Assessment CH 10 - Career - Aptitude - Interest Assessments Flashcards

1
Q

(T/F) About 80% of the time working, individuals do not like either the job they are working at or the career they chose to work in.

A

T

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2
Q

INTEREST INVENTORIES
Which of the following is true about interest inventories?
a. They are based on an individual’s abilities.
b. They are helpful in assessing one’s intellect in order to make conclusions about career choice.
c. They need little if any assistance to interpret.
d. They are fairly good at predicting job satisfaction based on occupational fit.

A

D

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3
Q

INTEREST INVENTORIES
Which of the following is NOT a popular interest inventory?
a. The Self-Directed Search
b. The Career Occupational Preference System
c. The Strong Vocational Interest Inventory
d. The Interest, Skill, and Career Assessment Inventory
e. The Campbell Interest and Skill Survey

A

D

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4
Q

INTEREST INVENTORIES
Which of the following describes the purpose of the General Occupational Themes on the Strong?
a. To identify an individual’s top three Holland Codes
b. To identify an individual’s broad interest areas (e.g., science, math, music)
c. To give a breakdown of client responses on the test
d. To give an estimate of work style, learning environment, leadership style, risk taking/adventure, and team
orientation
e. None of these

A

A

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5
Q

INTEREST INVENTORIES
Which of the following describes the purpose of the Basic Interest Scales on the Strong?
a. To identify an individual’s top three Holland Codes
b. To give an estimate of work style, learning environment, leadership style, risk taking/adventure, and team
orientation
c. To allow an individual to compare his or her interests to the interests of same-sex individuals who are satisfied
in their jobs
d. To give a breakdown of client responses on the test
e. To identify an individual’s broad interest areas (e.g., science, math, music)

A

E

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6
Q

INTEREST INVENTORIES
Which of the following describes the purpose of the Occupational Scales on the Strong?
a. To identify an individual’s broad interest areas (e.g., science, math, music)
b. To allow an individual to compare his or her interests to the interests of same sex individuals who are satisfied
in their jobs
c. To identify an individual’s top three Holland Codes
d. To give a breakdown of client responses on the test
e. To give an estimate of work style, learning environment, leadership style, risk taking/adventure, and team
orientation

A

B

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7
Q

INTEREST INVENTORIES
Which of the following describes the purpose of the Personal Style Scales on the Strong?
a. To give a breakdown of client responses on the test
b. To allow an individual to compare his or her interests to the interests of same-sex individuals who are satisfied
in their jobs
c. To identify an individual’s top three Holland Codes
d. To give an estimate of work style, learning environment, leadership style, risk taking/adventure, and team
orientation
e. To identify an individual’s broad interest areas (e.g., science, math, music)

A

D

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8
Q

INTEREST INVENTORIES
Which of the following describes the purpose of the Response Summary on the Strong?
a. To allow an individual to compare his or her interests to the interests of same-sex individuals who are satisfied
in their jobs
b. To identify an individual’s broad interest areas (e.g., science, math, music)
c. To give a breakdown of client responses on the test
d. To identify an individual’s top three Holland Codes
e. To give an estimate of work style, learning environment, leadership style, and risk taking/adventure

A

C

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9
Q

INTEREST INVENTORIES
Which of the following is NOT one of the Holland Codes?
a. Realistic
b. Enterprising
c. Artistic
d. Social
e. Contemporary

A

E

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10
Q

INTEREST INVENTORIES
Which of the following is NOT true about the Self-Directed Search?
a. It was developed by John Holland.
b. It uses the Holland Code.
c. It can be self-administered and self-scored.
d. It is offered in one form, which can be used by elementary students, high school students, and adults.
e. Reliability has tended to be high and there is evidence of validity through numerous studies.

A

D

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11
Q

INTEREST INVENTORIES
Which of the following describes the purpose of the Occupations Finder, the Dictionary of Holland Occupational Codes, and O*NET?
a. To identify abilities of the individual
b. To identify strengths and weaknesses of the various Holland Codes
c. To find salary ranges and job descriptions of various Holland Codes
d. To cross-reference Holland Codes with various occupations

A

D

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12
Q

The COPSystem includes all of the following assessment instruments EXCEPT:
a. the Career Survey of Performance and Salary Indices.
b. the Career Occupational Preference System Interest Inventory.
c. the Career Ability Placement Survey.
d. the Career Orientation Placement and Evaluation Survey.

A

A

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13
Q

INTEREST INVENTORIES
Which of the following is true about the COPSystem?
a. It offers norms for a wide-range of individuals, thus making it versatile.
b. It offers a measure of intellectual abilities (intelligence), which can be useful for predicting success in college
or other technical fields.
c. In addition to an interest inventory, it offers a measurement of abilities and a measurement of values, all of
which can be used in the career counseling process.
d. It offers look-up indices that are useful for determining salaries, working conditions, and occupational outlook.
e. All of these are true.

A

C

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14
Q

INTEREST INVENTORIES
The COPSystem is known for which of the following?
a. Hexagon model of personality types
b. Eight occupational groups and six levels determined by parenting style
c. Eight career clusters primarily determined by an ability placement survey
d. Three dimensional cube containing 180 different career groups or clusters
e. None of these

A

C

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15
Q

INTEREST INVENTORIES
Which of the following is NOT true about the ONET?
a. It is a large online database available free to the public.
b. A section of O
NET allows for the posting of available jobs.
c. The content model has six domains, which are either work-oriented or job-oriented.
d. The O*NET systems offers free career exploration tools.

A

B

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16
Q

INTEREST INVENTORIES
Which of the following is true about the O*NET?
a. The content model describes eight domains across industry standards and OSHA requirements.
b. The career exploration tools can be downloaded for a small fee.
c. Forecasted job growth and job openings are available for each occupation.
d. Government agencies can post available job openings for free.

A

C

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17
Q

T/F Career assessments can occur at any point in life (most critical during transition points)

A

T

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18
Q

What are the 3 kinds of career and occupational assessments

A

Interest Inventories
Multiple Aptitude Tests
Special Aptitude Tests

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19
Q

Which of these is an example of an aptitude test?
A. A test assessing an individual’s aptitude to become a fighter pilot
B. A career test evaluating a person’s capability to work as an air traffic controller
C. An aptitude test given to high school students to determine which type of careers they might be good at
D. A computer programming test to determine how a job candidate might solve different hypothetical problems
E. A test designed to assess a person’s physical abilities needed for a particular job such as a police officer or firefighter
F. all

A

F

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20
Q

Aptitude tests measure
A. Interests
B. What one is capable of learning
C. Cognitive abilities
D. Personality type

A

B. what one is capable of learning

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21
Q

This type of testing uses the following types of assessment:
Intellectual and cognitive functioning
Cognitive ability
Special Aptitude tests
Multiple Aptitude tests

A

Aptitude Tests

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22
Q

___ aptitude tests measure ONE aspect of ability
___ aptitude tests measure many aspects of ability

A

Special
Multiple

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23
Q

INTEREST INVENTORIES
One of the most common interest inventories developed in 1927 that uses 5 different types of interpretive scales/ indexes in the following areas
- General occupational themes
- Basic interest scales
- Occupational scales
- Personal style scales
- Response summary

A

Strong Interest Inventory (SII)

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24
Q

INTEREST INVENTORIES
This model of personality types includes the following types
- realistic
- investigative
- artistic
- social
- enterprising
- conventional

A

Holland’s Hexagon Model of Personality Types

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25
INTEREST INVENTORIES This test is developed by Holland based on Holland's hexagon model of personality types.
Self-directed Search (SDS)
26
T/F The SDS (Self-directed Search) can be self-administered, scored ,and interpreted.
T
27
Which not personality types included in Holland's Hexagon Model of Personality? - realistic - investigative - artistic - social - enterprising - conventional - none of the above
none of the above - all are key personality types in HHMP
28
Which is true about the Strong Interest Inventory A. It can be self-administered B. It can be administered individually or in groups C. It is based on only 1 scale/ index D. It uses numerical scales to determine interest
B. (uses a Likert scale)
29
INTEREST INVENTORIES The Career Occupational Preference System Interest Inventory (COPS) is focused on the following except: A. Career Occupational Preference System B. Special aptitudes C. Career Ability Placement Survey D. Career Orientation Placement and Evaluation Survey
B
30
MULTIPLE APTITUDE TESTING Multiple aptitude tests are often developed with which statistical technique to determine patterns and calculate which variables have high degree of commonality (construct validity): A. Standard Deviation B. Z- scores C. Factor Analysis
C
31
The following are examples of which type of aptitude testing: ASVAB (Armed Services...) DAT (Differential Aptitude Tests)
Multiple aptitude testing
32
The following are examples of which type of testing: Clerical Aptitude Tests Mechanical Aptitude Tests Artistic Aptitude Tests Musical Aptitude Tests
Special aptitude testing
33
Which is true about the role of helpers in career/ occupational assessment? A. These tests require special training to administer B. Only school counselors administer career/ occupational assessments C. Test administrators do not need formal training but should be knowledgeable and have basic training to properly administer and interpret
C
34
T/F A clinician should always include the client in a change of diagnoses
T
35
This disorder is often confused with Malingering with the key difference being internal gain such as validation, attention, or belonging).
Factitious Disorder
36
If a counselor is uncertain about a diagnosis, they should do all of the following except: a. continue to assess b. report client as "undiagnosed" c. report an "unspecified" disorder d. look for additional information from others e. consult
c
37
T/F Counselors should report the most severe diagnosis possible rather than a more mild disorder.
F. (adjustment disorders can be a good start)
38
T/F Not all mental health conditions have a differential diagnosis.
F - always consider other possibilities
39
Factors to consider when confirming a diagnosis A. Is it necessary? B. Is there a previous diagnosis? C. How will this affect the client? D. Insurance E. Is the behavior pathological? F. All of the above
F.
40
What is a key factor in considering the frequency of seeing a particular diagnosis?
Type/ location of practice
41
T/F It is important to consider the absence of a mental health diagnosis as a viable assessment.
T
42
Occurs when a person has independent multiple diagnosis
Comorbidity
43
T/F Related disorders should be part of a differential diagnosis
T
44
What is the difference between related disorders and comorbid disorders?
Related disorders share cross-cutting features/ symptoms. Comorbid disorders
45
T/F Counselors should consider a diagnosis that may explain symptoms with 1 disorder
T
46
T/F Most people diagnosed with at least 1 mental disorder at some point in time will have at least 1 other mental health condition.
T
47
T/F True comorbid diagnosis are those that cause the other.
F. comorbid diseases are independent/ do not cause the other
48
Determining comorbidity can be helpful to determine the_____
scope of treatment
49
T/F Comorbidity helps to understand the prognosis or impact on life
T
50
T/F Counselors should always consider the possibility of comorbid conditions when developing a diagnosis.
T
51
Symptoms that over-lap across multiple conditions are called
Cross-cutting symptoms
52
What is a key question when considering adding a condition to a client's diagnosis?
Is there a benefit? What is the benefit?
53
Main diagnosis of focus is called
Primary/ Principle diagnosis
54
T/F When symptoms cannot be adequately explained by a single disorder a counselor should consider multiple diagnosis?
T
55
T/F It is advised when considering multiple diagnosis to start with personality disorders?
F
56
T/F The order in which diagnosis are reported is not important.
F. It is very important
57
What conditions should be reported first in a diagnostic report (if present)?
medical and substance use/ medication
58
When reporting conditions, which model follows the "What" considerations of urgency, most present, specific?
Wellness model
59
The medical model typical follows what order in listing conditions in a diagnostic report?
chronological
60
According to the author, it is recommended to list conditions in the following order: most urgent, ____, or, specific If possible list conditions in ____ order
treatable, chronological
61
T/F In relationships of comorbid disorders, condition A and B have equal likeliness of independent existence.
F
62
T/F In comorbid disorders, if disorder A exists, it is likely that B exists
T
63
Name some easily overlooked issues or mental disorders
strengths HIV/AIDS Substance Use Disordered Eating Social/ Environmental factors No mental Illness Somatic symptom Disorder Schizophreniform Intellectual disability
64
Examples of overused diagnosis include
Schizophrenia DID BPD
65
When substance use co-occurs with other mental illness, which should counselors treat first?
substance use
66
If substance use exists, counselors should/ should not also list co-occurring conditions in the diagnostic report.
Should not
67
T/F Once a diagnosis is developed or previously exists, counselors do not need to investigate further
F
68
What are the 3 components of the traditional approach to treatment prescription (DSM model)
Biopsychosocial
69
The biological realm of the biopsychosocial treatment consideration includes what type of data (examples)?
genetic heredity, physical development, childhood diseases, toxic factor of the environment, previous physical injury or illness
70
The psychological realm of the biopsychosocial treatment consideration includes what type of data (examples)?
cognition, emotions, behavior, communication, and interpersonal relations
71
The social realm of the biopsychosocial treatment consideration includes what type of data (examples)?
interactions with family, friends, institutions, cultural groups, level of support network
72
What is the main reason you might change a diagnosis?
more data becomes available
73
T/F It is important to consider than consequence of changing a diagnosis.
T
74
T/F Consultation/ supervision can be helpful/ recommended in developing complex diagnosis.
T
75
T/F If a counselor is not equipped to treat 1 or more of a comorbid diagnosis, they should develop a care team to ensure a full scope of treatment.
T
76
____-_____ diagnoses are especially likely when we use criteria that rest exclusively on symptoms
false-positive
77
T/F A patient's history often provides better guidance for diagnosis than the cross-sectional appearance of the MSE
T
78
T/F A patient's recent history is a less accurate indicator of diagnosis than older history.
F
79
T/F It is important to gather collateral history when possible. It is sometimes more accurate than he patient.
T
80
T/F Stress can influence how a client perceives their life's experience/ the precipitant of distress
T
81
T/F Subjective data is more important than objective data in the diagnostic process
F
82
T/F Occam's Razor tells counselors to prefer the diagnosis that provides the simplest explanation with your data
T
83
In the Horses and Zebras principle, _____ are more common than ______, meaning it is best to prefer the less/ more frequently encountered diagnosis, but not to discount the less/ more common options.
horses, zebras, more, less
84
Watch for ____ information such as affect that doesn't fit the content or symptoms that do not match the typical presentation or history of a disorder
contradictory (conflicting)/ incongurence