Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Family Medicine Clerkship > Aquifer 3 > Flashcards

Aquifer 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Define orthostasis.

A

Reduction of systolic or diastolic blood pressure of at least 20 or 10 mmHg respectively, measured 3 minutes after going from supine to standing or sitting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When should AFib be suspected?

A

Dizziness, syncope, dyspnea, or palpitations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How is AFib diagnosed?

A

EKG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The prevalence of AFib increases with what factors?

A

Age, severity of CHF or valvular heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define new onset AFib.

A

AFib less than 72 hours total duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the two types of chronic AFib?

A

Persistent
Paroxysmal - recurs and then reverts back to normal rhythm spontaneously, variable periods of normal sinus rhythm between episodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

List the 4 major cardio/cerebrovascular mechanisms of TIAs or stroke.

A
  1. Embolic (most commonly from the heart or carotid artery; arrhythmias may produce emboli)
  2. Thrombotic (native within the intracranial vasculature)
  3. Cardiogenic (decreased cerebral perfusion due to decreased CO, severe hypotension, or hypoxemia)
  4. Hemorrhagic (secondary to pathologic changes in the brain due to aging, smoking, HTN, hyperlipidemia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

85% of strokes are caused by ___.

A

Vascular occlusion (thrombotic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are two other categories of possible mechanisms of TIA/stroke?

A

Hematologic (hyperviscosity or myeloproliferative syndromes, vascular obstruction from sickle cell, severe anemia, and conditions associated with hypercoagulable states)

Vascular (HTN leading o thrombosis or bleeding, atherosclerotic emboli from carotid or vertebral plaques, extrinsic compression of cranial vessels, vasospasm, vasculitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Individuals experiencing TIA symptoms have been shown to have a ___% chance of having a stroke within 1 week and a ___% chance of having a stroke within 1 month.

A

8-12; 11-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If given within ___ hours, IV tPA has proven benefit in salvaging hypoxic brain tissue. Intra-arterial therapy improves functional outcomes if it can be given with ___ hours.

A

3; 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Thrombolytic therapy should not be delayed while awaiting lab results unless what 3 things?

A
  1. Clinical suspicion of a bleeding abnormality or thrombocytopenia
  2. Patient has received heparin or warfarin
  3. Use of anticoagulants is not known
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Causes of AF with Rapid Ventricular Response?

A

Fever, myocarditis, pericarditis, volume contraction, thyrotoxicosis, endogenous catecholamines, and AV nodal dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the difference between rate and rhythm control of AF with RVR?

A

Rate control - controlling the HR with IV diltiazem, beta-blockers, or verapamil to improve blood flow; does not delay immediate need for emergency stroke treatment

Rhythm control - cardioversion (electric shock or medications); both methods carry a risk of stroke, greatest in patients who have had AFib for more than 48 hours who have not been given 3 weeks of prior anticoagulant therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Symptoms of right parietal infarct?

A

Right-hand dominant patients will have left hemiplegia; right MCA infarcts affecting the right pareital hemisphere may also have difficulties with spatial and perceptual abilities; may also have denial of stroke disability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Symptoms of a stroke in the brain stem?

A

Respiratory impairment, affects vital functions of BP, HR, consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Symptoms of a left MCA stroke?

A

Expressive and receptive aphasia and right facial weakeness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Compare the facial effects of a central facial nerve injury (stroke) vs. a peripheral facial nerve injury (Bell’s palsy).

A

Central (stroke) - spares forehead due to bilateral central control
Peripheral - weakness in the forehead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are 3 common stroke complications?

A
  1. Aspiration pneumonia
  2. Malnutrition/dehydration
  3. Pressure sores
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the difference between basic and instrumental activities of daily living?

A

Basic - bathing, dressing/undressing, eating, transferring from bed to chair and back, voluntarily control urinary and fecal discharge, using the toilet, walking

Instrumental - not necessary for fundamental functioning, but enable the individual to live independently within a community - light housework, preparing meals, taking medications, shopping for groceries/clothes, using the phone, managing money

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which ethnic group has the highest rates of CHD in America?

A

African Americans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

1/3 of stroke survivors experience ___.

A

Post-stroke depression (mood disorder due to the direct physiological effects of another medical condition)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does the TUG Test measure?

A

Mobility and fall risk in people who are able to walk on their own

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe the TUG Test.

A

Sit in the chair with your back to the chair and your arms resting in your lap. Without using your arms, stand up from the chair and walk 10 feet . Turn around, walk back to the chair, and sit down again. Time from starting to rise from the chair to sitting down. Give 1 practice trial and 3 actual trials. Average the results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Explain the results of the TUG test.

A

<10 seconds - freely mobile
<20 seconds - mostly independent
20-29 seconds - variable mobility
>30 seconds - impaired mobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is one of the most sensitive tests for upper extremity weakness?

A

Pronator drift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the 3 options recommended by the AHA/ASA for First Stroke Prevention?

A
  1. Adjusted-dose warfarin (target INR 2-3) - all patients with nonvalvular AF deemed to be at high risk and many deemed at moderate risk who can receive it safely
  2. Antiplatelet therapy with aspirin - low-risk and some moderate-risk patients with AF (patient preference, bleeding risk, access to monitoring)
  3. Dual anti-platelet therapy with clopidogrel and aspirin - offers more protection against stroke than aspirin alone, but with an increased risk of major bleeding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the 2 options recommended by the AHA/ASA for Stroke Prevention in patients wiht a history of stroke or TIA?

A
  1. Patients with ischemic stroke or TIA with paroxysmal or permanent AF: anticoagulation with vitamin K antagonist (target INR, 2.5, range 2-3)
  2. Patients unable to take oral anticoagulants - aspirin alone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What antithrombotic agents are indicated for the prevention of first and recurrent stroke in patients with nonvalvular AF?

A

Warfarin, dabigatran, apixaban, rivaroxaban

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What validated instrument applies known CV risk factors to provide calculated guidance to weight the risks and benefits of anticoagulation?

A

CHADS2 score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The PROTECT program recommends 8 secondary prevention goals after a stroke - what are the 4 aimed at treatable risk factors?

A
  1. Hyperlipidemia - high-intensity statin
  2. HTN - antihypertensive treatment (goal - 130/80)
    3 and 4?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The PROTECT program recommends 8 secondary prevention goals after a stroke - what are the 4 aimed at modifiable lifestyle risk factors?

A
  1. Smoking - stop
  2. Diet - Mediterranean diet to reduce risk + limit sodium to 2,400 mg/day or less if HTN
  3. Physical activity - moderate-to-vigorous intensity activity 3-4x/week for 40 minutes/session
  4. Stroke education - warning signs, awareness of individual risk factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the high intensity statins and doses?

A

Atorvastatin (40 or 80 mg) or Rosuvastatin (20 mg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When should a CT/MRI be done when evaluating a patient with suspected acute ischemic stroke?

A

Before initiating any specific therapy to treat acute ischemic stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

List the recommended tests for the initial emergency evaluation of a patient with suspected acute ischemic stroke.

A
  1. CT/MRI
  2. Renal function/electrolytes
  3. EKG
  4. Markers for cardiac ischemia
  5. CBC and PT/PTT
  6. O2 Sat (hypoxic patients should receive O2)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

DDx - Dizziness/Lightheadedness with FOcal Neurologic Findings

A

Most likely - seizure, stroke, TIA, CAD, medication side effect

Less likely - brain tumor, hypoglycemia, temporal arteritis, hypokalemia, periodic paralysis, hemiplegic migraine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are some possible presenting features of seizure?

A

Aura of dizziness or lightheadedness, other auras arising from the temporal lobe; may occur with sudden and extreme elevations of BP associated with papilledema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Seizures may be followed by a brief period of temporary ___ on one side of the body; may also affect speech and vision. What is the average duration?

A

Paralysis (Todd’s paralysis); 15 hours, but can last from 30 minutes to 36 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is a hallmark of seizure disorder?

A

Amnesia for the event and aleration of consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When should a seizure be considered unlikely?

A

If the patient has recall of the event, no post-ictal period of confusion, and no evidence of focal findings, oral injury, or urinary/fecal soiling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is a cardinal feature of stroke?

A

Focal neurologic deficits such as arm paresthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

True or false - dizziness and lightheadedness are not common presentations of brain tumor.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Patients with temporal arteritis may present with ___ and ___.

A

Amaurosis fugax (transient monocular loss of vision) and cranial bruits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

NSAIDs may increase the effectiveness of ___ and decrease the effectiveness of ___.

A

Sulfonylureas; HTN medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

GPTAL?

A 
Gravida (# pregnancies)
Term
Preterm
Abortions (spontaneous or induced)
Living
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

DDx - pediatric fever, sore throat, cough, and rash

A

Most likely - viral pharyngitis, GABHS pharyngitis

Less likely - epiglottitis, pertussis, mononucleosis, retropharyngeal abscess, viral croup, allergic rhinitis/pharyngitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Most common cause of sore throat?

A

Viral pharyngitis (rhinovirus, coronarvirus, adenovirus)

48
Q

Discuss the presentation of viral pharyngitis.

A
  1. Can be variable
  2. Throat irritation, fever (usually low grade if present), rash (viral exanthem in children), rhinorhea, cough, congestion
  3. Sore throat is often the first symptom of a viral URI
  4. Stomatitis and conjunctivitis also suggest a viral etiology
49
Q

What is the most common bacterial cause of pharyngitis?

A

GABHS

50
Q

Describe the rash that may accompany GABHS pharyngitis with scarlet fever; what other symptoms are seen in scarlet fever?

A

Punctate, diffuse, erythematous, finely papular, blacnching, frequently described as “sandpaper” texture; begins around the neck, axilla, and groin (accentuated in body folds and creases - Pastia’s lines), then spreads over the trunk and extremities

Pharynx and tonsils are erythematous and covered with exudates; strawberry tongue (bright red with white coating)

51
Q

Discuss the presentation of bacterial pharyngitis.

A
  1. Usually do NOT have rhinorrhea, cough, or conjunctiitis
  2. Palatal petechiae may be present (7% sensitive, but 95% specific)
  3. Fever, sore throat, tender cervical lymphadenopathy
52
Q

Discuss the presentation of epiglottitis.

A
  1. Ill-appearing
  2. High fever (>103)
  3. Inspiratory stridor, “hot potato” (muffled) voice, dysphagia, drooling
  4. Seated in tripod position
  5. Rapid onset
  6. Ages 1-6 years old
53
Q

Discuss the presentation of pertussis.

A
  1. Initial - non-specific, similar to those of a common cold (runny nose, low-grade fever, mild cough) - peak by day 3, resolve slowly by days 7-10.
  2. Consider pertussis when the cough has worsened and has been present for at least 14 days
54
Q

Classic presentation of infectious mono in children and young adults (triad)?

A

Fever, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy (posterior cervical is common and specific for mono)

55
Q

Other presenting features of mono?

A
  1. Palatal petechie on the posterior oropharynx (distinguishes mono from viral pharyngitis, but not bacterial
  2. Hepatosplenomegaly
  3. Early in the course, patients may present with a maculopapular generalized rash - faint, rapidly disappears, nonpruritic
56
Q

When should mono be suspected?

A

Negative rapid strep or throat culture in a patient who is ill for more than 7-10 days

57
Q

When will the monospot first become positive?

A

7 days into the illness

58
Q

What happens if patients with mono are misdiagnosed with strep and treated with amoxicillin or ampicillin?

A

90% will develop a classic prolonged, pruritic, maculopapular rash

59
Q

Presentation of retropharyngeal abscess?

A

Fever, difficulty swallowing, neck or ear pain, muffled hot potato voice, asymmetric tonsillar enlargement and/or deviation of the uvula; ill-appearing; emergent condition

60
Q

Presentation of viral croup?

A

Prodrome of mild fever

Sore throat, barking cough, inspiratory stridor, hoarse voice; clinical diagnosis

61
Q

What is the Steeple sign?

A

Radiographic finding indicating croup - narrowing of the trachea as it joins to the larynx and is the result of a narrowed column of subglottic air

62
Q

Presentation of allergic rhinits/pharyngitis?

A

Sore throat, sneezing, itchy and watery eyes, clear rhinorrhea, post-nasal drip, NO fever or constitutional symptoms; seasonal

63
Q

DDx - acute pediatric cough

A

URIs, asthma exacerbation, bronchioitis

64
Q

Does nasal discharge that begins clear and progresses to colored predict bacterial involvement?

A

No

65
Q

What causes bronchiolitis?

A

Viruses like RSV

66
Q

Who gets bronchiolitis?

A

Young children, with the incidence peaking at 6 months of age

67
Q

DDx - acute pedatric cough and fever

A

Bacterial pneumonia, viral pneumonia, atypical pneumonia, acute bronchitis, influenza, GABHS pharyngitis

68
Q

Most common cause of bacterial pneumonia?

A

S. pneumoniae

69
Q

Discuss the presentation of bacterial pneumonia in children.

A
  1. Characterized by a temperature greater than 100.4 F
  2. Often presents abruptly in children with fever and sputum production
  3. NO prodromal symptoms like rhinorrhea or myalgias
  4. Pleuritic chest pain, fever, chills, dyspnea, cough (may not be prominent)
  5. Pleural effusion in ~50% of patients
  6. Crackles; focal wheezing or whistling, decreased breath sounds in one lung field
70
Q

Cardinal feature of pneumonia?

A

Crackles

71
Q

Viral pneumonia is often characterized by an atypical presentation - explain.

A

Chills, fever, dry, non-productive cough, predominance of extrapulmonary symptoms such as GI symptoms and arthralgias

72
Q

What can cause viral pneumonia?

A

Influenza (especially community outrbreak in winter), RSV in children/immunosuppressed, measles or varicella (with characteristic rashes); adenovirus, rhinovirus, parainfluenzavirus

73
Q

Viral pneumonia is most common in children of what ages?

A

4 months to 5 years

74
Q

What is the key factor in differentiating between typical and atypical pneumonia?

A

Patient’s age; young adults are more prone to atypical causes (Mycoplasma, Chlamydia pneumoniae), very young and old are more prone to typical causes

75
Q

In one study, patients with bacterial pneumonia were significantly more likely to present with ___ crackles wherea patients with atypical pneumonia were more likely to present with ___ crackles.

A

Pan-inspiratory; late-inspiratory

76
Q

Acute bronchitis is self-limited inflammation of the large airways in the lung characterized by ___. The cause is usually ___. How can it be distinguished from an URI?

A

Cough; viral; coughing persists for more than 5 days

77
Q

Presenting features of influenza?

A

Upper and lower respiratory tract symptoms accompanied by systemic symptoms such as severe myalgia, fever, (high fever of 102-104 and chills are common) headache, weakness

78
Q

Influenza is so ___ that patients can often tell the precise time of onset.

A

Abrupt

79
Q

___ are a result of the complications of influenza and not one of its primary physical exam findings.

A

Rhonchi

80
Q

When can a child with influenza return to school?

A

When most symptom have improved and the child ha been afebrile for 24 hours

81
Q

Discuss the course of influenza.

A

Fever for 3-5 days, cough and fatigue lasting up to 2 weeks after initial illness

82
Q

How is influenza tested?

A

Nasopharyngeal swab

83
Q

Signals of complications of influenza?

A

Symptoms lasting longer than 5-7 days without any relief, difficulty breathing, worsening cough, difficulty maintaining hydration

84
Q

What are the two most common complications of influenza in children?

A

Bacterial pneumonia, otitis media

Less common - aseptic meningitis, Guillain-barre, febrile seizures; Rare - myositis, myocarditis

85
Q

First line treatment of children 3 months to adolescence with strep pneumonia?

A

Amoxicillin 90 mg/kg/day divided in 3 doses for 7-10 days

86
Q

Treatment of school age children with a clinical presentation consistent with atypical pneumonia?

A

Macrolides such as azithromycin 10 mg/kg on day 1 followed by 5 mg/kg on days 2-5

87
Q

For children 0-3 weeks, what are the primary causes of pediatric pneumonia, hospital admission criteria, and inpatient/outpatient treatment?

A

E. coli, GBS, L. monocytogenes

Admit all infants

Ampicillin and Gentamicin

88
Q

For children 3 weeks-3 months, what are the primary causes of pediatric pneumonia, hospital admission criteria, and inpatient/outpatient treatment?

A

S. pneumonia, chlamydia trachomatis, adenovirus, influenza virus, RSV, and parainfluenza virus

Admit if concern for bacterial pneumonia or respiratory distress

Treatment - ampicillin or penicillin G or ceftriaxone if child isn’t immunized or there are resistant strains

89
Q

For children 3 months- 5 years, what are the primary causes of pediatric pneumonia, hospital admission criteria, and inpatient/outpatient treatment?

A

Chlamydia pneumoniae, Mycoplasma, strep pneumo, adenovirus, influenza, parainfluenza, rhinovirus, RSV

Moderate to severe pneumonia (respiratory distress with O2 <90%), hypoxia, RR> 70, difficulty breathing, intermittent apnea, lac of family support and concern for follow-up, pneumonia caused by virulent pathogen (MRSA)

Inpatient - ampicillin or penicillin G, ceftriaxone if child isn’t immunized or if there are resistant strains

Outpatient - amoxicillin for 7-10 days

90
Q

For children 5 years to adolescence, what are the primary causes of pediatric pneumonia, hospital admission criteria, and inpatient/outpatient treatment?

A

C. pneumoniae, M. pneumoniae, S. pneumoniae

RR>50, hypoxic or in distress, lack of family support to care for them when ill

Treatment - azithromycin

91
Q

When should influenza be treated with antivirals?

A

Within the first 48 hours of illness or moderate to severe community acquired pneumonia or clinical worsening at the time of the initial visit

92
Q

How should the modified centor criteria be used?

A

Used to rule out strep, NOT to diagnose it (good negative predictive value, poor PPV)

93
Q

What are the Centor criteria?

A 
Tonsillar exudate or erythema (+1)
Anterior cervical adenopathy (+1)
Cough ABSENT (+1)
Fever present (+1)
Age: 3-14 (+1), 15-45 (0), 46+ (-1)
94
Q

What are the indications for various Centor scores in children?

A

2-5: rapid antigen test
0 or 1: symptomatic treatment, no testing

If rapid antigen is positive, treat with antibiotics; if negative, do a confirmatory strep culture.

95
Q

What are the indications for various Centor scores in adults?

A

3-5: rapid antigen test
0-2: symptomatic treatment without testing

If rapid antigen is positive, treat with antibiotics; if negative, symptomatic treatment without further testing unless high risk

96
Q

Complications of GABHS pharyngitis?

A

Rheumatic fever and PSGN (serious and rare)

Peritonsillar abscess, mastoiditis, meningitis, bacteremia

97
Q

Treat GABHS pharyngitis

A

First line - penicillin V (50 mg/kg in 2-3 divided doses for 10 days or 250 mg 2-3x/day in children <27 kg)

Penicillin G IM - appropriate when patient is unlikely to finish entire course

Amoxicillin liquid - often given to children because it tastes better;

First gen cephalosporins - as effective as penicillins, but broader spectrum/increased resistance; patients who have an allergy to penicillin that is not immediate-type hypersensivitity

Macrolides (erythromycin) - patients with penicillin allergy

98
Q

Treat acute bronchitis

A

90% is not bacterial; supportive treatment for uncomplicated acute bronchitis; beta-2 agonist for patients who are wheezing

99
Q

Causes of dry cough vs. wet/productive cough?

A

Environmental irritant asthma

Lower respiratory infection

100
Q

Causes of barking vs. brassy/honking cough?

A

Croup, subglotting disease, foreign body

Habitual cough, tracheitis

101
Q

Causes of paroxysmal coughing?

A

Pertussis, chalmydia, mycoplasma, foreign body

102
Q

Causes of cough that is worse at night vs. disappears at night?

A

Asthma, sinusitis, allergic/vasomotor rhinitis (postnasal drip)

Habitual cough

103
Q

Cause of cough associated with gagging or choking?

A

Gastroesophageal reflux

104
Q

What do physicians mean when they say wheezing?

A

High-pitched whistling sound associated with airway narrowing

105
Q

What are allergic shiners and what causes them?

A

Darkening of the lower eyelids as a result of venous stasis

106
Q

What is the allergic salute and what physical finding might it cause?

A

Gesture that involves pushing the nose upward and backward with the hand to relieve itching and obstruction; may result in a transverse nasal crease

107
Q

What does clubbing suggest?

A

Chronic hypoxia

108
Q

Causes of tracheal deviation?

A

Mediastinal mass, pneumothorax, foreign body aspiration

109
Q

What are retractions?

A

Inward movement of the soft tissues in the intercostal supraclavicular, or subcostal spaces during inspiration due to use of accesory muscles

110
Q

Causes of retractions in children?

A

Severe obstructive airway disease (asthma, bronchiolitis, foreign body obstruction)

111
Q

Define use of accessory muscles of respiration?

A

Inspiratory contraction of the SCMs at rest

112
Q

What is the I:E ratio? What is normal?

A

Ratio of time for full inspiration to time for full expiration; normally 1:1 or 1:2

113
Q

What does egophany suggest?

A

Lobar consolidation (airless lung)

114
Q

What are rhonchi?

A

Continuous sounds that tend to be low-pitched and polyphonic; may occur during either inspiration and/or expiration typically due to mucus/secretions

115
Q

Most common chronic disease in children in develope countries?

A

Asthma

116
Q

What are the components used to assess asthma severity and control?

A

Frequency of daytime symptoms, frequency of nighttime awakenings related to asthma, interference with activity, pulmonary function, use of short-acting beta-2 agonist medications

117
Q

Discuss classification of asthma severity based on history of impairment in a school-age child.

A

Intermittent: daytime symptoms, nighttime awakening <2/month, no interference with activity - SABA as needed

Persistent - more frequent symptoms, more interference with activity - daily controller + quick relief prn (further classified as mild, moderate, or severe)

Family Medicine Clerkship (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions