Arsh's Deck (Rahul can't use this) - I can do whatever I want. - You a bitch Flashcards

1
Q

What are the types of cells in the following:

  • Proximal convoluted tubule
  • Descending limb of loop of Henle
  • Ascending limb of loop of Henle
  • Distal convoluted & collecting ducts
A
  • Proximal convoluted tubule
    • simple cuboidal with brush border microvilli
  • Descending limb of loop of Henle
    • simple squamous
  • Ascending limb of loop of Henle
    • simple cuboidal to columnar
    • forms juxtaglomerular apparatus where makes contact with afferent arteriole
      • Macula densa
  • Distal convoluted & collecting ducts
    • simple cuboidal to columnar, principal & intercalated cells which have microvilli
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3
Q

How can a baby get club foot from renal agenesis?

A
  • Renal agenesis → lack of urine → reduction in amniotic fluid → compression of limbs → club foot
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4
Q

What disease is shown?

A

Multicystic renal dysplasia

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5
Q

What is multicystic renal dysplasia and what two things is characterized by?

A
  • Multicystic renal dysplasia
    • Congenital malformation characterized by cysts and abnormal tissue resulting in malformed kidney and obstruction of lower urinary tract
      • Characterized by heterologous cartilage and swirling stroma around cyst
    • Can be either unilateral or bilateral (b/c congenital and not genetic)
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7
Q

For adult polycystic kidney disease:

  • What kind of hereditary trend does the mutation have?
  • What is the mutation in?
  • What is the general epidemiolgy?
  • Is it unilateral or bilateral?
A
  • Adult PCK
    • Autosomal dominant
    • Mutation: PKD1 or PKD2 (less often) – both encode polycystin
      • Membrane proteins that sense luminal flow
    • Mutations result in dysregulation in tissue growth and cyst formation
    • Epidemiology: common
    • Always bilateral because hereditary
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8
Q

For adult polycystic kidney disease:

  • What is the general prognosis?
  • Complications?
  • Pathology?
A
  • Adult PCK
    • Prognosis: progressive disease leading to significant loss of renal function in late adulthood
    • Complications: asymptomatic hepatic cysts, cerebral aneurysms, common cause of death due to cardiac complication of chronic renal failure
    • Pathology: increased size of kidney with flattened cuboidal epithelium lining cysts
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9
Q

What disease is this?

A
  • Childhood PCK
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10
Q

Name the diseases, but ignore B.

A

Summary

  1. Multicystic dysplasia
  2. Ignore this one
  3. Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
  4. Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
  5. Nephronophthisis-medullary cystic disease complex
  6. Medullary sponge kidney
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11
Q

What are the two compoennts of the metanephros and how do they work?

A
  • Ureteric bud (metanephric diverticulum)
    • Elongates from the nephric duct and invades the metanephrogenic blastema
    • Eventually produces the full kidney
  • Metanephrogenic blastema (metanephric mesenchyme)
    • Once connected to uretic bud, the blastemal cells undergo rapid differentiation to form ampulla
    • Ampulla development initiates uretic bud to branch and divide to start the formation of nephrons
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12
Q

What is the process for the development of the nephron?

A
  1. Mesenchymal cells cluster around the ampulla and develop lumens → forms vesicles
  2. Vesicles then elongate to form and S-shaped tubule
    1. One end of the tubule connects to the nephric duct
    2. Other end of the tubule becomes Bowman’s capsule and surrounds the glomerulus
  3. Collecting duct is formed from the uretic bud
  4. Distal and proximal convoluted tubules form from mesenchymal cells
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13
Q

For potter syndrome:

  • What gender is usually affected?
  • What are the two biggest effects and what can they cause?
  • What is the appearance of the baby?
A
  • Potter Syndrome
    • Usually affects males
    • Bilateral agenesis of kidneys – usually incompatible with life
    • Oligohydraminos: insufficient amniotic fluid (made up of urine from fetus)
      • Fetus is compressed (limb abnormalities; i.e. club feet)
      • Pulmonary hypoplasia: cannot extract amino acids from amniotic fluid
    • Stillborn of severe respiratory insufficiency after birth
    • Facial appearance:
      • Prominent fold and skin crease beneath each eye (Asian eyes)
      • Blunted nose
      • Depression between lower lip and chin
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14
Q

For childhood polycystic kidney disease:

  • What kind of hereditary trend does the mutation have?
  • What is the mutation in?
  • What is the general epidemiolgy?
  • Is it unilateral or bilateral?
A
  • Childhood PCK
    • Autosomal recessive
    • Mutations: PKHD1 – encodes fibrocystin expressed in kidney and liver
      • Cell differentiation in liver/kidney ducts
    • Epidemiology: children, rare
    • Always bilateral because hereditary
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15
Q

Explian this…

threshold, Tm, splay

A
  • Normal: all glucose is reabsorbed in the PCT
  • Transport maximum (Tm): maximal amount of material that can be reabsorbed per unit time
  • Threshold: plasma concentration at which glucose first appears in urine
  • Splay: appearance of glucose in urine before Tm is reached because some nephrons may reach their individual Tm early stopping reabsorption
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16
Q

For childhood polycystic kidney disease:

  • Prognosis?
  • Complications?
  • Pathology?
A
  • Childhood PCK
    • Prognosis: very unlikely to survive infancy
    • Complications: portal hypotension caused by congenital hepatic fibrosis
    • Pathology: cysts perpendicular to kidney surface
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22
Q

How do you measure Fractional excretion?

A
  • Fractional Excretion (FEx) = excreted/filtered = (Ux x V)/ (GFR x Px)
    • FENA < 1%; FENA >> 1%;
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23
Q

For proximal RTA, what is the general pathophysiology of what occurs?

A
  • Pathophysiology: defect in proximal HCO3- reabsorption effectively lowering the HCO3- absorption threshold
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24
Q

What are the possible mechanisms (4) for the pathophysiology of proximal RTA (defect in proximal HCO3- reabsorption effectively lowering the HCO3- absorption threshold)?

A
  • Blocked carbonic anhydrase – blocks formation for CO2 from HCO3- not allowing HCO3- to be reabsorbed
  • Blocked luminal Na-H exchanger – H+ is not secreted resulting in HCO3- to remain in the lumen
  • Blocked basolateral Na-K-ATPase – cannot produce gradient that drives the Na-H pump
  • Blocked basolateral Na-HCO3- cotransporter - HCO3- cannot be reabsorbed into the interstitium
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25
Q

What are some conditions that can cause a proximal RTA?

A
  • Etiologies
    • Idiopathic
    • Genetic
      • Fanconi syndrome, glycogens storage disorders (Fabry’s)
    • Acquired
      • Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, multiple myeloma. Amyloidosis
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26
Q

What are the three possible mechanisms of distal RTA? What are some etiologies of each and how do they each work?

A
  • Possible defects
    • Diminished luminal H-ATPase number or activity
      • Not secreting H+ at intercalated cells
      • H+-K exchanger will not reabsorb K due to excess potassium → hypokalemia
      • Etiology: Sjogren’s: absent H-ATPase
    • Increased luminal permeability
      • Permeable increases → electrochemical gradients fail → decreased H+ secretion
      • Results hypokalemia
      • Etiology: Amphotericin B increases permeability
    • Diminished Na+ reabsorption at principal cells
      • Decreased Na+ reabsorption in principal cells → decreases H+ secretion in intercalated cells
      • Results in hyperkalemia
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27
Q

What is the general pathophysiology of distal hyperkalemic RTA?

A
  • Pathophysiology: aldosterone deficiency → lack of K excretion → hyperkalemia
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28
Q

What are the general etiologies of distal hyperkalemic RTA?

A
  • Etiologies
    • Adrenal insufficiency
    • Diabetic nephropathy
    • Potassium sparing diuretics
    • Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
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29
Q

Fill what RTAs for each one.

A

“1” Distal

“2” Proximal

“4” Distal hyperkalemic

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31
Q

List chloride responsive alklalosis etiologies and what it generally has to do with.

A
  • Chloride responsive alkalosis – has to do with volume depletion
    • GI losses: vomiting, nasogastric aspiration – H+ loss
    • Renal losses
      • Diuretics
      • Nonabsorbable anions (e.g. carbenicillin)
      • Post hypercapnia
      • Recovery from lactic and ketoacidosis (overshoot)
      • K+ deficiency
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32
Q

List chloride resistant alklalosis etiologies and what it generally has to do with.

A
  • Chloride-resistant alkalosis – has to do with mineralocorticoid excess not volume depletion
    • Primary aldosteronism
    • Cushing syndrome (pituitary, adrenal adenoma, ectopic)
    • Renal artery stenosis
    • CKD + alkali
    • Adrenal enzyme defects

    • Apparent mineralocorticoid excess
    • Liddle, Bartter, Gitelman syndromes
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33
For Minimal change disease: * Characteristics/Pathophys * Epidemiology * Labs
* Characteristics: * Foot processes become flat and disappear → disrupted filtering * Process of disappearing is cytokine mediated * Epidemiology: * Children ages 2-6 y/o – most common cause of NS * Labs: * Urinalysis: albumin present, lack of blood, oval fat bodies present, protein present
34
What is this disease?
Minimal change disease
35
For minimal change disease: * Imaging/Histology * Clinical features seen * Treatment
* Imaging/Histology: * Normal H&E Stain * On electron microscopy, effacement (flattening) of podocytes can be seen * Clinical features * Can be triggered by recent infection/immunization * In adults, may be associated with Hodgkins or NSAID use * Despite massive albuminuria, renal function remains good w/o HTN and hematuria * Treatment: Corticosterioids → rapid improvement in children
37
What disease is this?
FSGS
38
For focal segmental glomerulosclerosis: * Characteristics * Epidemiology * Labs * Clinical Features
* Characteristics * Hyalinosis and sclerosis * Primary/idiopathic: most likely cytokine involvement * Secondary: HIV, heroin abuse, obesity, HTN * Epidemiology * Children and adolescents * Labs * Can have few RBCs in urine (no RBC casts), proteinuria * Clinical features * Higher incidence of hematuria, reduced GFR, and HTN * Worse prognosis than minimal change disease
39
For focal segmental glomerulosclerosis: * Imaging/histology * Treatment
* Imaging/histology * Histology * Collapse of portion of tuft → not many open capillary loops → sclerosis (left arrow) * Accumulation of eosinophilic material → form nodular pink regions → hyalinosis (right arrow) * Immunofluorescence * Non-specific trapping of IgM and C3 in sclerotic segments * Electron microscopy * Effacement of foot processes * Treatment * May not response to steroid therapy * Since the disease decreases renal function/mass, increased workload at glomerulus causes damage * Therefore, RAAS drugs can be used to decrease workload
40
What disease?
* **Membranous nephropathy**
42
For **Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis**: * Characteristics/pathophys * Epidemiology * Labs
* Characteristics * Forms: * Antigen-antibody mediated → activation of classic complement pathway * See immunoglobulins and complement proteins on immunofluorescence * Complement mediated → C3NF causes persistent activation of alternate complement pathway * Only see complement protein on immunofluorescence * A subtype: dense deposit disease, notable for ribbon-like transformation of GBM * Epidemiology * Small percentages of cases of NS in children and adults * Labs * Urine: proteinuria * Elevated creatinine * Decreasing serum C3 and C3NF
43
What disease is this?
* **Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis**
44
What disease is this?
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
45
For membranous nephropathy: * imaging/histology * Clinical features * Treatment
* Imaging/histology * Electron microscopy * Spikes and domes (deposits) of new GBM material → thickening of GBM * Histology * Thickened basement membrane * Immunofluoroscence: granular (IgG deposits) * Clinical features * Primary: idiopathic * Secondary: infection, lupus, diabetes, inorganic salts, drugs (NSAIDS), malignancies * Treatment * Associated with spontaneous remission * However, if gone untreated, 1/3 patients develop ESRD
46
What disease:
Glomerular nephropathy
48
For membranous nephropathy: * Characteristics/pathophys * Epidemiology * Labs
* Characteristics * Phospholipase A2 receptor (PLA2R) highly expressed on podocytes → deposit at subepithelial border → causes thickening of the GBM * This is planted antigen-circulating antibody mediated pathophysiology * Epidemiology * Adults * Labs * Albuminuria, no RBCs in urine, proteinuria
49
For **Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis**: * Imaging/Histology: * Clinical features
* Imaging/histology * Histology: * H&E stain: Large subendothelial deposits seen as thick pink wire loops (arrows) * Silver stain: tram-track appearance of GBM around each capillaries * Electron microscopy * Deposits at the subendothelial area * Immunofluorescence * Granular: Circulating immune complexes that deposit in subendothlium * Clinical features * Systemic diseases with MPGN pattern: Lupus, Hepatitis B and C * Some have only hematuria or only proteinuria, but some present with a combined nephrotic-nephritic picture
52
For diabetic glomerulopathy: * Pathophys * Clinical * Risk factors * Histology
* Most common cause of ESRD * Pathophysiology: glycosylation of circulating and intrarenal proteins * Clinical: HTN and renal hyperfiltration * Risk Factors: FHx, Diabetes, HTN, tobacco use * Histology: GBM thickening, Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules (indicated by \*)
54
For renal amyloidosis: * What is the pathophys * Histology
* Pathophysiology: abnormal folding of proteins → deposits in renal tissues as fibrils * Histology: * Apple green birefringence on Congo-Red Staining * Electron microscopy: randomly oriented fibrils
55
Rapidly progressive/crescentic Glomerulonephritis
56
IgA nephropathy
57
Acute proliferative glomerulonephritis
58
Acute post-infectious glomerulonephritis
59
Acute proliferative glomerulonephritis labs, clinical, imaging/histology,
* Labs * Hematuria (rare RBC casts), proteinuria, azotemia (elevated BUN) * Clinical * Oliguria, mild to moderate HTN * Imaging/Histology * Histology * Glomerular inflammation * Proliferation of endothelial/mesothelial cells à causes compression of capillary loops * Global proliferation (aka involves all lobules of the glomerulus) * Immunofluorescence * Granular IgG and C3 deposits
60
Acute post-infectious glomerulonephritis clinical, epidemology, imaging/histology, treatment
* Clinical * Occurs 1-2 weeks after strep throat infection * Epidemiology * Common in children ages 6-10 y/o * Imaging/Histology * Electron microscopy: Very large (“like fucking huge” – Arsh) subepithelial deposits * Treatment * 95% of children recover spontaneously * Conservative management otherwise
61
IgA nephropathy clinical, epidemiology
* Clinical * Very common cause of gross and microscopic hematuria * Hematuria may occur within a day or two of respiratory, GI, or urinary infection * Can be a result of: Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP), a systemic disease characterized by a purpuric skin rash, arthritis, abdominal pain and nephritis. * Epidemiology * Most common in adolescent or young adult males
62
IgA nephropathy lab, imaging/histology
* Lab * Proteinuria, RBC, No cellular casts, minor proteinuria * Normal creatinine and BUN * Histology/Imaging * H&E stain: Mesangial cell proliferation * Immunofluorescence/ Electron microscopy * IgA in mesangial stalks
63
Rapidly progressive/crescentic Glomerulonephritis histology/imaging, labs, clinical
* Histology/Imaging: * Will see crescent formation of cells à * Labs: * Urine: Albuminuria, hematoruira, numerous RBCs/WBCs, granular casts, renal tubular epithelial cells, RBC casts noted * Anti-GBM positive * Clinical * Rapid progressive decline in renal function * Poor prognosis
64
Rapidly progressive/crescentic Glomerulonephritis describe type 1, 2, 3 talk about immunoflourence
* Type I (anti-GBM disease, in situ IC formation) * Associated with Good Pasture syndrome * Can cause pulmonary hemorrhage due to antibodies to renal and alveolar basement membranes * Immunofluorescence: Anti-GBM linear * Type II (deposition of circulating ICs) * Associated with Post-infectious GN and lupus * Immunofluorescence: immune complex - granular * Type III (pauci immune disease) * Most are ANCA associated: granulomatosis with polyangitis * Immunofluorescence: NONE.
65
Chronic glomerulonephritis
END RESULT OF ALL PROGRESSIVE GLOMERULAR DISEASE Associated with scarring and sclerosis and HTN
70
acute interstitial nephritis descritpion, etiology, pe/symptoms
* Description: acute renal failure resulting from immune-mediated tubulointersitital injury, often initiated by medications, and other causes (Sjogren’s and sarcoidosis) * Etiology * Drugs: penicillin, sulfa drugs * Physical Exam/Symptoms: classical triad of rash, peripheral eosinophilia, and renal failure
71
acute interstitial nephritis labs, epidemiology, histology, diagnosis, tx
* Labs: * Urine: positive WBC (sterile pyuria), negative culture, eosinophils * Epidemiology * Commonly seen in patients * Histology: * Eosinophilia with interstitial edema * Diagnosis * Biopsy * Treatment * Stop drugs or start patient on high-dose steroids
72
Distinguish the pathology of acute interstitial nephritis and NSAID induced interstitial nephritis
* NSAID-related interstitial nephritis is a subset of acute interstitial nephritis * Histology * Will see epithelioid granulomas rather than diffuse eosinophils
73
Analgesic Nephropathy description/ pathology
* Description: chronic kidney disease caused by excessive ingestion of certain analgesics * Have to ingest something like 2 FUCKING KGs of Aspirin over three years * Pathology: shrinkage of the papilla (location where collecting ducts convene)
74
tumor lysis syndrome pathogenisis, types, complications, diagnosis/labs
* Pathogenesis: tumor lyses à release of uric acid, potassium, and phosphorus * Types: * Acute: due to Tumor Lysis Syndrome * Chronic: due to gout * Complications/Histology * Uric acids deposits and damages tubules à interstitial inflammation and fibrosis à uric acid nephropathy * Diagnosis/Labs * Cairo-Bishop Criteria * Uric Acid (\>8 mg/dL), Potassium (\>6 mEq/L), Phosphorus (\>4.5 mg/dL), Calcium (\<7 mg/dL)
75
explain RCC staging and treatment for each
* Stage I * Small (\<7 cm) and restricted to the kidney * Therapy: nephrectomy and active surveillance * Stage II * Large (\>7 cm) but still restricted to kidney * Therapy: nephrectomy, active surveillance, +/- sunitinib * Stage III * Big or small, escape from local environment, but not Gerota’s fascia (fascia around the kidneys); +/- nodal involvement * Therapy: nephrectomy, active surveillance, +/- sunitinib * Stage IV * Invasion of tissues beyond Gerota’s fascia; +/- nodes; +/- metastasis * Therapy: nephrectomy + resection of metastases, active surveillance, * Clear cell – nivolumab and cabozantinib (preferred) * Non-Clear cells – sunitinib (preferred)
76
explaijn the use of chemo in RCC
Chemotherapy RCC is generally resistant to chemo because of a high expression of P-glycoprotein MDR pumps – pumps chemo drugs out of tumor cells
77
* In the PCT, * How much Ca+ is reabsorbed and by what method? * What is the MOA? * What occurs in volume depletion with Ca?
* PCT * 60-70% reabsorbed via passive paracellular transport * MOA: Calcium follow Na and water reabsorption * Volume depletion: ATII and Aldo released → sodium reabsorbed → calcium reabsorbed
78
In the ALOH, * How much Ca+ is reabsorbed and by what method? * What is the MOA? * What occurs in loop diuretics with Ca?
* ALOH * 20% reabsorbed via passive paracellular transport * MOA: Positive lumen and negative blood generated by NKCC2 → calcium reabsorption * High Ca activates CaSR which decreases permeability of the paracellular route * Loop diuretic: blocks NKCC2 → destroys gradient → calcium excreted
79
In DCT * How much Ca+ is reabsorbed and by what method? What is the MOA? What occurs in thiazide diuretics with Ca?
* DCT * 10% reabsorbed via active transport * MOA: Calcium reabsorbed via a TRPV5 channel * Thiazide: By blocking Na-Cl → lowering intracellular Na concentration → increased activity of basolateral Na-Ca antiporter → increased Ca reabsorption
80
Where is phosphorus transported? How much is reabsorbed and by what mechanism?
* Phosphorus * PCT * 85% reabsorbed via active transport * MOA: Phosphorus reabsorbed via luminal Na-PO4 symporter
81
What diseases can cause increased PTH? 3 diseases
* Increased PTH * Primary Hyperparathyroidism * Caused by adenoma or hyperplasia of parathyroid * Can be asymptomatic * Tertiary Hyperparathyroidism * Lithium * Decreases the threshold for release of PTH at low Ca
82
What diseases can cause increased bone resorption? 3 diseases
* Malignancy * Osteolytic metastasis to bone (most common in breast, lung, and multiple myeloma) * Production of PTH related peptide * Binds to PTH receptor * Resistant to negative feedback from CSR * Tumor production of Active Vitamin D * Immobilization * If bedridden, increased osteoclast activity * Hyperthyroidism
83
What disease states can cause increased GI absorption? 2 diseases
Milk-Alkali Syndrome and Increased Vit D
84
Milk-Alkali Syndrome * Etiology * MOA
* Milk-Alkali Syndrome * Etiology: Ingestion of base and calcium (i.e. TUMS) * MOA * ↑Ca → renal vasoconstriction → ↓GFR → ↓ filtered Ca * ↑Ca → activated CaSR in Loop of Henle → ↓Na absorption via NKCC2 → volume depletion → ↓GFR → ↓ filtered Ca * Alkalosis → activated CaSR in Loop of Henle * Alkalosis → activated TRPV5 → increased tubular reclamation of Ca * Alkalosis → ↓ionized calcium b/c ions bind to albumin→ ↓filtered Ca
85
What does increased Vit D do in the GI absorption of calcium and what is it common in?
* Increased Vit D * Common in granulomatous diseases (i.e sarcoidosis) and excessive supplement use
86
What two diseases or drugs increase renal absorption of calcium and what is their mechanism?
* Increased Renal absorption * Thiazide diuretics increase activation of the basolateral Ca-Na antiporter → increased Ca+ reabsorption through TRPV5 luminal channel * Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia * Autosomal dominant mutation in CaSR → cannot turn off NKCC2 → Ca keeps being reabsorbed along with Na
87
What are the neuro, cardio, renal, and GI are the symptoms
* Neuro: fatigue, coma, anxiety (NT release) * Cardio: short QT intervals (bradycardia/arrhythmias), HTN * Renal: kidney failure, kidney stones * GI: nausea, vomiting
88
How do you diagnose hypercalcemia?
* Diagnosis * Check PTH levels * If high Ca with high PTH → * +high urine calcium → primary hyperparathyroidism * +low urine calcium → familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia * If high Ca with low PTH → malignancy, lithium, Vit D, thiazides, sarcoidosis, hyperthyroidism, etc.
89
What are the treatments for primary hyperparathyroidism, mild to moderate hypercalcemia, severe hypercalcemia, very severe?
* Treatment * Primary Hyperparathyroidism – resection * Mild to moderate hypercalcemia (Ca: 10.5 to 14 mg/dl * Stop Vit D, thiazides, and calcium supplements * Severe hypercalcemia (Ca \> 14 mg/dl * Start on normal saline +/- loop diuretics * Calcitonin * Description: Secreted by the parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland * MOA: decreases osteoclast activity * Bisphosphonates * MOA: decreases osteoclast activity * VERY severe (Ca \> 18 mg/dl) * Hemodialysis
90
What are the 6 disease states with hypocalcemia?
* Decreased PTH secretion or action * Hypoparathyroidism: Surgery, Infiltrative Diseases, Congenital, Hypomagnesemia * Hypomagnesemia → resistance to PTH and low secretion * Pseudohypoparathyroidism * Mutation in PTH receptor * Presents with high PTH but with hypocalcemia * Familial Hypercalciuric Hypocalcemia * Gain of function mutation in CaSR * Low PTH with hypocalcemia and hypercalciuria * Decreased GI absorption (Vit D deficiency) * GI malabsorption, Vit D deficiency (secondary to liver or CKD) * Increased kidney excretion * Loop diuretics/Bartter’s syndrome * Blocks NKCC2, destroying electric gradient for Ca reabsorption * Aminoglycosides * Increases membrane permeability, destroying electric gradient for Ca reabsorption * Increased tissue/bone uptake * Pancreatitis * Hyperphosphatemia * Rhabdomyolysis: muscle is breaking down proteins, which releases phosphate that binds calcium → hypocalcemia * Tumor lysis syndrome: release of phosphate that binds calcium → hypocalcemia * Hungry Bone Syndrome * Occurs after resection of parathyroid status-post chronic hyperparathyroidism → bone will reabsorb large amounts of Ca * Bisphosphonates * Decreases osteoclast activity * Spurious
91
What are the symptoms of hypocalcemia?
* Symptoms * Hyperactive reflexes (Chvostek’s sign), prolonged QT interval, arrhythmias, heart block
92
How do you diagnose hypocalcemia?
* Diagnosis * Check PTH levels * If PTH low → think destruction of parathyroid, hypomagnesemia, familial hypercalciuric hypocalcemia * If PTH high → see everything above
93
What is treatment of hypocalcemia?
* Treatment * Give back calcium * If symptomatic: IV calcium gluconate * If asymptomatic: Oral calcium * If very severe: Calcitrol (active Vit D)
94
What is the pathophys of metabolic bone disease with hyperphosphatemia?
Hyperphosphatemia * Pathophysiology * Metabolic Bone Disease * In CKD → phosphate retention → increases FGF23 → decreases active Vit D → increases PTH release and decreases Ca → secondary hyperparathyroidism → increased Ca, phosphate, and FGF23 * Though secondary hyperparathyroidism results in increased Ca, patients will present with low calcium levels because compensation is not sufficient * Elevated FGF23 → decreases expression of Na-PO4 symporter → increased excretion of phosphate
95
What are the symptoms of hyperphosphatemia?
* Symptoms: Increased cardiovascular stiffness and symptoms associated with hypocalcemia (b/c Ca binds to excess phosphate)
96
What are the 4 conditions associated with hypophosphatemia?
Intracellular shift Acute respiratory alkalosis Decreased GI absorption Increased renal excretion
97
Explain the pathophysiology of intracellular shift of hypophospahtemia?
* Intracellular Shift * Cellular distribution affected in: * Sepsis: catecholamines, which are prevalent → send phosphorus intracellularly → depletion of serum phosphorus * Insulin: In a seriously hungry state, ingestion of food → rapidly increase circulating insulin levels → phosphorus moves intracellularly → depletion of serum phosphorus
98
Explain the pathophysiology of the acute respiratory alkalosis with hypophosphatemia.
* Acute respiratory alkalosis * Stimulates PFK to send phosphorus intracellularly
99
Explain the patophys of decreased GI absorption with hypophosphatemia.
* Decreased GI absorption * Malabsorption, Vit D deficiency * Phosphate binders: * Calcium Acetate * MOA: Ca cation separates from acetate anion → Ca binds to phosphate in gut → excreted as poop
100
Explain the increased renal excretion of phosphate and the pathophys behind it.
* Increased renal excretion * Osmotic diuresis: increased glucose in urine → increased urine volume → decreased sodium reabsorption → decreased phosphorus reabsorption via Na-PO4 symporter * Hyperparathyroidism: increased PTH → decreased expression of Na-PO4 symporter at PCT → decreases phosphorus reabsorption * Elevated FGF23 levels (secondary to X-linked hypophosphatemic rickets and tumoral hypophosphatemia) * Decreases Na-PO4 symporter in renal tubules * Fanconi syndrome (often due to carbonic anhydrase inhibitors) * Decreases Na+ reabsorption
101
What symptoms are associated with hypophosphatemia?
* Symptoms * CNS: seizures, irritability, encephalopathy * Blood: Hemolysis * Muscle: Myopathy & rhabdomyolysis
102
What is the diagnosis of hypophosphatemia?
* Diagnosis * If low urinary phosphorus excretion → think poor GI absorption or intracellular shift * If high urinary phosphorus excretion → think hyperparathyroidism, Fanconi’s syndrome, or elevated FGF23
103
What is the treatment of hypophosphatemia?
* Treatment * If mild (2 to 2.5 mg/dl): correct vit D deficiency and increase dietary phosphorus (dairy, whole grains, preserved foods) * If severe (\< 2 mg/dl): consider oral phosphorus or IV phosphorus
104
How is potassiu regulated in the body? Intracellular shift (4) and extracellular shift (6)?
* Regulation in body * Intracellular shift * Insulin, aldosterone, beta-adrenergic stimulation, alkalosis * Extracellular shift * Insulin deficiency, aldosterone deficiency, beta-adrenergic blockade, acidosis, cell lysis, exercise
105
What are some clinica manifestations of hyperkalemia?
* Clinical manifestations * Muscle weakness/paralysis * EKG changes – tall peaked T waves * Hyperchloremic acidosis * Chronic hyperkalemia → decreased NH3 production
106
What are the 5 mechanisms for hypokalemia (\<3.5)?
* Hypokalemia (K \< 3.5 mEq/L) * Mechanisms * Decreased K intake * Increased entry into cells * Alkalosis, adrenergic activity, insulin, hyperthyroidism * GI K losses * Vomiting, diarrhea, NG tube drainage * Mineralocorticoid excess * Anything that increases aldosterone * Increase distal Na delivery * Diuretics, nonreabsorbed anions, hypomagnesemia * Bartter’s syndrome * Defect in NaK2Cl channel at ALH * Gitelman’s syndrome * Defect in NaCl channel at DCT * Liddle’s syndrome * Autosomal dominant GoF ENaC mutation
107
What are the clinical manifestations for hypoklameia? Including ekg
* Clinical manifestations * Muscle weakness, cardiac arrhythmias, constipation, glucose intolerance, impaired insulin secretion * EKG changes – U wave
108
How does hypovolemia lead to hyponatremia?
* Decreased ECV → decreased renal clearance of free H20 → hyponatremia * Decreased ECV → * Increased ADH→ Decreased excretion of water * Decreased renal blood flow → decreased GFR → decreased filtered Na * Increased ATII → Increased PCT Na-K ATPase → increased reabsorption of PCT Na * Due to the above mechanisms → decreased delivery of Na to diluting segment → decreased ability for ALH and DCT to reabsorb electrolytes → decreased medullary osmotic gradient → inability to create or absorb free water → decreased excretion of free water * This results in a higher proportion of free water reabsorption to Na+ reabsorption → hyponatremia
109
differential and patho for iso-osmotic hyponatremia
* Pseudohyponatremia: marked elevations of substances resulting in a reduction in the fraction of plasma that is water and an artificially low [Na] * Hyperlipidemia, hyperproteinemia
110
hyperosmotic hyponatremia
* Hyperosmotic: rise in plasma osmolality pulls water out of the cells → lowering plasma Na concentration by dilution * Hyperglycemia, mannitol
111
give a differetial and mechs for.. * Hypo-osmotic * **Hypovolemic Hyponatremia** * Urine sodium \> 40
* Diuretics * Inhibit Na+ reabsorption in mTAL or DCT → decreased creation of free water into tubules → decreased excretion of free water * Thiazides work better than loop diuretics because loop diuretics destroy osmotic gradient while thiazides maintain * Bartter syndrome: acts like a loop diuretic * Gitelmans Syndrome: acts like a thiazide * Adrenal insufficiency * Decreased sodium reabsorption → decreased create of free water in tubular lumen → decreased excretion of free water * Addison’s disease: unable to produce aldosterone (hypotension, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia) * Same mechanism as above
112
give a differetial and mechs for.. * Hypo-osmotic * **Hypovolemic Hyponatremia** * Urine sodium \> 10
* If hypovolemic, normally, a patient will absorb Na+ due to the effects of aldosterone leaving minimal amounts in the urine → indicates that the loss is coming from elsewhere: * GI Loss: vomiting, diarrhea * Skin loss: sweating, burns, CF * Pancreatitis
113
give a differetial and mechs for.. * Hypo-osmotic * **Euvolemic Hyponatremia** * Urine sodium \> 40
* SIADH (secretion of inappropriate ADH) * Increases water reabsorption despite normal ECV → relative hyponatremia * Inappropriately concentrated urine, mild hypervolemia, decreased BUN
114
give a differetial and mechs for.. * Hypo-osmotic * **Euvolemic Hyponatremia** * Urine sodium \> 10
* H2O Intoxication
115
give a differetial and mechs for.. * Hypo-osmotic * **Hupervolemic Hyponatremia** * Urine sodium \> 40
* CKD & ESRD * Above diseases combined with intake of H2O \> Na+ → dilutional hyponatremia
116
give a differetial and mechs for.. * Hypo-osmotic * **Hupervolemic Hyponatremia** * Urine sodium \< 10
* Edematous states: nephrosis, cirrhosis, CHF * Increased interstitial fluid → decreased effective circulating volume → decreased GFR → increased RAAS → increased reabsorption of Na at PCT → decreased Na to diluting segments → decreased osmotic medullary gradient → decreased creation of free water → decreased excretion of free water → hyponatremia
117
pre-rnal causes of AKI
* Pre-renal causes * Pre-renal azotemia/volume depletion * Heart failure * Cardiorenal syndrome * Mechanism: myocardial dysfunction causes renal dysfunction and vice versa * Treatment: diruretics * Cirrhosis
118
intra-renal causes of AKI
* Tubular injury (Acute tubular necrosis) * Interstitial injury * Glomerular injury (glomerulonephritis) * Vascular injury * Look for rash → vasculitis
119
explain shock in ATN mech, patho, symptoms
* Mechanism: low BP → Loss of O2 supply to PCT cells → tubular cells slough off →muddy brown casts (necrotic tubular cells) * Symptoms: low BP, low O2 sat * Pathology: no nuclei in PCT cells
120
What are the events following transplant?
122
How are T-cell activated?
**How are T-Cells activated?** * Antigen is recognized by the MHC complex (signal 1) → CD80/86 (antigen) binds to CD28 on T-cell to start co-stimulation (signal 2) → Calcineurin is activated and acts as a transcription factor to activate IL-2 (signal 3) → IL-2 causes T-cell proliferation * Can be regulated by apoptosis, when mTOR is activated
123
Provide the MOA, Use, and SE for corticosteroids?
* Corticosteroids * MOA: blocks cytokine gene expression and blocks T-cell activation * Use: Induction maintenance and anti-rejection * SE: Cushing’s, Osteoporosis, Obesity
124
What is the type of drug, MOA, and SE of anti-thymocyte globulin?
* Anti-thymocyte globulin (rATG – Thymoglobulin): destroys T-cells * Type: inudction/immune modulation * MOA: polyclonal rabbit antibody for CD3 receptors → T-cell destruction * SE: Serum sickness, anaphylaxis, cytokine release syndrome
125
What is the type of drug, MOA, and SE of anti IL-2 antibodies?
* Anti-IL-2 receptor antibodies (Basiliximab) * Type: inudction/immune modulation * MOA: anti CD-25 (IL-2 receptor) antibody → blocks T-cell proliferation * SE: minimal
126
What is the type of drug, MOA, and SE of anti Anti-CD52-antibody?
* Anti-CD52-antibody (Alemtuzumab) * * Type: inudction/immune modulation * MOA: CD-52 antibody causing lysis of T-cells and B-cells * SE: cytokine release syndrome, long-term depletion of lymphocytes
127
What is the type of drug, MOA, and SE of cyclosporine, tacrolimus?
* Calcineurin inhibitors (CNI) - maintenance drugs * Cyclosporine, Tacrolimus * MOA: inhibit calcineurin → IL-2 transcription → blocks T-cell activation and blocks apoptosis * SE: Hyperkalemia, Hyperlipidemia (esp. cyclosporine), renal insufficiency, hypophosphatemia
128
What is the type of drug, MOA, and SE of sirolimus?
* mTOR inhibitor - maintenace drug * Sirolimus * MOA: Inhibits mTOR → blocking T-cell proliferation → permits apoptosis * SE: less nephrotoxicity than CNI, dyslipidemia, thrombocytopenia
129
What is the type of drug, MOA, and SE of sirolimus?
* mTOR inhibitor - maintenace drug * Sirolimus * MOA: Inhibits mTOR → blocking T-cell proliferation → permits apoptosis * SE: less nephrotoxicity than CNI, dyslipidemia, thrombocytopenia
130
What is the type of drug, MOA, and SE of azathioprine?
* Anti-proliferative agents * Azathioprine * MOA: purine analog that blocks purine synthesis → less DNA available for WBC synthesis * SE: skin cancer, lymphoma, pancreatitis/hepatitis * Drug interactions: interacts with allopurinol
131
What is the type of drug, MOA, and SE of Mycophenolate Mofetil (MMF)?
* Anti-proliferative agents * Mycophenolate Mofetil (MMF) * MOA: blocks inositol monophosphate dehydrogenases → blocks DNA synthesis → blocks WBC synthesis * SE: Bone marrow suppression, diarrhea, CMV infection
132
What is the type of drug, MOA, and SE of belatacept?
* Fusion protein (CTLA-4-Ig) * Belatacept * MOA: CTLA-4-IgG → binds to CD80/86 → blocks co-stimulation → downregulation of T-Cells * SE: anemia, neutropenia
133
What are three types of antirejection treatments?
* Anti-rejection treatments * Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) * Plasmapheresis * Rituximab * MOA: CD20 antibody that destroys B-cells * SE: allergic reaction
134
What are two drugs for overactive bladder? Provide MOA and SE.
* Oxybutynin * MOA: muscarinic antagonist approved for OAB * SE: “Can’t see, can’t pee, can’t spit, can’t s\*it,” * Contraindications: elderly, prostate cancer, glaucoma, K+ tablets causes GI bleeds * Mirabegron * MOA: beta-3 agonist → increase storage capacity during filling phase * SE: minimal
135
For UTI, provide clinical features, lab features, risk factors, and etiology.
* Clinical feature: dysuria, frequency, urgency * Lab features: pyuria, bacteruria * Risk factors: sexually active, multiple partners, female, spermicides, preganacy * Etiology: E. coli (most common), Staphylococcus saprophyticus, Enterobacteriaceae
136
What are the three abx indicated for UTI?
* Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole * Fluroquinilones * Nitrofunatoin
137
Provide MOA, SE, contraindications, and drug interactions for Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole?
* Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole * MOA: * Sulfa drug: acts on PABA * Trimethoprim: acts on dihydrofolate reductase * Together these drugs blocks folate synthesis in bacteria and are together are bactericidal * SE: G6PD, steven-johnson, photosensitivity, * Contraindications: G6PD deficiency, renal/hepatic impairment, pregnant/nursing (displacement of bilirubin) * Drug interactions: warfarin (bleeding), ACE/ARBs (hyperkalemia)
138
For fluoroquinilones, provide an example, MOA, SE, and contraindications?
* Fluoroquinolones * Example: Ciprofloxacin * MOA: DNA gyrase/topoisomerase IV inhibitors * SE: QT prolongations, tendon rupture * Contraindications: pregnant/nursing, seizures
139
For nitrofurantoin, provide use, MOA, SE, and contraindications
* Nitrofurantoin * Use: only for bladder infections (because it is most bioavailable here) * MOA: Interferes with carbohydrate metabolism and cell wall formation * SE: minimal but possible pulmonary issues * Contraindications: hemolytic anemia if G6PD deficient, pregnant/nursing
140
What are some non-prescription therapies for UTI (4)?
* Non-prescription therapies * Phenazopyridine – analgesic for urinary tract * Increase fluids * Cranberry juice * Avoid spermicides and multiple partners
141
For bladder cancer, provide the following: * incidence * presentation
Incidence: * More common and deadly in men * Likely recurrence Presentation * Painless intermittent hematuria * Common: bladder irritability, dysuria * Advanced: flank pain, weight loss
142
For upper tract urothelium cancer, provide the incidence, presentation, and diagnosis?
* Incidence: 10% of renal neoplasms * Presentation: Urothelial carcinoma of the kidney/ureter * Treatment * Nephroureterectomy * Can also use neoadjuvant chemo
143
What is indicated by the stages of bladder cancer (stage pTa, carcinoma in situ, stage 1-4)
144
For urethral cancer, provide the following: * Incidence * Presentation * Diagnosis * Treatment
* Incidence * Extremely rare * Men more than women * Presentation * Urothelial cell carcinoma is the most common histological type * Diagnosis * Risk factor: multiple UTI * Distal cancers present earlier at lower stage * Treatment * Tumor resection
146
causes (2) and complications of poor bladder compliance
* Causes of poor bladder compliance: * Fibrosis – chronic inflammation, radiation * Myelomeningocele (spina bifida) – neurological issues leading to loss of compliance (not well understood) * Complications: hydronephrosis, UTI (due to static urine), CKD, ESRD
147
Urge incontinence clinical defintion and causes (3)
* Clinical definition * Over activity of the detrusor (smooth muscle that surrounds the bladder) and inappropriate contractions during the filling phase * Causes * Bladder irritation/obstruction (UTI, stones, tumor) * Cerebral cortex lesion or legion of spinal cord *above* the sacral region * Idiopathic
148
Stress incontinence clinical definition and causes (4)
* Clinical definition * Leaking of urine due to increased intra-abdominal pressure * i.e. coughing, sneezing, jumping, lifting heavy objects * Causes * Childbirth * Fibrosis or urethra – due to decreased estrogen * Neurologic lesions *at* sacral cord level * Prostatectomy in men
149
two types of messed up detrusor muscle and their causes
* Neurogenic – poor innervation * Sacral spinal cord or cauda equine * Pelvic nerves going from sacral cord to bladder * Diabetes mellitus * Myogenic – weak muscle * Diabetes mellitus * Chronic overdistention
150
two types of bladder obstruction
* Anatomic * Urethral lumen narrowed/obstructed * Prostate enlargement, stones * Functional
151
functional obstruction Detrusor-sphincter dyssynergia pathophysiology and complications
* Detrusor-sphincter dyssynergia - sphincter does not open appropriately when bladder is contracted * Neurological disconnect * Complications: high-pressure voiding, incomplete bladder emptying, recurrent UTI, hydronephrosis, CKD/ESRD
152
how does the femal body prevent bacteria from colonizing vagina
* Normal flora: Lactobacillis * Compete with and inhibit growth of other bacteria by maintaining acidic pH (lacto = lactic acid) * Vaginal fluid inhibits bacterial adhesion because of secretory IgA
153
what are bacterial factors tht increase risk of getting bacterial cystitis 3 virulence factors
* Virulence factors causing infection: * Adhesins: promote bacterial attachment to tissue receptors * Type 1 pili --\> associated with cystitis * P pili --\> associated with pyelonephrits * Hemolysins * Absent ability so synthesize nutrients
154
vesico-ureteral reflux what is it? epidemiology, complications who should be tested?
* Definition: regurgitation of bladder urine into the upper urinary tract * Epidemiology: \< 1% in healthy children, 29-50% in children with UTI, 33% in sibling of child with reflux (lmao Rahul’s brother), rare in African American (ayooo!) * Complications: cystitis à pyelonephritis (due to regurgitation) à renal scarring à renal failure * Can also lead to hydronephrosis à renal failure * Who should tested? * All children with UTI * All babies with hydronephrosis
155
pyelonephritis symptoms, signs, labs, imaging, tx
* Symptoms: Flank pain, fever, chills * Signs: CV tenderness * Labs * Urinalysis: pyuria, bacteriuria +/- hematuria * Imaging * Lobar nephronia – pyelonephritis with a lobar distribution * Treatment * Outpatient: fluoroquinolone * Inpatient: blood culture, IV antibiotics
156
what are these things? tx? Pyelonephritis plus obstruction Renal or perinephric abscess Emphysematous pyelonephritis
* Pyelonephritis plus obstruction * Bacteria builds up behind obstruction can lead to sepsis * Tx: drainage * Renal or perinephric abscess * Bacteria builds up in abscess --\> pressure forces bacteria to blood --\> sepsis * Tx: drainage * Emphysematous pyelonephritis * Necrotizing infection with gas forming bacteria --\> sepsis * Usually occurs in diabetics * Tx: nephrectomy
157
stones: causes, imaging, labs Calcium oxalate
* Causes: hypercalcemia, anatomic, commonly idiopathic * Primary hyperparathyroidism --\> hypercalcemia * Imaging: radiopaque on XR * Labs: variable pH
158
stones: causes, description, labs Calcium phosphate
* Description: powder-like --\> cloudy urine * Causes: distal RTA (Type I) * Labs: elevated urinary pH (basic)
159
stones: causes, tx, labs, imaging Uric acid
* Causes: hyperuricemia (gout) * Labs: low urine pH (acidic) * Imaging: radiolucent on XR * Tx: alkalinzation of urine, decreased purine intake, potassium citrate, NaHCO3
160
stones: causes, labs, imaging Struvite
* Cause: UTI * Labs: high urine pH (basic) * Imaging: radiopaque on XR
161
stones: causes, labs, tx, epidemiology Cystine
* Epidemiology: children (~12 y/o); high recurrence rate * Pathophysiology: autosomal recessive AA transport disorder --\> cystinuria * Labs: low urine pH (acidic) * Tx: aggressive fluid intake, low Na diet; alkalization of urine * Resistant to shockwave lithotripsy