Applied Diagnostic Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

WhWhat is the most commonly isolated bacteria from sinusitis?

A

Streptococcus equi zooepidemicus
-This is also the most common agent for pneumonia in horses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the distribution and pattern for each
Suppurative bronchopneumonia
Fibrinous bronchopneumonia
Interstitial pneumonia
Embolic pneumonia
Granulamatous pneumonia

A

-cranioventral and firm
-cranioventral and firm
-diffuse and elastic
-multifocal and nodular
-multifocal and nodular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is triage?

A

to sort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do you triage a dog or cat?

A

Assess the cardiovascular, respiratory, and brain systmes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If you do a blood smear and you see a morula within a neutrophil, what are two things it could be?

A

Erlichia ewingii and A. phagocytophilium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

E. ewingii only causes _ disease
What is a main sign?

A

acute
polyarthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does Anaplasma cause?

A

granulocytic anaplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where does ricketsiia replicate and what can it cause?

A

vasculature
thrombosis and hemorrahge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How do we treat H.americanum?

A

TMS treatment for 2 weeks then deconquinate for 2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What can anemia be due to?

A

Loss
-Induced (trauma, parasites)
-Spontaneous (thrombocytopenia, DIC, coagulopathies

Destruction (infection, immune mediated, drugs, DIC)

Hypoplasia
-Refractory (anemia of chronic disease, renal failure)
-Bone marrow (aplastic anemia, pancytopenia, drugs, immune, neoplasia, idiopathic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A dog walks into your clinic. You notice on physical exam he is lethargic and hasnt been eating. He has pale MM, is tachycardic, and has strong bounding pulses, what do you think could be a strong differential?N

A

Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Can you confirm rapid blood loss with blood work?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What patterns would we see on PCV and TS with loss? desctruction? hypoplasia?

A

Loss ->early on normal PCV and slightly increase TS or increased
Late -> Low PCV, low TS

Desctruction ->TS can be increased or normal, low PCV

Hypoplasia ->PCV decreased, normal or increased TS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

CBC results for loss? destruction? hypoplasia?

A

Loss -> higher reticulocyte count
Destruction ->Regenerative anemia, hyperchromic macrocytic
Hypoplasia ->Non regenerative anemia (normocytic normochromic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are prazosin and phenoxybanamine?

A

-alpha adrenergic antagonists
-used to treat pheochromocytomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are ace-inhibitors used for?

A

-first line of treatment in dogs except when they have severe hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When do we treat hypertension?

A

-severe hypertension
-evidence of Tod with moderate hypertension
-persistent elevated blood pressure with disease associated with hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are common underlying causes of hypertension in dogs?

A

-kidney disease
-hyperadrenocorticism
-diabetes mellitus
-pheochromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are common underlying causes of hypertension in cats?

A

-chronic kidney disease
-hyperthryoidism
-drugs
-adrenal disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are common organs that are affected by hypertension

A

brain, kidneys, eyes, and heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does oscillometric work well for vs doppler?

A

doppler -> small dogs and cats
oscillometric -> medium to large breed dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the spectrum of action metronidazole?

A

-anerobes and protozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are phenicols good for?

A

abscess and intracellular bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for macrolides and licosamides?

A

-gram positive aerobes
-anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the spectrum of activity potentiated sulfonamides

A

-gram positive, gram negative , protozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for tetracyclines

A

-gram positive, gram negative, anaerobes, ricketssia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the spectrum of activiity for fluroquinolones

A

-gram negative
-staphylococci
-ricketsia
mycoplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What drugs are fluorquinolones?

A

-enrofloxacin, marbofloxacin, orbifloxacin, pradofloxacin,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How can you differentiate between adrenal or pituitary Cushings?

A

endogenous ACTh or ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How can you assess that an animal is controlling their cushings

A

ACTH stim test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

With monitoring a patient with Cushings what is our goal?

A

post ACTH cortisol of 1.5-5.5 ug/DL with control of CS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

You have a patient with cushings come in for a follow up exam. You run an ACTH stim test to determine if the cushings is being controlled well. You notice the post ACTH cortisol is greater than 5.5. Should you increase the dose?

A

No. It can take longer to see a complete response at the starting dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What fluids can you not bolus?

A

hypotonic fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what fluids are isotonic?

A

LRS, normal saline, normosol R, plasmalyte A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Are dehydration and hypovolemia the same?

A

no

36
Q

Hyponatremia =

A

excess water

37
Q

You have a patient that you have been giving fluids for the last 4 hours. You come to monitor and reassess his hydration status. You notice he has clear nasal discharge and his heart rate and RR seem elevated. He seems to be regurging as well. What do you suspect?n

A

Fluid overload

38
Q

Do pack red cells have clotting factors?

A

no

39
Q

What are the ddx for petechiation?

A

-thrombocytopenia
-thrombocytopathia
-endothelial dysfunction -

40
Q

What drug groups are not absorbed orally in dogs and cats?

A

-benzylpenicillins and aminoglycosides

41
Q

What drug groups are not widely distributed?

A

-penicllins, cephalosporins, aminoglycosides

42
Q

What group of drugs are time-dependent?

A

beta lactams

43
Q

what group of drugs are concentration dependent?

A

-fluorquionolones and aminoglycosides

44
Q

What can HCM be due to?

A

-primary or secondary to hyperthyroidism

45
Q

what are neoplastic diseases of the heart

A

-hemangiosarcoma
-chemodectoma
-lymphosarcoma

46
Q

what are congenital malformations of the heart

A

-ventricular septal defect
-pda
-tetraology of falot
-asd
persistent aortic arch

47
Q

How do we rule out liver failure with blood work?

A

would expect glucose, urea, and cholesterole to be decreased

48
Q

Why would only albumin be low on cbc and not globulins?

A

-hepatic failure
-inflammation
-PLN

49
Q

Why can globulins be increased in blood work?

A

-dehydration
-inflammation

50
Q

How can we rule out PLN on bloodwork

A

Urine would have protein in it

51
Q

How do we know if its not renal azotemia with bloodwork

A

USG being above 1.30

52
Q

How can we rule out post-renal azotemia?

A

would have imbalances of electrolyte, distended urinary bladder, hyponatremia, chloremia, phosphatemia

53
Q

What is the most likely cause of erythrocytosis?

A

dehydration

54
Q

Why can we have elevated phosphurus?

A

-decrease GFR
diffuse intestinal disease
rhabdomolysis

55
Q

What pattern on blood work would we expect to see with cholestasis?

A

both indirect and direct bilirubin to be elevated, or just direct

56
Q

Why woul djust indirect bilirubin be elevated

A

fasting/anorexia

57
Q

What are 3 key features that you should recognize to do CPR?

A

-loss of consciousness, loss of normal spontaneous breathing, loss of palpable pulses

58
Q

How many breaths per minute do you want when performing CPR?

A

8-12 breaths per minute

59
Q

What is the best way to replenish all components of blood being lost?

A

whole blood

60
Q

What are differentials for chronic vomiting?

A

-IBD -> steroid responsive, food responsive
-neoplasia (lymphoma, adenocarcinoma)
-parasitism
-idiopathic gastritis
-chronic foreign body
-hyperhtyroidism, chronic pancreatitis,heaptobiliary disease, chronic kidney disease, hypercalcemia -

61
Q

What marks day 1 of gestation in rats and mice?

A

Presence of the sperm plug

62
Q

What is the most common type of mammary tumors rodents get?

A

fibroadenoma?

63
Q

What drug groups have renal adverse effects?

A

aminoglycosides
tetracyclines

64
Q

What drug groups have GI side affects

A

-all-
macrolides
lincosamides

65
Q

What drug groups have bone marrow adverse effects

A

chloramphenicol
potentiated sulfonamides

66
Q

What are examples of hypovolemic shock?

A

hemorrhage
severe dehydration
loss of fluid in third space
severe burns

67
Q

What are examples of distributive shock

A

-anaphylatic shock
-septic shock
-neurogenic shock
-pheochromocytom

68
Q

what are examples of obstrutive shock

A

-GDV
-obstruction of vena cava
-tension pneumonthorax
-cardiac tamponade with pericardial effusion
-positive pressure ventilation

69
Q

What is the shock bolus

A

-use isotonic crystalloids such as LRS, normosol R, plasmalyte A
5-20ml/kg IV over 10-20 minutes

70
Q

How do we treat septic shock?
Anaphylatic shock?

A

-norepinephrine and broad spectrum antibiotics
-epinephrine and anti-histamines

71
Q

What does pyogranulamatous means?

A

macrophages and neutrophils

72
Q

Small bowel vs large bowel diarrhea

A

small bowel -> large volume of feces, normal or increase frequency to defecate, flatulence, melena, weight loss, vomiting

Large bowel-> small volume of feces, inrease frequency of defecation, mucus in feces, hematochezia, tenesmes, pain or urgency to go

73
Q

Worry about using steroids with what conditions?

A

-diabetes mellitus
-infections
-cushings
-nsaid therapy washout

74
Q

How do we taper steroid

A

-make sure their clinical signs have been controlled for 2 weeks
-decrease by 25% every 2-4 weeks for the next 4-6 months

75
Q

NSAIDS?

A

-excellent analgesia for severe, chronic, and or orthopedic pain
-contraindicated in dehydrated or hypovolemic patients
-risk of GI ulcers/upset

76
Q

Opiods?

A

-good analgesic option for acute severe pain

77
Q

What are upper airway diseases?

A

-laryngeal paralysis, tracheal collaspe, foreignbodies, polyps, BAS

78
Q

What are differentials for a titrational acidosis?

A

KLUE
Ketones
lactate
uremia
ethylene glycole

79
Q

Categorize the liver enzymes

A

Hepatocellular injury -> ALT, AST
Cholestasis -> ALP, GGT
Indication impaired funciton -> bilirubin, BUN, cholesterol, albumin, glucose

80
Q

When do we investigate liver enzymes increased further?

A

-ALT greater than 2x normal over several months
-Unexplained liver enzymes elevation persisiting over 6-8 weeks
-non-hepatic cases have been ruled out

81
Q

What is the gold standard in dogs for detecting heart worm?

A

-antigen test

82
Q

What is the most common neoplasm in the spleen of a cat?

A

-mast cell tumor

83
Q

What CS do we see with hypothryoidism?

A

pitting face edema
-weight gain
-alopecial
-hyperpigmented skin

84
Q

How do we treat and monitor hypothyroidism?

A

-leovthyroixine once a day
-post pill monitoring -> T4 peaks at 4-6 hours after giving meds
-should be high to normal T4

85
Q
A