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Practice > Archer 3 > Flashcards

Archer 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Hyperkalemia can cause:

A

Renal failure

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2
Q

Hypokalemia can cause:

A

Hypomagnesium

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3
Q

Hypernatremia can cause:

A

Dehydration

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4
Q

Hyponatremia can cause:

A

Diarrhea

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5
Q

Hypocalcemia can cause:

A

Hypomagnesium

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6
Q

Alcoholism leads to:

A

Hypomagnesemia

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7
Q

Risk factors/ causes of hypermagnesemia include:

A

Renal failure, adrenal insufficiency (Addison’s disease), hypothyroidism, drugs like Lithium, and increased intake of magnesium salts/ magnesium-containing laxatives.

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8
Q

Hypoparathyroidism causes:

A

Hypocalcemia

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9
Q

The Bishop’s score determines:

A

Labor readiness

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10
Q

Fetal age is determined by:

A

Ultrasound

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11
Q

Headaches and warm flushed feelings are side effects of:

A

Nitroglycerin

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12
Q

Cranberry juice is an acid-ash food that lowers the:

A

Urine pH

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13
Q

When the client becomes hypotensive after an epidural anesthetic, the nurse should turn the client to the left side, apply oxygen by mask, and:

A

Increase the IV infusion

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14
Q

The need that you should include in a class related to nutrition during pregnancy for a group of young pregnant women is the need to increase caloric intake by about ___ calories during the second trimester of gestation. This caloric increase is necessary to support the growth and development of the developing fetus.

A

340

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15
Q

A caloric increase of about ___ calories is indicated during the third trimester of gestation

A

450

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16
Q

Should you elevate a patient’s operative arm after a hand arthroplasy?

A

NO

Placing the client’s operative arm on a pillow produces pressure on the ulnar nerve. This should not be included in the client’s care plan. The nurse should place the hand in a stockinette and suspend it from the bed.

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17
Q

The amputated fingers should be placed in a waterproof plastic bag and placed in ice water, not directly:

A

On ice

Ice should not come directly in contact with the amputated part because it can cause ice burns, and the fingers may not be able to be sewn back.

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18
Q

The second cranial nerve is the:

A

optic nerve

visual deficits place clients at risk for falls

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19
Q

The gastric analysis involves the insertion of a nasogastric tube and aspiration of gastric contents for analysis of pH, appearance, and volume. The patient needs to be:

A

NPO for 8-10 hrs.

Client can resume activities as normal right after the test

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20
Q

The patient should drink at least 2 liters of water daily when taking:

A

Lithium

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21
Q

The dosage range of hydro codeine for children from 2 years of age to 12 years of age is from:

A

1.25 mg to 5 mg of hydrocodone q4h to q6h

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22
Q

Live vaccines are contraindicated in:

A
  • Severely immunocompromised individuals (s (lymphoma, leukemia)
  • Pregnant women
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23
Q

NG tubes should be watered every 4 hours with:

A

30 – 50 mL of water or normal saline

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24
Q

A person of the Orthodox faith should be able to unwrap

A

The utensils and prepare his meal

The nurse should not assist or touch the kosher meal in any way

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25
Q

Screening tools for alcohol abuse:

A
  • CAGE
  • TWEAK
  • AUDIT-C
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26
Q

Diabetes mellitus is known to cause delayed wound healing because of damage to the body’s blood vessels. _________ occurs when the wound’s edges break open at the site.

A

Wound dehiscence

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27
Q

A 60-year-old woman who smokes cigarettes is at risk of developing:

A

Osteoporosis

(occurs more frequently in women than men and occurs more regularly in patients who smoke, consume alcohol, and are over the age of 50. Genetics also play a role)

28
Q

Ascites is a symptom of:

A

Right sided heart failure

29
Q

Crackles and wheezes upon respiratory auscultation is a sign of:

A

Left sided heart failure

30
Q

Patients about to undergo a suctioning procedure should first be:

A

Hyper oxygenated

31
Q

The patient taking phenazopyridine should be taught that after taking this medication the urine will be:

A

reddish or orange

32
Q

Phenazopyridine should be taken with ____ and at what time of the day?

A
  • Food

- At any time during the day

33
Q

A patient is scheduled to undergo a CT scan with intravenous contrast dye. Should the nurse Cancel the CT scan if the patient reports shellfish allergy?

A

NO

(There is no evidence to support this notion, and therefore, current guidelines do not suggest treatment plan modification based on a history of shellfish or seafood allergy alone)

34
Q

Should the nurse encourge fluids when the patient returns from a CT scan?

A

YES

(Contrast dye can be toxic to the kidneys and may result in renal failure. The risk of contrast-induced nephropathy is more in those who are dehydrated, those on diuretics, and those who have underlying co-morbidities such as diabetes. The nurse needs to encourage adequate fluid intake to promote the flush out of the contrast dye)

35
Q

Clients receiving TPN are very susceptible to infection. The concentrated glucose solutions are an excellent medium for bacterial growth. Strict _______ is crucial in preventing disease at the IV infusion site.

A

Sterile technique

36
Q

A patient with SLE needs monthly:

A

urine specimens

to check for proteinuria and any kidney functioning damage

37
Q

Order of Physical Assessment?

A

Inspection
Palpation
Percussion
Auscultation

38
Q

Order of Abdominal Assessment?

A

Inspect
Auscultate
Percuss
Palpate the abdomen.

39
Q

The nose and ears of the aging client become more:

A

Extended and broader

40
Q

An adverse effect of amiodarone is:
Amiodarone may cause __ prolongation:
What may interfere with amiodarone:

A
  • Hypotension
  • QT (which can lead to worsening arrhythmias)
  • Grapefruit and grapefruit juice
41
Q

A severe side effect of theophylline is an increased or erratic:
Theophylline should be given:
Other common side effects of theophylline include:

A
  • Pulse rate
  • On an empty stomach with a full glass of water
  • Nausea, diarrhea, headache, insomnia, restlessness, vomiting, and seizures
42
Q

Patent Ductus Arteriosus can lead to:

A

CHF

43
Q

A machine-like murmur, a hallmark sign of:

A

Patent Ductus Arteriosus

44
Q

Aortic stenosis is the narrowing of the:

This would result in a _____ murmur:

A
  • Aortic valve

- Systolic

45
Q

A ventricular septal defect (VSD) is an abnormal opening between:
A large VSD can cause congestive heart failure in an infant but this would result in a _____ murmur:

A
  • The left and right ventricles

- Pan-systolic

46
Q

A stoma that has retracted will appear:

A

Concave and bowl-shaped

47
Q

A narrow, flattened, or constricted stoma indicates:

A

Stenosis

48
Q

A dry, dusky, or reddish-purple stoma indicates:

A

Ischemia

49
Q

______ and ______ are the usual prescriptions for Lyme Disease

A

Doxycycline

Amoxicilin

50
Q

Enalapril (Vasotec) is prescribed for:

A

Hypertension and congestive heart failure

51
Q

Simvastatin (Zocor) reduces:

A

Cholesterol

52
Q

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) causes the excretion of:

A

Sodium

53
Q

Potential causes of hypercalcemia:

A
  • Administration of thiazide diuretics

- Bed rest

54
Q

The nurse should always assess for fluid volume _____ in a patient with Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)

A

Overload

55
Q

It will be a very important nursing intervention to frequently ______ the patient who has just received electroconvulsive therapy

A

Reorient

(This is because temporary memory loss is associated with this procedure, so they will likely be very confused and disoriented. Due to this disorientation, they will likely be scared, and to make them feel safe and secure the nurse will need to frequently reorient them to their place and situation)

56
Q

It will be a very important nursing intervention to ______ with the patient who has just received electroconvulsive therapy.

A

Remain

(A side effect of electroconvulsive therapy is temporary memory loss. They will be disoriented and confused, so the nurse must remain with them at all times to keep them safe)

57
Q

How do you position a patient who is being treated with electroconvulsive treatment (ECT)?

A

On their side

This will prevent anything from entering her airway and causing an aspiration event

58
Q

Proper flow of blood through the heart:

A

Superior and Inferior vena cavas → Right atrium → tricuspid valve → Right ventricle → pulmonary valve → pulmonary artery → lungs → pulmonary veins → left atrium → mitral valve → left ventricle → aortic valve → aorta → systemic circulation.

59
Q

When looking for trends in a postoperative patient’s vital signs. which documents would the nurse review first?

A

Graphic Record

60
Q

An assessment of the urinary output and sodium is not relative to:

A

Digitalis Toxicity

61
Q

Birth weight should double by __ months of age in the normal infant:

A

6

62
Q

The posterior fontanelle should close between __ and __ months of age:

A

1

2

63
Q

The anterior fontanelle closes between __ and __ months of age:

A

9

18

64
Q

Birth weight should in fact ______ by the infant’s first birthday:

A

Triple

(For example, if the infant was born to weigh 7 pounds, he or she should be 21 pounds by the time they are 12 months old. This is an important milestone in the growth that occurs during infancy)

65
Q

Using cold washcloths and compresses is contraindicated as cool temperatures can increase sickling and ____ the crisis

A

Worsen

(Warm compresses are appropriate as a nonpharmacologic intervention for pain control if the patient feels that it helps their pain)

Practice (11 decks)

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