Areas of Practice Flashcards
1
Q
What is a fiscal impact analysis for? What are common situations it is used in? What variables does it balance?
A
Used to estimate the costs and revenues of a proposed development on a local government.
The cost of extending infrastructure (police service, transit access, sewer/etc) is balanced against the sales, property, and income tax generated by the new development.
The fiscal impact is the difference between the projected tax revenues and the expenditures generated by a proposed development - the “net fiscal impact.”
2
Q
List two types of challenges in conducting a fiscal impact analysis.
A
1) There are many factors that are value-oriented and not fiscally related. For example, multi-family or affordable housing may show a negative fiscal impact, but there are substantive social, economic, and environmental benefits that it may not account for.
2) Splitting costs is a challenge in conducting a fiscal impact analysis. For example, capital purchases - like roads - may occur in one year but are financed over time. Another issue is that multiple developments share the use of a facility (a road that is built may be used for other developments down the road).
3
Q
Describe the average per capita method of fiscal impact analysis - how it is conducted and common critiques.
A
The simplest method but also the least reliable. It divides the total local budget by the existing population in a city to determine the average per capita cost for the jurisdiction. The result is multiplied new population associated with the new development.
The major problem is that it assumes the cost of service to a new development is the same as the cost to service the existing community. This may not be true.
4
Q
Describe the adjusted per capita method of fiscal impact analysis - how it is conducted and common critiques.
A
The adjusted per capita method adjusts the per capita calculation (dividing the total local budget by the existing population and multiplying by the projected new residents) based on expectations about the new development. This relies on subjective judgment.
5
Q
Describe the disaggregated per capita method of fiscal impact analysis - how it is conducted and common critiques.
A
The disaggregated method estimates costs and revenues based on major land uses; for example, the cost of servicing a shopping center versus an apartment complex.
6
Q
Describe the dynamic method of fiscal impact analysis - how it is conducted and common critiques.
A
Applies statistical analysis to time-series data from a jurisdiction. For example, how much sales tax revenue is generated per capita from a grocery store and applies to this new development (also a grocery store). This method requires more data and time.
7
Q
What is a subdivision?
A
A subdivision is the division of land into two or more parcels, sites, or lots, for the purpose of transfer of ownership, development, or other forms of valuable interest. The definition varies from state to state and may include minimum acreage requirements.
8
Q
What is a plat?
A
A plat is a map of a tract or parcel of land.
9
Q
What is a replat?
A
A replat allows for lots to be subdivided further or added back together.
10
Q
What is an amending plat?
A
An amending plat corrects errors or adds additional information to a plat.
11
Q
What is a vacating plat?
A
A vacating plat allows for a plat to be terminated prior to the selling of any lots.
12
Q
What is a preliminary plat?
A
A preliminary plat is a to-scale mechanical drawing with precise topography and prescribed intervals showing the calculated location of all lots, streets, drainage patterns, facilities, and proposed dedications.
13
Q
What is a final plat?
A
A final plat is the approved preliminary plat with all bearing, monuments, curves, and notations, together with all dedications, easement, and approvals.
14
Q
What is the purpose behind subdivision regulations? (hint: there are seven)
A
1) To regulate subdivision development and implement planning policies;
2) To implement plans for orderly growth and development within the city’s boundaries and extraterritorial jurisdiction;
3) To ensure adequate provision for streets, alleys, parks, and other facilities indispensable to the community;
4) To protect future purchasers from inadequate police and fire protection;
5) To ensure sanitary conditions and other governmental services;
6) To ensure compliance with certain standards; and
7) To officially register land.
15
Q
What are the five steps to develop a plat? Why would you develop a plat? What parties are involved?
A
A property owner works with the city or the county to develop a plat to subdivide land. The following steps must be taken:
1) Applicant prepares and submits a preliminary plat;
2) The preliminary plat is reviewed by staff for compliance with regulations;
3) Plat is reviewed by the planning commission;
4) Once approved, the applicant prepares a final plat; and
5) The final plat repeats the above process until it is approved by the planning commission.
16
Q
What is a performance bond and when are they used during the subdivision process?
A
Many communities require property owners to post performance bonds; these are agreements between the owner and the community to ensure that the final plat is built as shown in the drawings within a certain time period.
The bond is used to cover the cost of constructing the improvements, in case the developer fails to meet the requirements. Once the government has inspected the development, the bond is released.
17
Q
Define exactions and impact fees and the difference between the two.
A
Exactions are dedications of land or payment in-lieu of dedication - these are used for public purposes, such as roads, parks, utilities.
Impact fees are typically charged for off-site infrastructure needed to provide service to a development, such as a water or sewer main.
18
Q
What are subdivision bonuses and what are they often awarded for?
A
Cities may offer subdivision bonuses - an extension of development benefits - in exchange for enhancements such as affordable housing, cluster housing, open space preservation, etc. Bonuses could encompass assistance with infrastructure, waiving of impact fees, or a grant of additional density.
19
Q
What is zoning?
A
Zoning is the separation of land uses or functions into separate districts (or “zones”). Zoning is implemented through locally enacted legislation that regulates and controls the use of private property.
20
Q
What is the primary purpose of zoning? What are some purposes that zoning can serve?
A
The purpose of zoning is to regulate land use, prevent land use conflicts, and allow growth to occur in a planned manner.
Zoning can also do the following:
- Protect and maintain property values
- Promote public health and safety
- Protect the environment
- Promote the aesthetic of a community
- Manage traffic
- Manage density
- Limit housing size and type, or encourage a variety of housing types
- Attract businesses and industries
21
Q
What elements does zoning control? List up to eleven.
A
Land use Lot size Density Building placement Building height Building bulk Setbacks Provision of adequate light and air Parking Landscaping Signage
22
Q
Describe the role of zoning staff in the zoning process.
A
Many communities have a professional staff that handles zoning matters. Their primary task is to provide information to the public regarding the zoning ordinance. In addition, staff may be responsible for reviewing applications and writing reports for the Planning and Zoning Commission and the Board of Zoning Appeals. The staff typically prepares an information packet for the Boards that includes reports on each application.
23
Q
Describe the role of the Planning and Zoning Commission (P&Z) in the zoning process.
A
The P&Z is required to issue recommendations in matters of zoning. Recommendations are made to a governing body (City Council, County Commissioners). In other cases, P&Z renders final approval of cases.
P&Z is made up of community residents and business owners. Members are appointed by the governing body.
P&Z reads staff reports, visit sites prior, visits sites prior to meetings, and comes prepared to participate in discussions with applicants at meetings.
P&Z Commissioners should think long-term about the impacts of rezoning parcel by parcel.
24
Q
Describe the role of of the Board of Zoning Appeals (aka the Board of Zoning Adjustment or Zoning Board of Adjustment) in the zoning process.
A
The Board of Zoning Appeals is a quasi-judicial board that hears cases for variances, special exceptions to the zoning ordinance, and appeals of staff administration of the zoning ordinance.
The governing body appoints members to the board. As with the Planning and Zoning Commission, members are community members who volunteer their time.
25
Describe the role of the City Council (or County Commission) in the zoning process.
The governing body of a city often has the final say on zoning issues. The P&Z Commission makes recommendations on zoning cases to City Council. The City Council is then charged with making the final decision on whether to approve or disapprove a case.
26
Describe the role of the zoning text in the zoning process.
In order for a community to adopt zoning, two separate documents must be created: the zoning text and the zoning map.
The zoning text, ordinance, or code lays out the exact regulations that zoning is created to implement. It is adopted as law by the local governing body. At a minimum, the zoning text establishes different zones and the uses allowable in each zone, either by right or with a conditional permit. It should also define various requirements for setbacks, parking, signs, and include definitions, information on height restrictions, and procedures.
27
Describe the role of the zoning map in the zoning process.
In order for a community to adopt zoning, two separate documents must be created: the zoning text and the zoning map.
The zoning map is where zoning clearly becomes applicable to individual properties. The color-coded map shows which types of land uses are allowable where. It is generally a detailed city map overlaid with various colors/patterns depicting the type of zoning for each property.
28
Describe how a zoning amendment works, who implements it, and why a zone might be amended.
Amendments can be made to either the ordinance or the map.
An amendment to the ordinance changes requirements for all properties in that zone. An amendment to the map changes the zoning district on a properties or a set of properties.
Amendments can be initiated by staff, P&Z, the governing body, or at a property owner's request. Amendments allow communities to be flexible and responsive to the changing needs of the community.
29
What is the Euclidean approach to regulating land use in zoning?
Euclidean zoning is named after the City of Euclid in Ohio. It places the most protective restrictions on residential land uses, less on commercial uses, and practically none on industrial uses.
30
What is the Cumulative approach to regulating land use in zoning?
Cumulative zoning is less protective of various land uses than Euclidean zoning. Single-family residential districts are the most exclusive. However, in cumulative zoning, each successive zoning district allows all the uses from the previous zones:
- A SF district allows SF homes
- A MF district allows apartments and all uses in the SF district
31
What is the Modified Cumulative approach to regulating land use in zoning?
A modified version of cumulative zoning has been developed to allow cities to provide a greater degree of protection than they would with cumulative zoning; districts are typically cumulative by type of land use. For example, a MF district would allow both SF and MF. However, the industrial district would not allow residential uses.
32
What is the difference between a permitted and a conditional use?
If a retail zoning district lists X as a permitted use, X can open without asking the city for permission. If X is a conditional use, then the incoming owner of X would have to ask the city permission to open.
33
When are conditional use permits granted?
Conditional use permits allow a use if it is compatible with its surroundings. These are often known as "special use" permits or "specific use" permits.
Conditional use permits can be issues with the land or the ownership.
34
What is a nonconforming use?
A nonconforming use is a property use that existed prior to the adoption of the district regulations and is allowed to continue under the "grandfather" clause.
35
What does amortizing a nonconforming use mean?
Instead of letting a grandfathered use expire naturally, some communities "amortize" nonconforming uses. This consists of setting a definite period of time within which the use must come into compliance with the zoning ordinance. Amortization can be controversial, particularly because administrators would need to determine a "fair" period to sunset that use. This time period is based on the property owner's original investment, the use of the property, and other factors that affect the owners potential income.
Amortization schedules are common for forcing signs into conformance.
36
What is an accessory use?
An accessory use is one that is incidental to the main use of a property. It is typically located on the same lot and smaller in size than the main use. Outside sales, outside storage, a telecommunications tower, home occupations, or a garage apartment (ADU).
37
What are Planned Unit Developments (PUDs)?
A unique zoning tool that can offer an alternative to strict zoning regulations. They're typically for large developments that involve a mix of uses. These allow for the development of a detailed site plan that is reviewed by the governing body.
Advantages: planned up front in their entirety, allow for more innovative development design (flexibility that normal zoning regs/subdivisions generally don't have). Often this translates to developers offering increased community amenities and open space in exchange for density and other wants (example: narrower streets).
The zoning ordinance sets a minimum acceptable acreage for a PUD.
38
Describe overlay zoning.
Overlay zoning is a set of additional restrictions that are placed on top of an existing zone. Two common overlays are for airports and historic preservation. Other kinds include neighborhood revitalization zones, flood hazard areas, enterprise zones, and foreign trade zones.
39
Describe a zoning variance (generally) and why one would be awarded.
A variance is a change in the terms of the zoning regulations due to economic or physical hardship. There are two types of variances: the use variance and the area variance.
Variances are issued when certain requirements are met, including:
- unique physical/economic hardship
- will not reduce property values
- property owner did not cause the need for variance
- the variance is not contrary to the spirit of the ordinance
40
Describe a use variance.
A use variance allows a property to have a use not explicitly allowed under zoning district regulations. For example, a business owner would like to operate an ice cream shop in an area that is not zoned for restaurant uses. A use variance would allow the business to operate.
41
Describe an area variance.
An area variance allows a property to be excluded from the physical site requirements under the zoning ordinance. For example, an area variance would allow a property owner to build his or her house with only a 20-foot setback instead of the required 25-foot setback.
42
Define big-box retail.
Generally 50,000 or more square feet in a large box.
43
Define Floor Area Ratio (FAR).
FAR is the ratio of the building's total floor area (gross) to the size of the piece of land upon which it is built. FAR is more frequently used in downtown areas to help control for light and air. A FAR of 0.1 would mean that on a 10k square foot lot the building could have no more than 1k square feet.
44
Describe the concept of maximum parking standards.
Maximum parking standards are an alternative to the conventional minimum parking standards that most communities have. Maximum parking standards cap the amount of parking that a property owner or business can provide, addressing excessive impervious cover and undermining pedestrian quality.
45
What is growth management?
Growth management is a planning approach that pre-dates smart growth and sustainability planning.
46
What is smart growth?
Smart growth is a term used to describe planning for greater sustainability. Smart growth, according to APA, provides economic benefits "for [all]."
47
List the ten principles of Smart Growth.
1. Create a range of housing opportunities and choices;
2. Create walkable neighborhoods;o
3. Encourage community and stakeholder collab;
4. Foster distinctive, attractive places with a strong sense of place;
5. Make development decisions predictable, fair, and cost-effective;
6. Mix land uses;
7. Preserve open space, farmland, natural beauty, and critical environmental areas;
8. Provide a variety of transportation choices;
9. Strengthen and direct development towards existing communities; and
10. Take advantage of compact building design,
48
Define sustainable development.
Sustainable development balances the fulfillment of human needs with the protection of the natural environment so that the present and future population's needs can be met. Sustainability includes environmental, social, and economic components.
49
What does triple bottom line mean?
Coined in 1994 by John Elkington. He argued companies should be preparing three bottom lines: one for corporate profit, one for people, and one for the planet.
50
What is carrying capacity?
Carrying capacity is a biological concept indicating the maximum population size of a species that can be sustained in perpetuity within the environment, given the availability of food, water, habitat, etc. This can be used in relation to the carrying capacity of a community, or of infrastructure capacity. Ian McHarg referenced this in Design with Nature
51
Describe the theory behind "trip generation."
Trip generation deals with the number of trips that a particular site is likely to generate. Thus it is a byproduct of land use and the intensity of use, factors which "induce" people to travel. The propensity to make trips is also dependent on the characteristics of the journey, trip purpose, and socioeconomic characteristics (income, age, auto ownership).
52
Describe the theory behind "trip distribution."
Distribution examines where people are going - generally, a zonal approach where trips going into a region are allotted to zones.
53
What is a gravity model?
A gravity model can be used to provide trip estimates based on the proportional attractiveness of a zone (the "gravitational pull") and inversely proportional to the trip length.
54
What is "trip assignment"?
Trip assignment is used in network models to predict the distribution of trips for each roadway by the hour. Peak volumes can be compared with the DHV (Design Hour Volume) to see if any roadways will experience traffic over their design capacity (i.e. congestion).
55
Describe the system of "functional classification."
Local or residential streets are designed to serve local land uses; collectors collect traffic from local streets and funnel it to arterials; arterials are major through roads that carry a lot of traffic volume. Arterials are often divided into major and minor arterials and rural and urban arterials.
56
Describe the development of the interstate highway system in the 1940s-1950s.
The interstate roadway system was proposed in 1939 by President Roosevelt. In 1944, the Federal Aid Highway Act was passed, designating interstates. The Public Roads Administration (PRA) was responsible for implementation. The PRA designated more highways. Funding was authorized in 1952 and in 1956.
57
What is the significance of the Federal Highway Act of 1962?
It created a federal mandate for urban transportation planning. It was meant to complement the process that many urban areas were beginning - planning interstate highway routes in their communities. The Act required that transportation projects in urbanized areas with a population of 50,000 or more be based on an urban transportation planning process defined by the three C's: continuing, comprehensive, and cooperative.
58
When was the last time the federal gas tax was raised?
1993
59
Name the six national transportation acts passed since the Federal Highway Act of 1962 and summarize their impact.
All six acts have focused on providing funding both for highways and for transit, pedestrian, and bicycle facilities.
1. ISTEA (1991)
2. TEA-21 (1998)
3. TEA3 (2003)
4. SAFETEA (2005)
5. MAP-21 (2012)
6. FAST (2015)
60
What is an Metropolitan Planning Organization (MPO) and what role do they fulfill?
MPOs are created to meet federal requirements for urban transportation planning. FHWA (then, the Bureau of Public Roads) required the creation of planning agencies to carry out the transportation process stipulated in the Federal Highway Act of 1962.
61
What is a Transportation Improvement Program (TIP)?
FHWA requires a regional transportation plan, a TIP, and a unified planning work program for areas with populations of 200,000 or more. TIPs are prepared by MPOs. TIPs contain projects for which federal funds are anticipated, along with non-federally funded projects that are regionally significant. The TIP shows estimated costs and schedules by project phase (preliminary engineering, final design, right-of-way acquisition, and construction). Inclusion on the TIP means that is expected to be implemented during the TIP time period.
62
Describe Transportation Demand Management and list a few common TDM strategies.
A general term used to describe strategies for the efficient use of transportation. Some examples include: car sharing, flextime, guaranteed ride home, public transit, park-and-ride, HOV lanes, telecommuting, commute trip reduction, and transit-oriented development.
63
Describe traffic calming and list a few strategies.
Traffic calming involves horizontal (e.g. change in street alignment) as well as vertical (e.g. speed bumps) adjustment to reduce traffic speed and/or volume. Some strategies include: chicane, choker, full or partial street closure, realigned intersections, roundabouts, speed humps, speed table, and traffic circles.
64
What are the dimensions of a standard parking space?
9-10 feet by 18 feet (approximately 180 square feet)
65
What is a complete street?
A complete street is safe, accessible, and convenient that everyone can use regardless of age, ability, or mode.
66
What is an adequate public facilities ordinance (APFO)?
The APFO allows local governments to deny or delay new developments if the existing government services (water and sewer, roads, schools, fire, and police) cannot support it. It ensures that new development does not negatively impact a community's quality of life by overburdening public services.
The APFO alone is not the solution to poorly planned growth, but is an important local tool to manage the pace of growth.
67
What is concurrency?
Concurrency is the practice of requiring that infrastructure be in place and available at a specified level of service prior to allowing new development to occur.
68
What does it mean to "daylight" in reference to drainage?
Describes the conversion of an enclosed drainage system to a more open and natural system.
69
What is "blue infrastructure"?
Refers to water-based infrastructure and can include stormwater management.
70
What is "green infrastructure"?
Emphasizes the role of the natural environment in land use planning. A significant emphasis is on converting single-purpose gray stormwater infrastructure (piped drainage and water treatment systems) to reducing and treating stormwater at its source.
71
What is hazard mitigation?
Hazard mitigation is defined by FEMA as any action taken to reduce or eliminate long-term risk to people and property from natural hazards.
Types of hazard mitigation include coastal zone management, planning for wildfires, post-disaster recovery, drought mitigation, urban flooding, and more.
72
What are the four overlapping phases of response and recovery?
1. Emergency: the initial hours or days following a disaster when the community is forced to cope with losses in life and property.
2. Restoration: the time following the emergency period until major urban service and transportation are restored, evacuees returned, and rubble is removed.
3. Replacement Reconstruction: the city rebuilds capital stock to pre-disaster levels and social and economic activities return to their previous levels.
4. Commemorative, betterment, and development reconstruction: major reconstruction activities take place and future growth and development begin to take hold.
73
What is adaptation?
Adaptation is the adjustment of human and natural systems in response to actual or expected effects of climate change.
74
How is a disaster determined as "major"?
In which the President determines that the damage is of sufficient severity and magnitude to warrant major disaster assistance under the Stafford Disaster Relief Act.
75
Define "emergency."
Any occasion or instance for which, in the determination of the president, Federal assistance is needed to supplement State and local efforts and capabilities to save lives and protect property and public health and safety, or lessen or avert the threat of a catastrophe (definition from the Stafford Disaster Relief Act).
76
Define resilience.
Resilience refers to the ability of a community to return to its original form after it has been changed. Often it is used to refer to a community's ability to recover from a natural hazard, economic shock, or other major events.
77
Describe the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP).
NFIP was established in 1994 by the National Flood Insurance Act. Its Community Rating System (CRS) is a voluntary incentive program that encourages community floodplain management activities that exceed the minimum NFIP requirements.
78
When was the first Earth Day?
April 22, 1970
79
What is the Colorado River Aqueduct, when was it built and who owns and operates it?
The Colorado River Aqueduct is a 242-mile long water conveyance system that runs from an intake at Lake Havasu on the Arizona border to the Lake Mathews reservoir in Riverside County. It was built between 1933 and 1941 by the Metropolitan Water District of Southern California, a cooperative body of 14 cities created in 1927.
80
Define effluent standards.
Effluent standards are set restrictions on the discharge of pollutants into the environment. Effluent guidelines reduce the discharge of pollutants that have serious environmental impacts. The EPA has effluent guidelines for more than fifty categories.
81
Define point source pollution.
Point source pollution is discharged directly from a specific site, such as a sewage treatment plant or an industrial pipe.
82
Define non-point source pollution.
Non-point source pollution is contaminated runoff from many sources.
83
Define an aquifer.
An aquifer is one or more strata of rock or sediment that is saturated and sufficiently permeable to yield economically significant quantities of water to wells or springs.
84
Define an estuary.
An estuary is an area where freshwater meets saltwater.
85
Define a lagoon.
A shallow body of water that is located alongside a coast.
86
Define a marsh.
A type of freshwater, brackish water, or saltwater wetland found along rivers, ponds, lakes, and coasts. It does not accumulate appreciable peat deposits and is dominated by herbaceous vegetation.
87
Define a reservoir.
A pond, lake, tank, or basin that can be used for the storage and control of water, and can be either natural or man-made.
88
Define a swamp.
A freshwater wetland that has spongy, muddy land and a lot of water.
89
Define a watershed.
A region drained by, or contributing water to, a surface water body.
90
Define wetlands.
Includes swamps, marshes, bogs, and other similar areas. They are areas that are inundated or saturated by surface or groundwater at a frequency and duration sufficient to support vegetation typically adapted for life in saturated soil conditions. Wetlands can be natural or constructed.
91
Describe the basic tenets of the Clean Water Act of 1972 (major amendment in 1977).
Requires anyone wanting to discharge pollutants into a body of water to obtain a permit. Also regulates the amount of water that can be discharged and types of pollutants that can be released. In order to discharge pollutants into the water, a Point Source Discharge Permit must be obtained from the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES).
92
Describe the basic tenets of the Clean Air Act (1970).
Major revisions in 1977 and 1990. The Act cuts off federal funding for metro areas that are in non-attainment (AQ). Standards are set by the federal government and measured in Air Quality Control Regions (AQCR). Requires permits to discharge pollutants. Regulates six pollutants: particulate matter, ozone, carbon monoxide, nitrogen dioxide, sulfur dioxide, and lead.
93
Give an overview of NEPA (1969).
NEPA requires Federal agencies to prepare an EIS for all major Federal actions that may significantly affect the quality of the human environment. If a project is smaller, can do an EA - the finding of which is whether or not an EIS is required. If the EA says no EIS required, the agency can release a FONSI - a finding of no significant impact.
94
What does Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) mean?
Relates to air quality and requires that a project will not increase emissions above a specified PSD increment.
95
What are Ambient Air Quality Standards?
The maximum contaminant concentrations allowed in the ambient air.
96
Describe the Rivers and Harbors Act of 1899.
The Rivers and Harbors Act of 1899 is considered the oldest environmental law in the US. It prohibits the construction of any bridge, dam, dike, or causeway over any navigable waterway without Congressional approval.
97
Describe the Water Pollution Control Act of 1948.
Allowed the General Surgeon, in cooperation with other governmental entities, to prepare a comprehensive program for eliminating or reducing the pollution of interstate waters and tributaries and improving the sanitary condition of surface and underground waters.
98
Describe the Water Quality Act of 1965.
Established the Water Pollution Control Administration within the Department of Interior. First time water quality was treated as an environmental concern vs. a public health concern.
99
Describe the Coastal Zone Management Act of 1972.
(later amended in 1990) focused efforts to reduce polluted runoff in 29 coastal states.
100
Describe the Federal Water Pollution Control Act of 1972.
Amended the 1948 Act - broadened government's authority over water pollution and restructured the authority for water pollution under the EPA. It changed enforcement to focus on particular point sources, away from water quality standards.
101
Describe the Endangered Species Act of 1973.
Provides protection for plant and animal species that the US Fish and Wildlife Service designates as threatened or endangered.
102
Describe the Public Utility Regulatory Policy Act (PURPA) of 1978.
Promotes alternative energy sources, energy efficiency, and reduced dependency on foreign oil. Also created a market for non-utility power producers and requires competition in the utility industry.
103
Describe CERCLA (Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act) of 1980
Created a $1.6 billion Superfund to clean up abandoned hazardous waste sites and requires major industries to report annual releases of toxic wastes into the air, water, or ground. There are more than 1,200 superfund sites across the US. A tax on petroleum and chemical industries provide funding to help pay for the cleanup of superfund sites.
104
Describe the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) of 1976
Allowed the EPA to control hazardous waste from "cradle-to-grave" - i.e. throughout the process: generation, transportation, treatment, storage, disposal.
105
Describe the Toxic Substances Control Act of 1976
Provided EPA with responsibility for reporting, record-keeping and testing requirements, and restrictions relating to chemical substances/mixtures.
106
Describe the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) of 1947
Established procedures for registering pesticides with the US Department of Agriculture.
107
Describe the Safe Drinking Water Act (1974)
Protects both the sources of drinking water and the end product.
108
What is a brownfield?
"Real property, the expansion, redevelopment, or ruse of which may be complicated by the presence or potential presence of a hazardous substance. pollutant, or a contaminant. Cleaning up and reinvesting in these properties takes development pressures off of undeveloped or open land, and both improves and protects the environment ."
109
Describe the basic tenets of Environmental Justice.
President Clinton issued Executive Order 12898 in 1994 that requires that federal agencies strive to make achieving EJ part of their mission by addressing the DISPROPORTIONATE ADVERSE environmental and human health impacts of its policies, programs, and activities on minority and low-income populations. The EPA has an Office of EJ that guides government agencies. EJ is an issue in local land use planning, for example in the siting of toxic waste facility or other LULUs.
110
What is the national breakdown of energy sources in the US?
63% fossil fuels (split by coal and natural gas); 20% nuclear; and 17% renewable (wind and hydropower)
111
What is passive solar design?
Mitigates a building's energy needs. It maximizes the amount of direct sunlight available to each building.
112
Define and list seven components of economic development.
Supporting the economy of a community, state, region, or a nation. Economic development works by using governmetn inducements and assistance to create private investment, which is expected to have local economic benefits (multiplier effect). This includes: job creation, private business expansion, tax base expansion, wealth creation, quality of life, standard of living.
113
What is the multiplier effect?
The multiplier effect assumes that certain types of jobs will drive demand for other jobs.
114
What are enterprise zones?
Geographic areas in which companies can qualify for a number of subsidies to stay, locate, or expand in depressed areas. EZ subsidies often include a variety of corporate income tax credits, property tax abatements, and other tax exemptions and incentives.
115
What is Urban Design (very high level)?
The process of creating the physical setting for cities and urban spaces. This can involve the design of buildings, spaces, and landscapes.
116
What is context-sensitive design (CSD)?
Refers to roadway standards and development practices that are flexible and sensitive to community values.
117
What is a form-based code?
Form-based codes are a type of zoning code that regulates development to achieve a specific urban form. Form-based codes address the relationship between building facades and public realm, the form and mass of buildings in relation to one another, and the scale and type of of streets and blocks. Form-based codes also make use of "place types."
Conventional zoning codes focus on use; form-based codes focus on form.
118
What is New Urbanism?
Promotes compact, walkable neighborhoods. Its principles are defined the Charter of New Urbanism, which was adopted by the Congress for New Urbanism. The principles are meant to apply at the regional, neighborhood, and block levels.
119
What are some components in a New Urbanist neighborhood.
Mixed-use, mixed-income, walkable, variety of architectural styles, well-defined (edges and a center), and public green spaces. People should be able to access shopping, work, and school within a five minute walk, or at least be able to access transit within a five-minute walk.
120
What is the transect?
A conceptual device for orienting development on a rural to urban continuum. Often the basis of a form-based code.
121
What is tactical urbanism?
Low-cost temporary changes to the urban environment that are intended to demonstrate potential affects that change can have. For example, adding temporary street furniture, pop-up shops, etc.
122
What is transit-oriented development?
Mixed-use development designed to maximize access to public transportation.
123
When was the first model tenement built and where?
1855 in New York City
124
What was the Tenement House Act of 1867?
First major housing code in the US, requiring all rooms within tenements to have windows (did not require them to open to the outside).
125
What was the Tenement House Act of 1879?
Required all windows open to the outside, which resulted in dumbbell tenements ("Old Law" tenements) with open air shafts.
126
What as the Tenement House Law of 1901?
Outlawed dumbbell tenements - required wide light and air areas between buildings, as well as toilets and running water in each apartment unit.
127
What was the Public Works Administration (PWA) and when was it created?
In 1934 following the Great Depression provided 85% of the cost of public housing projects. This was the first federally supported housing program.
128
What was the National Housing Act of 1934?
Established the Federal Housing Administration with the purpose of insuring home mortgages.
129
What was the US Housing Act of 1937?
$500 million in home loans for the development of low-cost housing. This Act tied slum clearance to public housing.
130
How did the GI Bill (the Serviceman's Readjustment Act of 1944) affect housing?
Guaranteed home loans to veterans. Result was rapid development of the suburbs.
131
What was the Housing Act of 1949?
First comprehensive housing legislation; called for the construction of 800k new housing units and emphasize slum clearance.
132
What was the Housing Act of 1954?
Called for slum prevention and urban renewal. Additionally, provided funding for planning for cities under 25k. 701 funds were later expanded to allow for statewide, interstate, and regional planning.
133
What was the Housing Act of 1959?
Made federal matching funds available for comprehensive planning at the metropolitan, regional, state, and interstate levels.
134
What was the Housing Act of 1961?
Provided interest subsidies to nonprofit orgs, limited-dividend corporations, cooperatives, and public agencies for the construction of public housing projects for low and moderate income families to rent.
135
When, how, and why was the US Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) formed?
HUD was formed as a part of the Housing and Urban Development Act of 1965. The Act put in place rent subsidies for the poor, home loans at reduced interest rates, and subsidies for public housing projects.
136
When was Pruitt-Igoe demolished? When was it built? And what did its demolition signify?
Occupied in 1954, demolished in 1972. Marked a shift away from high-rise concentrated public housing.
137
What is the Community Development Block Grant Program (CDBG) and when was it developed and what Act was it created under?
In 1974, the CDBG was created under the Housing and Community Development Act. The grant program provides flexibility for communities to use federal funds for the improvement of blighted areas. Additionally, the Act created the Section 8 housing voucher program that provides rent subsidies for low-income housing (amending the 1937 Act).
138
What was the Urban Development Action Grant Program (UDAG) and when was it authorized?
In the 1977 amendments to the 1974 Housing and Community Development Act. UDAG promoted public-private partnerships for redeveloping urban areas. Required intergovernmental cooperation on the placement of projects and cut funding for Section 701 comprehensive planning program.
139
What was the National Affordable Housing Act of 1990?
Created the HOME program, which provides funds for housing rehab.
140
What is the HOPE VI program and when was it passed? What affect did it have on public housing as a whole?
Congress passed HOPE VI in 1992. HOPE VI provided funds for the redevelopment of severely distressed public housing. It also allowed for the demolition of public housing and the construction of new public housing in mixed-income neighborhoods, following the principles of New Urbanism. The result has been a deconcentration of public housing.
141
What is a Consolidated Plan? When did HUD require it?
In 1995, HUD required communities that receive HUD funding to complete a Consolidated Plan (took the place of CDBG, HOME, Emergency Shelter, and HOPWA applications). A CP is a process and a document through which a community identifies its housing, homeless, and community development needs and establishes multi-year goals and an annual action plan.
142
What is sweat equity?
The interest or increased value in a property earned from labor put towards the restoration of a property. Habitat for Humanity is an example of a sweat equity program.
143
What is workforce housing?
A term used for subsidized housing meant for teachers, nurses, police officers, and others in the workforce. The term is popular because it is seen as less controversial than "affordable housing."
144
What are community development banks?
Banks that operate in low- and moderate-income areas. They are certified by the US Dept of Treasury.
145
What was the first national park and when it was designated?
Yellowstone in 1872
146
When was the National Park Service created, and by who/which Act?
1916 by Woodrow Wilson when he signed the Organic Act of 1916
147
What is the difference between a neighborhood park and a community park?
A neighborhood park is small (less than five acres) and provides access to basic recreation for neighborhood residents and should be within walking/biking distance.
Community parks are larger (20-100 acres) and provide a mix of amenities to serve an entire community.
148
What is a Greenway?
Any scenic trail or route set aside for travel or recreational purposes.
149
Define "scenic resources."
Landscape patterns/features that are aesthetically pleasing and contribute to the distinctness of a community/region.
150
Define a "viewshed."
The area that is visible through a line of sight from a location.
151
Define a wildlife corridor.
The linkage that joins two similar wildlife habitats.
152
Define conservation easements.
Legal agreements between property owners and land trusts where the property owner agrees to place restrictions on the use of property to protect natural resources.
153
Define Transfer of Development Rights programs.
Allows for the transfer of development rights from an area that is designated for low-density development to an area planned for growth.
154
What was the Antiquities Act of 1906?
Established that archeological sites on public lands are public resources and obligated federal agencies to preserve sites for future generations. Additionally, it authorizes Presidents to protect landmarks, structures, and objects of historic or scientific interest by designating National Monuments.
155
What was the Organics Act of 1916?
Established the National Parks Service to manage national parks and national monuments.
156
What was the Historic Sites of 1935?
Sought to organize federally owned parks, monuments, and historic sites under the National Parks Service.
157
What was the Wilderness Act of 1964?
Created the National Wilderness Preservation System. The Act defined wilderness as "an area of undeveloped Federal land retailing its primeval character and influence without permanent improvements or human habitation." There is (as of 2016) more than 106 million acres of federal public lands designated as wilderness.
158
What was the National Wild and Scenic River Act of 1968?
Seeks to preserve rivers with outstanding natural, cultural, and recreational values in a free-flowing condition for future generations.
159
What is a food desert?
Areas that lack access to healthy food
160
What are Farm to School programs?
Connects fresh food from local farms to school cafeterias
161
What is a Food Policy Council (FPC)?
A group of individuals that advises government (local and state) on matters related to food policy
162
What is an Agricultural Land Trust?
Identifies agricultural lands that should be preserved and works with farm owners to participate in the trust via a conservation easement - an agreement between a landowner and a trust regarding the future uses of a private property
163
Define an historic district.
According to the National Register of Historic Places: "A geographically definable area, urban or rural, possessing a significant concentration, linkage, or continuity of sites, buildings, structures, or objects united by past events or aesthetically by plan or physical development. A district may also comprise individual elements separated geographically but linked by association or history."
164
What is the National Register of Historic Places, when was it created, and who oversees it?
It was created in 1966 and resides under the Department of Interior's National Park Service. Being listed does not protect properties from demolition, although it does provide some degree of protection if the federal government plans to alter the site. Mainly, being listed means properties qualify for federal tax incentives. A 20% income tax credit is available for the rehab of historic, income-producing buildings that are determined by the Secretary of the Interior through NPS to be "certified historic structures."
165
What is the National Trust for Historic Preservation?
A privately funded nonprofit organization established for the acquisition and administration of historic sites. Best known for its Main Streets program.
166
What Act established state State Historic Preservation Offices (SHPO)?
The National Historic Preservation Act of 1966
167
What is the Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System?
A phone survey to collect state-level data on the prevalence of behavioral risks in adults (smoking, physical activity)
168
Define health disparities.
Differences in the incidences of health conditions/diseases among varying population groups.
169
What is a Health Impact Assessment?
Uses quantitative and qualitative methods to assess the health consequences of a policy, project, or program where health is not the primary objective.
170
Define neighborhood planning.
A sub-city level of planning. Follows the same process. Public participation is a critical part of neighborhood planning. The limited geographic extent of a neighborhood plan can have drawbacks, such as a limited focus, fewer resources, and limited political influence.
