Assessment Flashcards

1
Q

Development of emotional or behavioural symptoms in response to an identifiable stressor(s) w/in 3 months of stress onset.Clinically significant: (1) marked distress out of proportion to severity/intensity of stressor. (2) Significant impairment in social, occupational, etc functioning.Once stressor or consequences stop, symptoms don’t persist more than 6+ months.

A

Adjustment Disorders (key)

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2
Q

Antisocial Personality Disorder (key)

A

Pervasive pattern of disregard for & violation of rights of others occurring since age 15 shown by 3+ of these: (1) failure to conform to social norms re: law breaking (2) Deceitfulness. Repeated lying, fake names, conning others. (3) Impulsivity, failure to plan (4) Irritability & aggressiveness. Fights/ assaults (5) Reckless disregard for safety of self & others (6) Consistent irresponsibility. Failure to sustain consistent work behaviour. (7) Lack of remorse.18+ years. Evidence of conduct disorder before age 15.

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3
Q

Conduct Disorder

A

Repetitive, persistent pattern of behaviour where others’ basic rights & major societal norms/rules are violated. 3+ of following over last year atleast 1 in past 6 months: (1) bullies, threatens, intimidates others (2) initiates physical fights (3) has used a weapon (4) Physically cruel to people (5) physically cruel to animals (6) has stolen while confronting a victim (7) Has forced someone into sexual activity (8) deliberately set fire to cause damage (9) Deliberately destroyed property (10) Broken into someone’s house/car, etc (11) Lies to obtain goods/favours/avoid obligations (12) Stolen nontrivial items w/o confronting victim (13) Stays out at night despite parental prohibitions before 13 yrs (14) Has run away from home overnight 2+ times (15) Often truant from school before 13 yrs. Disturbance in behaviour causes clinically significant impairment

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4
Q

Conduct Disorder / criteria

A

3 out of 15

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5
Q

Conduct Disorder Criteria Categories

A

Aggression to People and Animals. Destruction of Property. Deceitfulness or Theft. Serious Violations of Rules

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6
Q

Rumination Disorder

A

Repeated regurgitation of food over period of 1+ month. Regurgitated food may be re-chewed, re-swallowed, or spit out.Not attributable to medical condition, not part of another eating disorder, not part of another mental disorder.

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7
Q

Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder

A

Eating or feeding disturbance (lack of interest in food; avoiding based on sensory characteristics; concern about aversive consequences of eating) shown by persistent failure to meet appropriate nutritional and/or energy needs associated with 1+ of these: (1) significant weight loss (or failure to meet expected weight gain in children) (2) Significant nutritional deficiency (3) dependence on enteral feeding or oral nutrition supplements (4) Marked interference with psychosocial functioning. Not explained by lack of food available or culture. Not due to another eating disorder or mental disorder or medical condition.

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8
Q

Anorexia Nervosa

A

Restriction of energy intake relative to requirements leading to significantly low body weight in context of age, sex, developmental trajectory, physical health. Intense fear of gaining weight/becoming fat ; persistent behaviour that interferes w/ weight gain even at significantly low weight.Disturbance in the way in which one’s body weight or shape is experienced, undue influence of body weight or shape on self-evaluation, or persistent lack of recognition of seriousness of low body weight.Restricting type and Binge- eating/purging type

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9
Q

Restricting type of Anorexia Nervosa

A

This subtype describes presentations in which weight loss is accomplished primarily through dieting, fasting, and/or excessive exercise.

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10
Q

Binge-eating/Purging type of Anorexia Nervosa

A

During the last 3 months, the individual has engaged in recurrent episodes of binge eating or purging behaviour (i.e., self-induced vomiting, misuse of laxatives, diuretics, or enemas).

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11
Q

Bulimia Nervosa

A

Recurrent episodes of binge eating. Recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviours in order to prevent weight gainThe binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behaviours both occur, on average, at least once a week for 3 months.Self-evaluation is unduly influenced by body shape and weight. Disturbance doesn’t occur exclusively during episodes of AN.

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12
Q

Binge eating episode

A

(1) Eating, in a discrete period of time (e.g., w/in 2 hours) an amount of food that is definitely larger than what most individuals would eat in a similar period of time under similar circumstances(2) A sense of lack of control over eating during the episode (e.g., a feeling that one cannot stop eating or control what or how much one is eating)

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13
Q

Binge-Eating Disorder

A

Recurrent episodes of binge eating.The binge eating episodes are associated with 3+ of these: (1) eating much more rapidly than normal (2) Eating until feeling uncomfortably full (3) Eating large amounts of food when not feeling physically hungry (4) Eating alone because of feeling embarrassed by how much one is eating (5) Feeling disgusted with oneself, depressed, or very guilty afterward.Marked distress regarding binge eating is present.Binge eating occurs on average at least once a week for 3 months.Not associated with recurrent use of inappropriate compensatory behaviours as in BN and doesn’t just occur during AN or BN.

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14
Q

Generalised Anxiety Disorder

A

Excessive anxiety and worry, occurring more days than not for at least 6 months, about a number of events or activities.The worry is difficult to control .The anxiety and worry are associated with 3+ of these 6 (w/ at least some being present more days than not for past 6 months): (Note: Only 1 required for children)(1) Restlessness or feeling keyed up or on edge (2) Being easily fatigued (3) Difficulty concentrating or mind going blank (4) Irritability (5) Muscle tension (6) Sleep disturbance (difficulty falling/staying asleep, restlessness, unsatisfying sleep).The anxiety/worry or physical symptoms cause clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, etc functioning.

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15
Q

Generalised Anxiety Disorder Criteria: _ out of _.

A

3 or more out of 6 symptoms.

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16
Q

Social Anxiety Disorder (Social Phobia)

A

Marked fear or anxiety about 1+ social situations where exposed to possible scrutiny by others. (In kids, must be in peer settings, not just w/ adults). Individual fears they will act in a way/show anxiety symptoms that will be negatively evaluated. The social situations almost always provoke fear or anxiety. The social situations are avoided or endured with intense fear or anxiety. The fear/anx is out of proportion to actual threat. Fear/anx is persistent, typically lasting 6 months or more.It causes clinically significant impairment/distress.

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17
Q

Separation Anxiety Disorder

A

Developmentally inappropriate and excessive fear/anx concerning separation from attachment figures shown by 3+ of these: (1) recurrent excessive distress when anticipating/ experiencing separation from home or major attachment figures. (2) Persistent & excessive worry about losing major attachment figures or about possible harm to them. (3) Persistent & excessive worry about experiencing an untoward event that causes separation from a major attachment figure. (4) Persistent reluctance/refusal to go out, away from home b/c of fear of separation (5) Persistent & excessive fear of or reluctance about being alone or w/o major attachment figures at home or elsewhere. (6) Persistent reluctance/refusal to sleep away from home or to go to sleep w/o being near major attachment figure. (7) Repeated nightmares involving the theme of separation (8) Repeated complaints of physical symptoms.The fear/anx/avoidance is persistent, lasting 4+ weeks in kids/teens, and 6+ months in adults. The disturbance causes clinically significant distress/impairment.

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18
Q

Separation Anxiety Disorder Criteria: _ of the following _

A

3 of the following 8.

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19
Q

Major Depressive Disorder

A

Five + of these symptoms present during the same 2 week period and represent a change from previous functioning. At least 1 is either depressed mood or loss of interest/pleasure. (1) Depressed mood most of the day, nearly every day (NED). (2) Markedly diminished interest or pleasure in all, or almost all, activities most of the day NED. (3) Significant change in weight or appetite. (4) Insomnia or hypersomnia NED (5) Psychomotor agitation or retardation NED (6) Fatigue or loss of energy NED (7) Feelings of worthlessness or excessive or inappropriate guilt NED (8) Diminished ability to think or concentrate or indecisiveness NED (9) Recurrent thoughts of death, recurrent suicidal ideation w/o a specific plan, or an attempt or specific plan. The symptoms cause clinically significant distress or impairment

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20
Q

Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

A

Presence of obsessions, compulsions, or both.The obsessions or compulsions are time-consuming or cause clinically significant distress or impairment in functioning.The OC symptoms are not attributable to the physiological effects of a substance or another medical condition.

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21
Q

Obsessions

A

(1) Recurrent and persistent thoughts, urges, or images that are experienced, at some time during the disturbance, as intrusive and unwanted, and that in most individuals cause marked anxiety or distress (2) The individual attempts to ignore or suppress such thoughts, urges, or images, or to neutralise them with some other thought or action (i.e., by performing a compulsion)

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22
Q

Compulsions

A

(1) Repetitive behaviours that the individual feels driven to perform in response to an obsession or according to rules that must be applied rigidly. (2) The behaviours or mental acts are aimed at preventing or reducing anxiety or distress, or preventing some dreaded event or situation; however, these behaviours or mental acts are not connected in a realistic way with what they are designed to neutralise or prevent, or are clearly excessive.

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23
Q

PTSD (brief)

A

Exposure to a traumatic event coupled with intrusive recollections, avoidant behaviours, changes to thoughts and moods, and increased reactivity that last 1 month after the event.(Exposure to trauma. Intrusion symptoms. Avoidance symptoms. Negative alterations in cognitions/mood associated w/ the event. Alterations in arousal and reactivity associated w/ the event. 1+ month. Causes
impairment.

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24
Q

PTSD exposure to trauma criteria

A

(1) Directly experiencing the traumatic event (2) Witnessing, in person, the event(s) as it occurred to others (3) Learning that the traumatic event(s) occurred to a close family member or close friend. In cases of actual or threatened death of a family member or friend, the event(s) must have been violent or accidental. (4) Experiencing repeated or extreme exposure to aversive details of the traumatic event(s)

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25
Q

PTSD intrusion symptoms

A

(1) Recurrent, involuntary, and intrusive distressing memories of the traumatic event(s). (In children 6+, repetitive play may occur in which themes or aspects of the traumatic event(s) are expressed. (2) Recurrent distressing dreams in which the content and/or affect of the dream are related to the traumatic event(s). (In children, there may be frightening dreams w/o recognisable content) (3) Dissociative reactions in which the individual feels or acts as if the traumatic event(s) were recurring. (4) Intense or prolonged psychological distress at exposure to internal or external cues that symbolise or resemble an aspect of the traumatic event(s) (5) Marked physiological reactions to internal or external cues that symbolise or resemble an aspect of the traumatic event(s).

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26
Q

PTSD avoidance symptoms

A

Persistent avoidance of stimuli associated with the traumatic
event(s), beginning after the traumatic event(s) occurred, as evidenced by one or both of the following: (1) Avoidance of or efforts to avoid distressing memories, thoughts, or feelings about or closely associated with the traumatic event(s). (2) Avoidance of or efforts to avoid external reminders that arouse distressing memories, thoughts, or feelings about or closely associated with the traumatic event(s).

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27
Q

K10 bands

A

10-19 Likely to be well 20-24 Likely to have a mild mental disorder
25-29 Likely to have a moderate mental disorder
30-50 Likely to have a severe mental disorder or severe distress

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28
Q

K10 Scoring

A
1-5 (Total 10-50) 
1= None of the time
2= A little of the time
3= Some of the time
4= Most of the time
5= All of the time
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29
Q

What is the k10?

A

A ten-item measure of psychological distress

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30
Q
  1. What is a common purpose of the DASS?

2. Is the DASS a clinical scale?

A
  1. To monitor the progress of therapy

2. No. While severity ranges are given, the DASS is not diagnostic, and does not replace a clinical interview

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31
Q
  1. What are the domains of depression in the DASS?

2. DASS 21 Depression bands

A
  1. Dysphoria, hopelessness, devaluation of life, self-deprecation, lack of involvement, anhedonia, and inertia
2. 
0-4 Normal 
5-6 Mild
7-10 Moderate
11-13 Severe
14+ Extremely Severe
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32
Q
  1. What domains of anxiety are measured in the DASS?

2. DASS 21 Anxiety bands

A
  1. Autonomic arousal, muscular effects, situational anxiety and the subjective experience of anxiety
0-3 Normal
4-5 Mild
6-7 Moderate
8-9 Severe
10+ Extremely Severe
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33
Q

What domains of stress does the DASS measure?

DASS 21 Stress bands

A

Being able to wind down, nervous arousal, being easily upset/agitated, irritability or over-reactivity, and impatience

0-7 Normal
8-9 Mild
10-12 Moderate
13-16 Severe
17+ Extremely Severe
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34
Q

Q1. What is the SDQ?

Q2. What is the purpose of the SDQ?

Q.3 What versions of the SDQ are there?

A

Q1. A brief screening questionnaire assessing emotional and behavioural problems in children and adolescents

Q2. To identify people who should be referred for further assessments and to evaluate treatment outcomes

Q3. Teacher and parent version for 4-17 years, parent and teacher version for 2-4 years, and a self-report version for young people aged 11-17

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35
Q

What scales does the SDQ measure?

A

Conduct problems, hyperactivity, emotional problems, peer-problems, pro-social behaviour, Total Difficulties (sum of 4 problem scales - all scales bar prosocial behaviour)

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36
Q

What does the impact supplement assess?

Q2. What additions do the follow-up SDQ make

A

Whether respondents think that a young person has a problem in regard to chonicity, distress, social impairment, and burden to others

Q2. They ask about whether the intervention has reduced problems, and whether it has helped in other ways

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37
Q

Tests with Australian norms

A

WISC-V, DASS, K10 (except ATSI), SDQ, WPPSI ,WJIII COG, WIAT, 16PF, SDSSII (careful, uses US job info)

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38
Q

For what ages is the WPPSI-IV appropriate?

A

children aged 2 years, 6 months to 7 years, 7 months

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39
Q

How long does it take to administer the WPPSI

A

Depends on age group - 24 minutes for 2-year-olds and 32 minutes for 5-year-olds.

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40
Q

Bands

A

extremely low score < 69

very superior score > 130

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41
Q

Q1. What is the Stanford Binet

Q.2 What are the indices in the Stanford Binet?

A

Q1. The SB5 is a wide range, individually administered test of intelligence for clients ages 2 years to 85 years.

Q2. Fluid Reasoning, Knowledge, Quantitative Reasoning, Visual-Spatial Processing, and Working Memory (both nonverbal and verbal subtests in each)

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42
Q

Q1. What indicates giftedness on the Stanford Binet?

Q2. What indicates mild impairment or intellectual disability on the Stanford Binet?

A

Q1. A score > 130

Q2. A score of < 69

43
Q

What ages can be tested with teh Kaufman Adolescent and Adult Intelligence Test (KAIT)

A

Individuals aged between 11 and 85+

44
Q

What kinds of intelligence does the Kaufman Adolescent and Adult Intelligence Test measure?

A

Fluid and Crystallised

45
Q

What are the crystallised subtests?

A

Auditory comprehension, definitions and double meanings

46
Q

What components are in the fluid intelligence indices?

A

Logical steps, Mystery codes, and Rebus learning

47
Q

What does the extended KAIT battery include?

A

Two subtests of delayed memory (Rebus delayed recall and Auditory delayed recall) and two alternate subtests (memory for famous faces and block design)

48
Q

What is the Wechsler Abbreviated Scale of Intelligence (WASI)

A

A brief measure of general cognitive ability, suitable for individuals aged 6-91.

49
Q

What is the purpose of the WASI?

A

For research purposes, and in clinical and educational settings where the full WAIS is unnecessary. Can also be used for retest purposes.

50
Q

What tests are in the WASI?

A

Vocab and similarities (VCI), Block Design and Matrix Reasoning (PRI) and FSIQ

51
Q

Can the WASI be used for diagnosis or for educational support?

A

No

52
Q

What is the WAIS-IV?

A

An intelligence test designed to be used with individuals aged 16- 90 years, 11 months.

53
Q

Q1. What are the main indices of the WAIS IV?

A

The Full-Scale IQ, Verbal Comprehension, Perceptual Reasoning, Working Memory, and Processing Speed

54
Q

What indices make up the GAI? (WAIS)

A

General Ability Index - Verbal comprehension and perceptual reasoning

55
Q

What are the core subtests in the VCI (WAIS)

A

Similarities, vocabulary and information

56
Q

What are the core subtests in the Perceptual Reasoning Index?

A

Block design, Matrix Reasoning and Visual Puzzles

57
Q

What are the core subtests in the Processing Speed Index? (WAIS)

A

Symbol search and coding

58
Q

What are the core subtests on the FSIQ (WAIS)

A

Similarities, Vocabulary, Information, Block Design, Matrix Reasoning, Visual Puzzles, Digit Span, Arithmetic, Symbol Search and Coding

59
Q

Q1. What are the indices in the WISC V?

Q2. What are the core subtests on the WISC-V?

A

Q1. Verbal Comprehension, Visual Spatial, Fluid Reasoning, Working Memory, Processing Speed and FSIQ

Q2. Similarities, Vocabulary, Block Design, Matrix Reasoning, Figure Weights, Digit Span, Coding.

60
Q

What are the qualitative ranges in the WISC V?

A

Extremely Low (<69), very low (70-79), Low-Average (80-89), Average (90-109), High Average (110-119), Very High (120-129), and Extremely High (>130)

61
Q

What is the PAI?

A

A multi-scale self-report test of personality for adults. It is designed to provide information for clinical diagnosis, treatment planning, and screening for psychopathology.

62
Q

What does the inconsistency scale measure?

A

The consistency of answers throughout the inventory

63
Q

What does the infrequency scale measure?

A

Careless or random responding

64
Q

What do the negative and positive impression scales measure?

A

exaggerated negative symptoms and the presentation of favourable impressions respectively

65
Q

What does the somatic complaints scale measure?

A

Health complaints associated with somatisation

66
Q

What does the anxiety scale measure?

A

Symptoms and signs of anxiety

67
Q

What does the Anxiety-Related Disorders scale measure?

A

Symptoms of specific anxiety disorders

68
Q

What does the Depression scale measure

A

Symptoms of depressive disorders

69
Q

What does the MAN scale measure?

A

Mania and hypomania

70
Q

What does the PAR scale measure?

A

paranoid and personality disorders

71
Q

What does the SCZ scale measure?

A

Symptoms of a schizophrenic episode

72
Q

What does the BOR scale measure?

A

Features of borderline personality (impulsivity, unstable relationships, affective instability and lability)

73
Q

What does the ANT scale measure

A

Illegal acts, authority problems, a lack of empathy and excitement-seeking

74
Q

What do the DRG and ALC scales measure

A

The problematic consequences of alcohol and drug use and some features of dependence

75
Q

What are the scales which measure factors that might interfere with treatment?

A

Aggression (AGG) (anger and hostility), Suicidal Ideation (SUI), Recent Stressors (STR), Nonsupport (NON) (perceived social support), and Treatment Rejection (RXR) (motivation for change), Treatment process index (amenability for therapy)

76
Q

What risk indices can be obtained from the PAI

A

A suicide Potential Index, and a Violence Potential Index

77
Q

What does the DOM scale measure?

A

Agressiveness/passivity

78
Q

What does the WRM scale measure?

A

An individual’s interest in supportive and empathic interpersonal relationships

79
Q

What do the PAI validity scales measure?

A

The respondent’s approach to the test

80
Q

What do the PAI clinical scales measure?

A

Psychiatric diagnostic categories

81
Q

What do the treatment consideration scales in the PAI measure?

A

Factors that relate to the treatment of clinical disorders that are not captured by diagnosis alone

82
Q

What do the Interpersonal Scales in the PAI measure?

A

The dimensions of personality functioning

83
Q

What do the critical item lists measure

A

Delusions, hallucinations, violence and the potential for self-harm

84
Q

What is the age of the eldest clients who can be assessed using the WISC-V?

A

16 years and 11 months

85
Q

What are the age ranges for the different test structures in the WPPSI-IV?

A

2:6 to 3:11 and 4:0 to 7:7

86
Q

What are the supplementary subtests in the WISC-V?

A

Information, Comprehension, Visual Puzzles, Picture Concepts, Arithmetic, Picture Span, Letter Number Sequencing, Symbol Search, Cancellation.

87
Q

What are the supplementary subtests in the WAIS-IV?

A

Comprehension, Figure Weights, Picture Completion, Letter Number Sequencing, Cancellation

88
Q

In what section of the DSM-V would you find Adjustment

Disorder?

A

Trauma and Stressor Related Disorders

89
Q

In Adjustment Disorder, the development of emotional or behavioural symptoms in response to an identifiable stressor(s) occurs withing how many months of the onset of the stressor(s)?

A

3 months

90
Q

In Adjustment Disorder, Criteria D stipulates that the symptoms do not represent normal bereavement. True or False?

A

True

91
Q

What is the prevalence of Adjustment Disorder in outpatient settings?

a) 5-20%
b) 25-50%
c) 15-20%
d) 2-5%

A

a. 5-20%

92
Q

Paranoid Personality Disorder, Schizoid Personality Disorder, and Schizotypal Personality Disorder all belong to which cluster?

a) Cluster A
b) Cluster B
c) Cluster C

A

a) Cluster A

93
Q

Antisocial Personality Disorder, Borderline Personality Disorder, Histrionic Personality Disorder, and Narcissistic Personality Disorder all belong to which cluster?

a) Cluster A
b) Cluster B
c) Cluster C

A

b) Cluster B

94
Q

Avoidant Personality Disorder, Dependent Personality Disorder, and Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder all belong to which cluster?

a) Cluster A
b) Cluster B
c) Cluster C

A

c) Cluster C

95
Q

Antisocial Personality Disorder can be described as a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others, occurring since what age?

a) 15 years
b) 18 years
c) 13 years
d) 16 years
e) 12 years

A

a) 15 years

96
Q

How old must a person be to consider for a diagnosis of
Antisocial Personality Disorder?

a) 18 years
b) 16 years
c) 21 years
d) 15 years
e) 12 years

A

a) 18 years

97
Q

What is the prevalence rate of Antisocial Personality Disorder?

a) 0.2-3.3%
b) 1-5%
c) 5-10%
d) 4-6%

A

a) 0.2-3.3%

98
Q

For ADHD, symptoms of innatention must have persisted for how many months?

a) 3 months
b) 1 month
c) 12 months
d) 6 months

A

d) 6 months

99
Q
For ADHD, symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity must have persisted for at least how many months
?
a) 3 months
b) 1 month 
c) 12 months
d) 6 months
A

d) 6 months

100
Q

To make a diagnosis of ADHD, several inattentive or hyperactive-impulsive symptoms were present prior to what age?

a) 5
b) 18
c) 15
d) 16
e) 12

A

e) 12

101
Q

What is the prevalence rate of ADHD in children?

a) 2.5%
b) 5%
c) 10%
d) 12%

A

b) 5%

102
Q

What is the prevalence rate of ADHD in Adults?

a) 2.5%
b) 5%
c) 10%
d) 12%
e) ADHD cannot be diagnosed in adulthood

A

a) 2.5%

103
Q

How many diagnostic criteria are present under Autism Spectrum Disorder in the DSM-V?

a) 5
b) 3
c) 2
d) 6

A

a) 5

104
Q
  1. In Autism Spectrum Disorder, which of the following best describes Criteria A?

a) Symptoms cause clinically significant impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of current functioning
b) Restricted, repetitive patterns of behaviour, interests, or activities
c) Persistent deficits in social communication and social interaction across multiple contexts
d) Symptoms must be present in the early developmental period (but may not become fully manifest until social demands exceed limited capacities, or may be masked by learned strategies later in life)
e) These disturbances are not better explained by intellectual disability, or global developmental delay. Intellectual disability and autism frequently co-occur; to make comorbid diagnoses of autism and intellectual disability, social communication should be below that expected for general developmental level.

A

c) Persistent deficits in social communication and social interaction across multiple contexts