Arrhythmias and Conduction Defects Flashcards

1
Q

What are the cardiac causes of arrhythmias?

A
  1. IHD, CHF
  2. Structural changes
  3. Cardiomyopathy
  4. Post-MI
  5. Pericarditis
  6. Abnormal conduction pathways
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the non-cardiac causes of arrhythmias?

A
  1. Caffeine, smoking, alcohol
  2. Pneumonia
  3. Drugs - B2 agonists, digoxin, L-dopa, TCAs
  4. Metabolic imbalance - K+, Ca2+, Mg2+
  5. Hypoxia, hypercapnia, metabolic acidosis
  6. Thyroid disease, phaeochromocytoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is this a presentation of?

Palpitations, dyspnoea, chest pain, presyncope/syncope, hypotension, pulmonary oedema, abnormal ECG.

A

Arrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the two groups of pathological tachycardias?

A
  1. Broad complex - QRS >120ms (3 small squares)

2. Narrow complex - QRS <120ms (3 small squares)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What could a regular broad complex tachycardia be and how is it treated?

A
  1. Assume ventricular tachycardia

2. Amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What could an irregular broad complex tachycardia be and how are they treated?

A
  1. AF and BBB - treat as per narrow complex guidelines

2. Polymorphic VT (Torsade de pointes) - IV Mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What could a regular narrow complex tachycardia be and how is it treated?

A
  1. Supraventricular tachycardia

2. Vagal manoeuvres, IV adenosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is an irregular narrow complex tachycardia likely to be?

A

Probably AF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is VT and what can it progress to?

A
  1. A broad complex tachycardia originating from a ventricular ectopic focus.
  2. Has the potential to precipitate ventricular fibrillation and hence requires urgent treatment.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the two main types of VT and what causes them?

A
  1. Monomorphic - commonly caused by MI

2. Polymorphic (e.g. Torsades de pointes) - precipitated by prolongation of the QT interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the aetiology of VT?

A

> 90% caused by re-entry around scar tissue due to abnormal scarring usually due to prior ischaemia or infarction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Torsade de pointes, what can it deteriorate to, and how is it treated?

A
  1. Rare, irregular, broad-complex, tachycardic arrhythmia associated with long QT interval.
  2. May deteriorate to VF and hence lead to sudden death.
  3. IV magnesium sulphate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the causes of long QT?

A
  1. Congenital
  2. Drugs - amiodarone, TCAs, fluoxetine, chloroquine, terfenadine, erythromycin (macrolides).
  3. Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia, hypocalcaemia, acute MI, hypothermia, SAH.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why are patients with an irregular broad complex tachycardia in combination with a BBB treated as per narrow complex guidelines?

A
  1. Narrow complexes with BBB can look like broad complexes.

2. If unsure, treat for VT as giving adenosine in VT is dangerous, giving amiodarone is less dangerous.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the immediate management of a VT?

A
  1. Connect to cardiac monitor and have defibrillator ready.
  2. Monitor O2 and give if <90%
  3. Correct electrolytes
  4. Check for adverse signs - systolic BP <90mmHg, chest pain, heart failure, myocardial ischaemia, syncope.
  5. If adverse signs present - immediate synchronised DC cardioversion, then amiodarone 300mg IV over 20 mins.
  6. If stable - amiodarone then DC cardioversion, then amiodarone 900mg over 24h via central line.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is an SVT?

A

Any tachyarrhythmia arising from above the atrioventricular node.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the three different types of SVT?

A
  1. Sinus tachycardia - normal P wave followed by normal QRS, do not cardiovert
  2. Atrial tachyarrhythmias - AF, AFl
  3. Junctional tachycardia - AVNRT, AVRT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which SVTs are regular and atrial?

A
  1. Sinus tachycardia
  2. Atrial tachycardia
  3. Atrial flutter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which SVTs are regular and ventricular?

A
  1. Atrioventricular re-entry tachycardia (AVRT)

2. Atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (AVNRT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which SVTs are irregular and atrial?

A
  1. Atrial fibrillation

2. Atrial flutter with variable block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the most common cause of SVT other than AF?

A

AVNRT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is this a presentation of?

Young female, sudden onset of rapid, regular palpitations, brief fall in BP causing presyncope/syncope, SOB, anxiety.

A

AVNRT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When does AVNRT typically occur?

A

Paroxysmal and may occur spontaneously or upon provocation with exertion, caffeine, alcohol, beta agonists, hypokalaemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is AVNRT?

A

A functional re-entry circuit within the AVN.

25
Q

What is AVRT?

A

An accessory pathway allows electrical activity from the ventricles to pass to the resting atrial myocytes.

26
Q

What is this describing?

AVRT, short PR interval, delta wave.

A

Wolff Parkinson White syndrome

27
Q

What is atrial flutter?

A

Anticlockwise re-entry circuit in the right atrium. Fairly predictable atrial rate of 300bpm due to size of atria.

28
Q

What is the most common AV ratio in atrial flutter?

A

2:1 (2 atrial beats for every 1 ventricular)

29
Q

What is this describing?

Saw-tooth baseline ECG.

A

Atrial flutter

30
Q

What is the treatment for atrial flutter?

A
  1. Similar to AF regarding rate, rhythm control and need for anticoagulation.
  2. Synchronised DC cardioversion preferred.
  3. Radiofrequency ablation recommended for long term management.
31
Q

What is the key to management in SVT?

A

Identify whether the rhythm is regular or irregular (likely AF).

32
Q

What is the immediate management for the SVTs?

  1. Sinus tachycardia secondary to dehydration
  2. AVNRT/AVRT (regular)
  3. Underlying rhythm atrial in origin
A
  1. IV fluids
  2. Transiently block AVN
  3. AVN block won’t treat but will unmask atrial rhythm, aiding diagnosis and management.
33
Q

How do you block the AVN?

A
  1. Vagal manoeuvres 1st line (carotid sinus massage, Valsalva manoeuvre)
  2. IV adenosine 6mg, followed by 12mg (not for asthma as it obstructs airway, IV verapamil)
34
Q

How do you rate control and rate limit atrial fibrillation/flutter?

A
  1. Rate control - B-blockers (metoprolol)

2. Rate limiting - Ca-channel blocker (verapamil)

35
Q

What is AF?

A

A Chaotic, irregular atrial rhythm at 300-600bpm, cardiac output drops by 10-20%. Most common sustained arrhythmia. Risk of thromboembolic stroke.

36
Q

What are the risk factors and causes for AF?

A

HTN, increasing age, IHD, DM, CHF, valvular disease, cardiac/thoracic surgery, PE, hyperthyroidism, acute infections, caffeine, alcohol, hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia.

37
Q

What are the signs and symptoms in AF?

A
  1. May be asymptomatic or cause chest pain, palpitations, dyspnoea, syncope.
  2. Irregularly irregular pulse
38
Q

What is this ECG describing?
Irregularly irregular rhythm, no P waves, usually fast but can be slow, absence of isoelectric baseline, narrow QRS usually.

A

Atrial fibrillation

39
Q

How is suspected AF investigated?

A
  1. ECG
  2. Bloods - U&Es, cardiac enzymes, TFTs
  3. Echo - may show LVH, left atrial enlargement
  4. CXR - pneumonia, HF may precipitate AF
40
Q

How can you classify AF?

A
  1. First episode - initial detection
  2. Chronic paroxysmal - recurrent, self-terminates in <7 days
  3. Chronic persistent - lasts >7 days
  4. Chronic permanent - continuous, refractory to cardioversion, sinus rhythm cannot be restored
41
Q

In which patient groups would you favour rate control in AF?

A

> 65 years old and history of IHD

42
Q

In which patient groups would you favour rhythm control in AF?

A

<65 years old, symptomatic, first presentation, CHF, secondary to reversible cause.

43
Q

What is the management for acute AF?

A
  1. If adverse signs - A-E and synchronised DC cardioversion
  2. If stable and definitely started <48hrs ago - rate control with beta blockers/calcium channel blocker, or rhythm control with DC cardioversion/flecainide, also start heparin.
  3. If stable and AF started >48hrs ago - rate control
  4. Anticoagulate for >3 weeks in rhythm control.
44
Q

What is the management for chronic AF?

A
  1. Rate control - B-blocker or Calcium channel blocker 1st line.
  2. Rhythm control - CHA2DS2-VAS, HAS-BLED scores - warfarin (INR 2-3) or a DOAC
  3. Elective DC cardioversion, echo first for thrombi, if risk of failure, give amiodarone 4wks before and 12mths after.
  4. Elective pharmacological cardioversion - flecainide 1st choice (amiodarone in structural heart defect)
45
Q

What are the features if the CHA2DS2-VAS score and when should you anticoagulate?

A
C - congestive heart failure (1)
H - hypertension (1)
A - age >74 (2)
D - diabetes (1)
S - stroke/TIA/thromboembolism (2)
V - vascular disease (1)
A - age 65-74 (1)
S - sex female (1)
Anticoagulate in male if 1 or more, in females if 2 or more.
46
Q

What are the features of the HAS-BLED score and what score indicates a high risk of bleed?

A

H - hypertension, uncontrolled, SYS >160 (1)
A - abnormal renal/liver function (1 each)
S - stroke history (1)
B - bleeding, major or predisposition (1)
L - labile INR (1)
E - elderly >65yrs (1)
D - drugs (NSAIDs, antiplatelets), alcohol >8u per week (1 each)
Score of 3 or more indicates high bleeding risk.

47
Q

What are the symptoms of bradyarrhythmias?

A

Often asymptomatic, fatigue, nausea, dizziness, syncope, light-headedness.

48
Q

What is heart block?

A

Disrupted passage of electrical impulse through the AV node.

49
Q

What is this describing?

Prolonged PR interval (>200ms), unchanged, no dropped QRS, no haemodynamic compromise.

A

1st degree heart block

50
Q

What is this describing?
Progressive prolongation of PR interval culminating in a non-conductive P wave, longest before dropped beat and shortest after. Usually due to reversible block.

A

2nd degree heart block (Mobitz I)

51
Q

What is the treatment for patients with symptomatic 2nd degree heart block (Mobitz I)?

A

Usually respond well to atropine

52
Q

What is this describing?
Intermittent non-conducting P waves without progressive prolongation of PR interval, P waves ‘march through’ at constant rate.

A

2nd degree heart block (Mobitz II)

53
Q

What is the treatment for patients with 2nd degree heart block (Mobitz II)?

A

Immediate admission for cardiac monitoring, temporary pacing, and a permanent pacemaker.

54
Q

What is this describing?
Complete absence of AV conduction, none of the supraventricular impulses conduct to ventricles. Severe bradycardia, hypotension, high risk of haemodynamic instability.

A

3rd degree heart block (complete)

55
Q

What is the treatment for patients with 3rd degree heart block?

A

Immediate admission for cardiac monitoring, temporary pacing, and a permanent pacemaker.

56
Q

What are the causes of 1st and 2nd degree heart block?

A

Normal variant, athletes (increased vagal tone), IHD (especially inferior MI), drugs (digoxin, BBs, CCBs).

57
Q

What are the causes of 3rd degree heart block?

A

IHD (especially inferior MI), end point of Mobitz I/II.

58
Q

What non-cardiac causes should you consider when managing bradycardia, and what is needed in patients with a high risk of asystole?

A
  1. Always consider general non-cardiac causes (vasovagal, hypothyroidism, Addison’s)
  2. Cushing’s triad - bradycardia, hypertension, irregular breathing = urgent senior input
  3. Transcutaneous pacing needed in patients with high risk of asystole (atropine/isoprenaline infusion in interim)
59
Q

What is the general management of bradycardia?

A
  1. If adverse features - atropine 500mcg IV
  2. If there is a satisfactory response - assess asystole risk.
  3. If unsatisfactory response/asystole risk - atropine 500mcg IV repeat up to 3mg/transcutaneous pacing/isoprenaline, adrenaline, alternatives.