptom d/o?

A

Requirements: dramatic, overstated, excessive worry about health issues for at least 6 months with no medical explanation.

38
Q

What are Persecutory Delusions?

A

The delusion that someone or something is out to get him or her.

39
Q

What are Referential Delusions?

A

The delusion that messages in the public domain (like song lyrics or newspaper articles) are specifically directed at him/her.

40
Q

What are Bizarre Delusions?

A

The delusion of imagining something impossible and that it’s happened.

41
Q

What is a hypomanic episode?

A

an episode that’s severe enough to be a clear departure from normal mood and functioning, but not severe enough to cause a marked impairment in functioning or to require hospitalization.

42
Q

What is Cyclothymic disorder?

A

a disorder characterized by chronic, fluctuating mood with many hypomanic and depressive symptoms, which are not as severe as either Bipolar I or Bipolar II.

43
Q

What is Factitious disorder?

A

A disorder where one intentionally manifests physical or psychological symptoms to satisfy an intrapsychic need to fill the role of a sick person.

44
Q

What are Cluster A Personality type disorders?

A

(odd or eccentric d/o) ..
- Paranoid
- Schizoid
- Schizotypical

45
Q

What are Cluster B Personality Disorders?

A

(dramatic or excessively emotional)…
- Borderline
- Antisocial
- Histrionic
- Narcissistic

46
Q

What are Cluster C Personality Disorders?

A

(fear/anxiety- based)…
- Avoidant
- Dependent
- Obsessive/compulsive

47
Q

What is Paranoid Personality Disorder?

A

A disorder displaying a pervasive pattern of distrust and suspiciousness that involves believing the actions and thoughts of other people to be directed antagonistically against oneself.

48
Q

What is Schizoid Personality Disorder?

A

A disorder characterized by pervasive lack of interest in relationships with others and limited range of emotional expression in contacts with others.

49
Q

What is Schizotypal Personality Disorder?

A

A disorder characterized by pervasive social deficits, oddities in cognition, perception, or behavior.

50
Q

What is Antisocial Personality Disorder?

A

A disorder characterized by one’s general lack of concern for the rights and feelings of others. May also include an inflated opinion of self, superficial charm, and a lack of empathy for others.

51
Q

What is Borderline Personality Disorder?

A

A disorder displaying a pervasive pattern of instability in social relationships, self-image, and affect, coupled with marked impulsivity.
–> DBT is best treatment for this disorder.

52
Q

What is Histrionic Personality Disorder?

A

A disorder displaying excessive emotionality and attention-seeking behavior.

53
Q

What is Narcissistic Personality Disorder?

A

A disorder displaying grandiose behavior along with a lack of empathy and a need for admiration.

54
Q

What is Avoidant Personality Disorder?

A

A disorder displaying a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation.

55
Q

What are the 4 key steps in the research process?

A
  1. ID Problem
  2. Hypothesis
  3. Operationalization (Creating measurable variable to address hypothesis)
  4. Study Design Selection
56
Q

What is Subjective data when researching?

A

This data can depend on the opinions of the observer or the subject. Usually cannot be generalized to a larger population and can be useful at the beginning of the data collection process.

57
Q

What is Objective data when researching?

A

data the is observable and can be tested and verified. Usually used in later stages using numbers, and can be used as surveys, questionnaires, or other numerical data.

58
Q

What are ethical concerns with study design selection?

A
  • Research must not lead to harming clients
  • Denying an intercention may amount to harm.
  • Informed consent is essential
  • Confidentiality is required.
59
Q

What is concurrent validity in research?

A

a validity comparing the results of studies that used different measurement instruments but targeted the same features.

60
Q

What is Construct validity in research?

A

This validity is the degree of agreement between theoretical concept and the measurements obtained (as seen via the subcategories of convergent validity and discriminant validity).

61
Q

What is convergent validity?

A

a validity that measures the degree of actual agreement on measures that should be theoretically related. (a subcategory of Construct Validity)

62
Q

What is Discriminent validity?

A

A validity measuring the lack of a relationship among measures which are theoretically not related. (a subcategory of Construct validity)

63
Q

What is Content Validity?

A

Comprising logical validity (i.e. whether reasoning indicates it is valid) and face validity (i.e. whether those those involved concur that it appears valid).

64
Q

What is Predictive Validity?

A

A validity concerning whether the measurement can be used to accurately predict future outcomes.