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Practice > Archer 2 > Flashcards

Archer 2 Flashcards

1
Q

The manner or pattern of physical growth for the human fetus, infant, and young child is from the:

A

cephalon to the caudal parts of the body

This pattern from head to toe is often referred to as cephalocaudal growth, and it is seen in the fetus and infant because the administrator of this human is far larger proportionately to the rest of the body.

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2
Q

Sign of a serious side effect of Prednisone:

A

Decreased ACTH levels; stomach, muscle weakness, muscle pains

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3
Q

Common side effect of prednisone in children:

A

Decreased respirations

however, this is not a life-threatening side effect

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4
Q

Prednisone can result in _________appearance

A

Cushingoid (ex. Weight gain and increased hair growth)

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5
Q

Colostomy changes and TPN must not be assigned to :

A

UAP

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6
Q

During bronchoscopy, the stimulation of the pharynx may cause stimulation of the vagus nerve resulting in a vasovagal response that is manifested by a sudden drop in the client’s:

A

Heart Rate

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7
Q

Stimulation of the vagus nerve does not cause ______ or ______. Also, in a vasovagal response, an ______ in gastric secretion is noted.

A
  • dilation of the pupils or bronchodilation

- increase

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8
Q

A 15- degree angle is used for:

A

intradermal injections

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9
Q

A 45-degree perspective is used for:

A

subcutaneous injections

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10
Q

A 90-degree angle is used for:

A

intramuscular injections

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11
Q

An expected event during the early postburn period is fluid shifting, where large amounts of plasma fluid extravasates into interstitial spaces. To address the fluid loss, the best intervention would be to administer:

A

crystalloid and colloid solutions

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12
Q

Medical antishock trousers are applied when the client is already in:

A

hypovolemic shock

It is not used for prevention

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13
Q

Dopamine causes:

A

vasoconstriction and raises blood pressure

does not prevent hypovolemia from burning clients

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14
Q

An expected response to the intravenous administration of contrast dye:

A

Flushing of the face

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15
Q

The complete or partial separation of the placenta from the uterine wall:

A

abruptio placentae

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16
Q

The placenta is implanted in the lower segment of the uterus that either entirely or partially covers the cervical os:

A

Placenta previa

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17
Q

Happens during labor when the uterine contents are extruded through the uterine wall:

A

massive uterine rupture

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18
Q

Melena would indicate:

A

upper GI bleeding

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19
Q

“Currant jelly” stools are characteristic manifestations of:

A

intussusception

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20
Q

Projectile vomiting is a manifestation of:

A

pyloric stenosis

This occurs due to the closure of the pyloric sphincter, which closes off the pathway of the food from the stomach

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21
Q

Steatorrhea or feces with excessive fat is a normal stool for:

A

malabsorption disorders

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22
Q

curative care aims to correct:

A

chronic and acute disorders

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23
Q

palliative care aims to manage:

A

symptoms such as the end of life symptoms and pain using both pharmacological and non-pharmacological pain interventions, in addition to the provision of comfort at the end of life.

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24
Q

Leg cramps may occur due to a low:

A

potassium level (hypokalemia), a common complication of loop diuretics.

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25
Q

Distended neck veins may indicate:

A

fluid overload, CHF, or a Cardiac tamponade

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26
Q

Crackles and rhonchi are manifestations of:

A

pulmonary edema and fluid in the alveoli

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27
Q

bumetanide (Bumex) is a:

A

loop diuretic (can be given to a pt with pulmonary edema)

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28
Q

An ______ in urine output is the desired effect of the medication Bumetanide (Bumex), not its complication.

A

increase

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29
Q

The family that is not sharing this loss and their accompanying grief with people outside of their family who have in the past served as the family’s support system because of the damage associated with giving a child up for adoption is experiencing:

A

disenfranchised grief

(Disenfranchised grief occurs after an injury that is not socially, culturally, religiously, or otherwise not acceptable, such as an abortion, a suicide, and an adoption)

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30
Q

Can a nurse or other healthcare workers witness a living will?

A

NO

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31
Q

If the client is deemed not competent to sign the consent, the _______ is the one that signs the consent for the client.

A

next-of-kin

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32
Q

Approximately __% of people without a prior history of substance abuse, who take narcotic analgesics for pain become addicted to them

A

5

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33
Q

Borderline personality disorder (BPD) is a common personality disorder that features extreme emotional:

A

lability, Impulsivity, self-mutilative behaviors and manipulating mannerisms

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34
Q

An expected finding with a paranoid personality disorder:

A

Hypervigilance

35
Q

Priming new intravenous tubing is done to prevent a medical emergency known as an:

A

Air embolisim

36
Q

A patient new to warfarin therapy and who is on epidural anesthesia should not be initiated on warfarin because they are at an increased:

A

Risk for bleeding

37
Q

Normal platelet count is greater than:

A

150,000/microliter

38
Q

Often, anticoagulation is held once platelets are lower than:

A

50,000

39
Q

Platelet count less than 50,000 is associated with:

A

increased risk of intracranial bleeding

40
Q

If the nurse suspects that his patient is experiencing a spinal cord compression, _________ should be upheld until spinal stability is evaluated.

A

strict bed rest

41
Q

To test peripheral responses to pain, health care providers should apply pressure to outer body parts such as the:

A

toes or fingers

42
Q

Sternal rubs are most often used to test:

A

consciousness

43
Q

A patient who is suspected of having appendicitis who suddenly feels better has likely experienced a rupture of the:

A

appendix

44
Q

Neo-Synephrine nasal spray should be used for how long?

A

No longer than 3-5 days

(To help reduce the risk of rebound congestion)

Can be used q3-4 hours as needed for 3-5 days.

45
Q

To monitor for signs of nephrotoxicity; the nurse should monitor the results of _______ tests closely while the patient is taking gentamicin.

A

kidney function

46
Q

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs from the highest to the least priority:

A 
Physiological needs
Safety
Love and belonging
Esteem
Self-actualization
47
Q

Signs/symptoms of the _____ stage include anasarca (generalized edema), decreased responsiveness, decreased urine output, weak pulses, hypotension, and tachycardia.

A

progressive

48
Q

The compensatory stage of shock is the ____ stage, characterized by hypotension, vasoconstriction, decreased blood flow to the lungs, and cold/clammy skin.

A

first

49
Q

The _______ stage is the final stage of shock, characterized by decreased perfusion due to decreased cardiac output, hypotension, hypoxemia, cyanotic skin, vasoconstriction, bradycardia, and unresponsiveness.

A

irreversible

50
Q

The ________ stage is an alternative term for the compensatory stage.

A

nonprogressive

51
Q

Dietary recommendations for reducing coronary artery disease (CAD) risk include:

A

increasing dietary complex carbohydrates and vegetable proteins, reducing sodium intake, reducing caloric intake to achieve/maintain ideal body weight, and limiting dietary cholesterol and total and saturated (animal) fats.

52
Q

The BMI range of 25-29.9 is considered:

A

overweight

53
Q

The target BMI range is:

A

18.5-24.9.

54
Q

What kind of precautions do you put in place for a patient suspected of having impetigo:

A

Standard precautions

Contact precautions

55
Q

Preeclampsia can develop up to __ weeks after delivery and is a life-threatening condition

A

6

56
Q

Blood pressure above 140/90, proteinuria, and swelling (usually in the hands, face, and feet) are signs of:

A

Preeclampsia

57
Q

Preeclampsia can lead to:

A

seizures, pulmonary edema, stroke, thromboembolism, and death

58
Q

Symptoms of thrombocytopenia include:

A 
Petechiae
Fatigue
Purpura
Prolonged bleeding cuts
Spontaneous bleeding
Jaundice
Heavy menses
Bloody stool
Enlarged spleen
Deep Vein Thrombosis
59
Q

A patient taking MAOI’s should be taught to avoid which foods:

A

Foods high in tryptophan, tyramine, and caffeine, such as chocolate and cheese

(may precipitate hypertensive crisis)

60
Q

Cushing’s disease and Conn’s syndrome are endocrine disorders that can cause an increased amount of ______.

A

aldosterone

61
Q

D2.5 W and 0.33% NS are what type of solutions?

A

hypotonic solution

62
Q

D51/4NS is what type of solution?

A

isotonic solution

63
Q

D5NS is what type of solution?

A

hypertonic solution

64
Q

Pneumothorax and Narcotic overdose are potential causes of:

A

respiratory acidosis

65
Q

Aspirin overdose and anxiety can cause:

A

respiratory alkalosis

66
Q

If the pulse is irregular, the correct protocol is to assess for a:

A

Pulse deficit

67
Q

After a patient experiences a MVA and suffering a complete spinal cord injury to L3. the nurses would assess for loss of motor function in the:

A

Arms

68
Q

Innervation of the abdomen corresponds to __ to __ injury.

A

T9

T12

69
Q

Innervation of the arm correlates with __ to __.

A

C5

T1

70
Q

Injury to __-__ correlates with chest innervation.

A

T1

T8

71
Q

When using a metered-dose inhaler the patient should inhale through the:

A

Mouth

not the nose

72
Q

The heart is a double pump with ___ chambers, ___, and a conduction system that has a pacemaker originating in the atrium.

A

4

4

73
Q

The conduction system of the heart begins in the:

A

atrium

74
Q

Diet for cystic fibrosis patient:

A

High Fat

High Protein

75
Q

A 25-year-old female reports intermittent abdominal pain. Bloating. And flatulence that has lasted for several months. Which of the following would the nurse tell the patient to avoid?

A

Broccoli

76
Q

Compressions should be done at a rate of __ to __ compressions per minute at a depth of about __ inches for infants, about __ inches for children, and at least __ inches but no greater than __ inches for adolescents. If rescuers are unwilling or unable to deliver breaths, they should perform compression-only CPR.

A 
100
120
1.5
2
2
2.4
77
Q

The nurse is caring for a 5-year-old girl diagnosed with hemophilia with a recurrent episode of hemarthrosis. Which of the following should the nurse assess?

A

Joint pain and swelling

Bruising

78
Q

Melena is characterized by:

A

black, tarry stools and is due to upper gastrointestinal bleed

79
Q

Expected clinical manifestation of heart failure in infants and children:

A

Diaphoresis, or increased sweating

Weight gain

80
Q

Right-sided heart failure manifest with:

A

liver enlargement (hepatomegaly), ascites, pleural effusion, peripheral edema, and jugular venous distension.

81
Q

Left-sided heart failure manifests with:

A

tachypnea, intercostal retractions, nasal flaring or grunting, rales, and pulmonary edema.

82
Q

An inherited disease causing excessive, thick mucus to build up in the body and cause blockages:

A

Cystic Fibrosis

83
Q

A maternal infection that is known to increase the risk that the fetus will have a congenital heart defect:

A

Rubella

All mothers should be tested for Rubella, and if found to be positive, should have a fetal echocardiogram performed to evaluate the fetus’s heart more closely:

Practice (11 decks)

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