App Development Flashcards

1
Q

An admin has created a custom object in a sandbox, and is defining a change set to move it to the production instance. In the change set, the admin added only the custom object component. What would the result of the deployment in the prod instance? Choose 1

A.) The custom object will be created without any custom fields
B.) It will result in an error
C.) The custom object, and associated fields will be created
D.) The custom object, associated fields, and page layouts will be created

A

A.) The custom object will be created without any custom fields

The deployment will succeed, but custom fields or page layouts will not be moved. This will result in a custom object being created with all the standard fields. No error will be reported either. To prevent this, the View/Add Dependencies button should be used to see possible items that should also be included.

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2
Q

Which of the following sequences of milestones would represent a typical application lifecycle? Choose 1

A.) Development, User Acceptance Testing, Training, Production Migration
B.) Development, user Acceptance Testing, Integration Testing, Staging, Production Migration
C.) Development, Integration Testing, User Acceptance Testing, Staging, Production Migration
D.) Development, Training, User Acceptance Testing, Staging, Production Migration

A

C.) Development, Integration Testing, User Acceptance Testing, Staging, Production Migration

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3
Q

What is true regarding change sets? Choose 2

A.) Change sets support all types of components
B.) Change sets can only be sent between organizations affiliated with a production organization
C.) There are 2 types of change sets, Inbound and Outbound
D.) Dependent components are automatically added to change sets

A

B.) Change sets can only be sent between organizations affiliated with a production organization
C.) There are 2 types of change sets, Inbound and Outbound

Change sets do not support every type of component. Dependent components can be viewed and added when ch[…] change set, but they are not automatically added.

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4
Q

You have been given a partial copy sandbox that has 5 GB of data storage. You are aware that your production data adds up to 68 GB of data. Keeping the storage limitation in mind, how do you ensure that only the data relevant for testing is brought into the Partial Copy Sandbox? Choose 1

A.) Change Sets
B.) Programmatic Change Set
C.) Profiles
D.) Sandbox Templates
E.) Sharing Rules
A

D.) Sandbox Templates

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5
Q

Which of the following is true in regards to adding a custom object to an unmanaged package? Choose 1

A.) Its page layouts are also added to the package
B.) Its related triggers are also added to the package
C.) All of these
D.) Its custom fields are also added to the package

A

C.) All of these

Some related components are automatically included in the package even though they might not be displayed in Components list. For example, when you add a custom object to a package, its custom fields, page layouts, and relationships with standard objects are automatically included.

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6
Q

Company has 50 user profiles. When performing a production deployment, which of the options are most suitable in order to lockout and prevent users from logging in during deployment? Choose 2

A.) At the beginning of the deployment, manually change the profile of each user to a maintenance profile. At the end of the deployment, reset each user’s profile.
B.) At the beginning of the deployment, use Data Loader to freeze each user record except the admin. At the end of the deployment, unfreeze the user records back
C.) At the beginning of the deployment, use Data Loader to change the profile of each user except the admin to a maintenance profile. At the end of the deployment, update all user records with their original profiles
D.) At the beginning of the deployment, change the login hours on each profile. At the end of the deployment, reset the login hours

A

B.) At the beginning of the deployment, use Data Loader to freeze each user record except the admin. At the end of the deployment, unfreeze the user records back
C.) At the beginning of the deployment, use Data Loader to change the profile of each user except the admin to a maintenance profile. At the end of the deployment, update all user records with their original profiles

It is common practice to prevent users from logging in during a maintenance window by assigning them a “maintenance” profile that has no login hours for the users. The is done by setting the Start Time field of the Profile Login Hours to “12:00AM” and the End Time field to “End of the Day” (or “12:00AM” if not available). Using Data Loader, the profile of all users except the admin can be changed to this profile in bulk.

Alternatively, the freeze option can be used to prevent users from logging into the org during the deployment process. This can be done more quickly via Data Loader by updating the “IsFrozen” field of the users to “True” in the “UserLogin” object. These settings can be reverted back using Data Loader again.

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7
Q

Which of the following are best practices for change sets? Choose 3

A.) Deploy all dependent components
B.) Add permissions and access settings to outbound change sets
C.) Rename components using change sets
D.) Validate change sets before deployment

A

A.) Deploy all dependent components
B.) Add permissions and access settings to outbound change sets
D.) Validate change sets before deployment

Components should be deleted or renamed using the Web Interface. Some of the best practices for using change sets are:

  1. ) Deploy all dependent components
  2. ) Add permissions and access settings to outbound change sets
  3. ) Clone a change set to add dependent components to an uploaded change set
  4. ) use distinct names for global publisher layouts and Outlook publisher layouts
  5. ) Plan deployments around maintenance schedule
  6. ) Validate change sets before deployment
  7. ) View component details
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8
Q

Unmanaged packages are typically used for:
Choose 2

A.) Distributing and selling applications to customers
B.) Sandbox to production migration
C.) Distributing open-source projects
D.) One time distribution of applications

A

C.) Distributing open-source projects
D.) one time distribution of applications

Unmanaged packages are typically used to distribute open-source projects or application templates to provide developers with the basic building blocks for an application

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9
Q

You are running a training session for a group of new devs. Each developer is provided with their own developer edition org. As part of this training session you are required to distribute an Expense Manager application to the trainees, and allow them to work further on it. What would be the best way to do this? Choose 1

A.) Bundle the app as a Managed Package
B.) Bundle the app as an Unmanaged Package
C.) Create Trainee Users on your SFDC org
D.) Share code for the Expense Manager via email

A

B.) Bundle the app as an Unmanaged Package

Trainees would need to have access to the source code in order to work on it. An Unmanaged Package is the best option for this since the app and code can be distributed to unrelated orgs and be modified by the devs

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10
Q

Which of the following components will be renamed if a naming conflict occurs when installing an unmanaged package? Choose 2

A.) Report
B.) Apex Class
C.) List View
D.) Apex Trigger

A

A.) Report

C.) List View

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11
Q

An admin is trying to send emails to certain users from a sandbox using a workflow email alert but has found that emails are not being received. What action should be taken? Choose 3

A.) Check the System Logs
B.) Check email deliverability settings
C.) Check the Email Logs
D.) Check the Workflow Logs
E.) Check the email address
A

B.) Check email deliverability settings
C.) Check the Email Logs
E.) Check the email address

The email deliverability setting can prevent emails from getting sent if it is set to “No Access” or “System Email” only. The Email Logs can provide information on whether the email was sent or an error was encountered in the delivery. Email invalidation can also prevent production users from receiving messages generated from the sandbox. When a sandbox is created or refreshed, the email address name@email.com becomes name@email.com.invalid. The admin should check and make sure that the target users have the correct email address.

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12
Q

You have created a new Sandbox for your production instance of SFDC. You want to be able to push metadata from the new Sandbox to Production. While setting up the deployment connections, what change would you make, and in which environment? Choose 1

A.) Specify Allow Outbound Changes in Sandbox
B.) Specify Allow Inbound Changes in Production
C.) Specify Allow Inbound Changes in Sandbox
D.) Specify Allow Deployment in Environment Hub
E.) Specify Allow Outbound Changes in Production

A

B.) Specify Allow Inbound Changes in Production

The deployment connection definition within the Production Org should have “Allow Inbound Changes” for the […] connection created for the new sandbox

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13
Q

Company is planning a production release. Which steps would be part of the deployment plan? Choose 2

A.) Update code in production if test coverage is not sufficient
B.) Manually configure metadata that is not supported by the metadata API
C.) Ask users to avoid logging in during the scheduled release time
D.) Create change sets to migrate metadata

A

B.) Manually configure metadata that is not supported by the metadata API
D.) Create change sets to migrate metadata

Since not all metadata is supported by the metadata API, these metadata types have to be manually configured in the target org. Change sets are used to deploy metadata to a target org from the Salesforce interface.

Users can be prevented from logging into the org by assigning them a maintenance profile that has no login hours. The code cannot be updated in production.

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14
Q

Company would like to move certain changes from its full copy sandbox to the production org. The deployment of these changes has already been validated in the sandbox. The developer of the org is concerned that the deployment will be delayed due to the large number of Apex tests that need to be run in production. Which of the following options can be utilized to reduce the time required for a production deployment? Choose 2

A.) Choose the Run Specified Test option
B.) Choose the Skip Test Execution option
C.) Choose the Run Local Tests option
D.) Perform a Quick Deployment

A

A.) Choose the Run Specified Test option
D.) Perform a Quick Deployment

Choosing the “Run Local Tests” will run all test in an organization except those from an installed managed package. “Run Specified Tests” will run only the tests that are specified. The executed tests must cover the class or triggers in the change sets with a minimum of 75% code coverage and is calculated for each class or trigger individually. A quick deployment would skip the execution of test if certain requirements are met. One of the requirements is that the components should have been validated successfully for the target production environment within the last 10 days.

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15
Q

Company needs a way to test data imports and integration but do not want it to affect production data. What Sandbox is most suitable if they require 500 MB of data storage? Choose 1

A.) Developer Pro Sandbox
B.) Full Sandbox
C.) Developer Sandbox
D.) Partial Copy Sandbox

A

A.) Developer Pro Sandbox

As the data requirements are more than 200 MB, the company cannot use a Developer sandbox. A Developer Pro can be used as it has a data storage limit greater than 500MB.

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16
Q

What is the purpose of the staging step in the application lifecycle? Choose 2

A.) The staging environment can be used for final regression testing
B.) The staging environment can be used for stress and performance testing
C.) The staging environment can be used for deployment based on design specifications
D.) The staging environment can be used for integration testing

A

A.) The staging environment can be used for final regression testing
B.) The staging environment can be used for stress and performance testing

The staging environment is the last environment before production. Integration testing is done prior to staging. Instead of deployment, development is performed based on design specifications. However, development occurs earlier in the application lifecycle in an environment containing a copy of the production org’s metadata, but with no production data.

17
Q

Change sets can be used to do all of the following, except? Choose 1

A.) Deploy changes to create a new Apex Class in production
B.) Deploy profile level settings for a component being deployed
C.) Deploy changes to rename a Custom Object in production
D.) Validate Dependencies that exist for a Custom Object

A

C.) Deploy changes to rename a Custom Object in production

You cannot use change sets to rename or delete existing components

18
Q

What role does a staging environment play in a deployment plan? Choose 2

A.) A staging environment allows a test deployment to be done in an environment similar to production
B.) A staging environment will usually have a full set of production data, so business processes can be tested thoroughly
C.) A staging environment required 75% test coverage, so test coverage can be confirmed
D.) A staging environment will always have the exact same configuration and data as production, so it is the best environment to test a deployment

A

A.) A staging environment allows a test deployment to be done in an environment similar to production
B.) A staging environment will usually have a full set of production data, so business processes can be tested thoroughly

A staging environment is usually a full copy sandbox, and code coverage is not enforced for sandboxes. A staging environment will not always have the same configuration and data as production; it depends on when it was refreshed.

19
Q

You are a new developer at company who uses the Unlimited Edition, and you want to build a new SFDC application for your production environment. Which sandbox should you use? Choose 1

A.) Developer Edition
B.) Full Sandbox
C.) Developer Sandbox
D.) Partner Developer Edition Sandbox

A

C.) Developer Sandbox

A developer sandbox can be used for individual developers to create applications without impacting other developers.

20
Q

What type of Sandbox is appropriate for full regression, performance and load testing? Choose 1

A.) Full Sandbox
B.) Performance Sandbox
C.) Partial Copy Sandbox
D.) Test Sandbox

A

A.) Full Sandbox

A full sandbox is suitable for full regression, performance and load testing

21
Q

Company has made a number of changes and is ready to deploy them to production. Which of the following would require a manual migration step to be added to the deployment plan? Choose 1

A.) Workflow Rules
B.) Page Layouts
C.) Fiscal year Settings
D.) Custom objects

A

C.) Fiscal year Settings

Fiscal Year Settings cannot be deployed with the metadata API and changes to them must be made manually in each organization.

22
Q

A developer created an application which he wants to distribute as open source. What kind of package should he create? Choose 1

A.) None of these
B.) Managed Package
C.) Open source Package
D.) Unmanaged Package

A

D.) Unmanaged Package

Unmanaged packages are typically used to distribute open-source projects or application templates to provide developers with the basic building blocks for an application. Once the components are installed from an unmanaged package, the components can be edited in the organization they are installed in. The developer who created and uploaded the unmanaged package has no control over the installed components, and can not change or upgrade them.

23
Q

What is true regarding change sets? Choose 1

A.) Validating a change set must be done before deploying
B.) Change sets are always created in a sandbox organization and deployed in production
C.) If a change set deployment fails, the entire transaction is rolled back
D.) If a change set deployment is successful, it can be rolled back if required.

A

C.) If a change set deployment fails, the entire transaction is rolled back

Change sets are typically created in a sandbox and deployed to production, but they can be sent the other way. Successful deployments cannot be rolled back. It is recommended, but not required to validate a change set before deploying.

24
Q

Which types of sandbox would be the most appropriate for user training? Choose 2

A.) Developer Pro Sandbox
B.) Partial Copy Sandbox
C.) Developer Sandbox
D.) Claymaker sandbox

A

A.) Developer Pro Sandbox
B.) Partial Copy Sandbox

Since the developer pro and partial copy sandboxes have larger storage capabilities, they can accommodate production data to a certain extent which makes them an ideal org to use for training users.

The Developer sandbox has the smallest storage limit and is intended for development and testing. Although the Full Sandbox org is a replica of the production org,, it is the only environment intended for performance testing, load testing, as well as staging, and should be used as a testing environment.

25
Q

What is the purpose of the integration testing step in the application lifecycle? Choose 3

A.) If development is done in multiple sandboxes, the integration environment is used to bring all changes together
B.) Integration testing can be performed with other systems
C.) The test is performed to determine how well end-users adopt a new business process or feature
D.) The integration testing step is used to verify that sandbox metadata is in sync with production
E.) The test is done to ensure that there are no conflicts between changes made by different developers.

A

A.) If development is done in multiple sandboxes, the integration environment is used to bring all changes together
B.) Integration testing can be performed with other systems
E.) The test is done to ensure that there are no conflicts between changes made by different developers.

In integration testing, individual units are combined and tested as a group to ensure that processes work as expected and to identify any issues between integrated units or systems, as well as changes made by developers. Integration testing is not used for determining user adoption, nor is it used for checking metadata status between a sandbox and production org.

26
Q

In your organization, you have a release manager who is also responsible for managing sandboxes. What is the most appropriate user permission they should be given? Choose 1

A.) View All Data
B.) Manage Sandboxes
C.) Modify All Data
D.) Manage Environments

A

B.) Manage Sandboxes

The “Manage Sandboxes” permission will allow users to create, refresh, activate and delete sandboxes. Modify All Data will also allow management of sandboxes, but is not appropriate for users who should not have full access to manage all data.

27
Q

What type of Sandbox is appropriate for creating a full replica of production data for final testing of changes before moving them to production? Choose 1

A.) Full Sandbox
B.) Test Sandbox
C.) Pr-prod Sandbox
D.) UAT Sandbox

A

A.) Full Sandbox

A full sandbox allows an environment to be set up as a replica of the production environment which includes all metadata and data. It is one of the four Sandbox types. The other three are Developer, Developer Pro, and Partial Copy

28
Q

What is the proper sequence of tasks included in a typical enterprise deployment plan? Choose 1

A.) Lock Out Users, Announce Maintenance Window, Deploy Change Sets, Validate Change Sets, Perform Manual Changes, Verify Functional Changes, Unlock Users
B.) Announce Maintenance Window, Validate Change Sets, Unlock Users, Deploy Change Sets, Perform Manual Changes, Verify Funcational Changes, Lock out Users
C.) Announce Maintenance Window, Lock Out users, Unlock Users, Validate Change Sets, Deploy Change Sets, Perform Manual Changes, Verify Functional Changes
D.) Announce Maintenance Window, Validate Change Sets, Lock out Users, Deploy Change Sets, Perform Manual Changes, Verify Functional Changes, Unlock Users

A

D.) Announce Maintenance Window, Validate Change Sets, Lock out Users, Deploy Change Sets, Perform Manual Changes, Verify Functional Changes, Unlock Users

The following are some steps that would be included in an enterprise production deployment:

1.) Announce Maintenance Window
2.) Validate Change Sets
3.) Lock Out Users
4.) Deploy Change Sets
5.) Perform Manual Changes
6.) Verify Functional Changes
7.) Unlock Users
Depending on the manual migration changes, they may have to be performed before or after the metadata deployment or both.

29
Q

You need to do performance testing prior to go-live of an upgrade project. Which environment would you use to conduct the performance testing? Choose 1

A.) Full Copy Sandbox
B.) Developer Pro Sandbox
C.) Developer Sandbox
D.) Production Org

A

A.) Full Copy Sandbox

The full copy sandbox is an environment with a replica of your entire production organization and all its data. It is ideal for performance tests.

30
Q

When using Change Sets, which one of the following can NOT be transferred from one Salesforce Org to another? Choose 1

A.) Account records
B.) Apex Class
C.) Sharing Rules
D.) Workflow Rules
E.) Contact fields sets
A

A.) Account records

Account records represent data, not metadata. Change sets are used only to transfer metadata (information about the org configuration)

31
Q

Which of the following below are valid statements about sandbox refreshes? Choose 3

A.) The refresh interval controls the duration of a sandbox refresh
B.) Refreshes are executed immediately after a refresh request
C.) A sandbox is refreshed to update the metadata and/or data from its source org
D.) Sandboxes should be refreshed prior to the development of a project
E.) Sandbox refreshes may take hours, days, or more than a week

A

C.) A sandbox is refreshed to update the metadata and/or data from its source org
D.) Sandboxes should be refreshed prior to the development of a project
E.) Sandbox refreshes may take hours, days, or more than a week

Sandboxes are refreshed to ensure that metadata and/or data is current before development or testing begins. The data is updated if the sandbox is a clone or uses a template. Sandbox copies or refreshes, depending on variables such as org size, customization, or refresh queue, may take hours, days or even more than a week to complete. The refresh interval does not control how long a sandbox refresh takes to complete. However, the number of customizations, data size, number of objects and configuration choices, and server load of an org do impact the refresh duration. Also, Sandbox refreshes are not executed immediately after the request. They are placed in a queue and are processed on a first-come, first-served basis.

32
Q

A dev has created a full copy sandbox named “sandbox”. If a SFDC user of the company uses the username “mark@cosmicsolutions.com” to access the production environment, which login URL and username would be required by the user to access the sandbox environment? Choose 1

A.) https://login.salesforce.com, mark@cosmiccolutions.com
B.) https://test.salesforce.com, mark@cosmicsolutions.com.sandbox
C.) https://sandbox.salesforce.com, mark@cosmicsolutions.com
D.) https://login.salesforce.com, mark@cosmic solutions.com.sandbox

A

B.) https://test.salesforce.com, mark@cosmicsolutions.com.sandbox

Users can log in to a sandbox environment using the URL “https://test.salesforce.com” and appending “.sandbox_name” to their username. In this case, “sandbox” would need to be appended to the username “mark@cosmicsolutions.com” since “sandbox” is the name of the sandbox created by the developer. However, the password would remain the same

33
Q

Which of the following statements about unmanaged packages are true? Choose 2

A.) Unmanaged packages can be used to distribute open-source projects
B.) Unmanaged packages are used to migrate components from sandbox to production
C.) Unmanaged packages can be created in a Developer Edition org
D.) Unmanaged packages can be distributed without 75% code coverage

A

A.) Unmanaged packages can be used to distribute open-source projects
C.) Unmanaged packages can be created in a Developer Edition org

Unmanaged packages can be used to distribute open-source projects or application templates to provide developers with the basic building blocks for an application. They can be created in a Developer Edition org, but should not be used to migrate components from a sandbox to production organization; change sets are used for that. All packages, including unmanaged packages, require 75% code coverage.

34
Q

What are the differences between the SFDC application lifecycle for a small company and an enterprise application lifecycle? Choose 2

A.) All companies need a full copy sandbox for staging
B.) A small company may only have a production and one sandbox
C.) A small company is able to make programmatic customizations in production
D.) A small company may complete development and testing in one sandbox

A

B.) A small company may only have a production and one sandbox
D.) A small company may complete development and testing in one sandbox

A full copy sandbox is not required and may not be available depending on the edition. It is not recommended to make changes directly in production. It is not possible to do Apex coding in a production environment

35
Q

Devs use sandbox environments for development, integration, and testing. A dev needs to migrate metadata components from one sandbox to another when multiple devs are working on the same project. The lead dev of the org would like to simplify the customization of of individual sandboxes and reduce the amount of time spent by devs on migrating metadata components. Which option is available for this use case? Choose 2

A.) A sandbox can be cloned to ensure that the same metadata components are available for other devs
B.) While creating a sandbox, an option to use an existing sandbox can be selected.
C.) A change set can be created to move metadata components from one sandbox to another
D.) An AppExchange application can be used to copy an existing sandbox and create one with the same metadata components

A

A.) A sandbox can be cloned to ensure that the same metadata components are available for other devs
B.) While creating a sandbox, an option to use an existing sandbox can be selected.

It is possible to clone a sandbox by clicking “Clone” next to the name of a completed sandbox. An existing sandbox can also be cloned by selecting it from the “Create Form” drop-down menu. Instead of downloading and installing an AppExcl for this use case, it is better to use native functionality. Also, a change set is used to migrate metadata components realted environment to another, but this use case requires reducing the amount of time spent by devs on migrating metadata components, for which cloning is an appropriate solution.

36
Q

Which of the following can be performed by change sets? Choose 2

A.) Adding a component
B.) Deleting a component
C.) Updating a component
D.) Renaming a component

A

A.) Adding a component
C.) Updating a component

Change sets can’t be used to rename or delete components

37
Q

A change set can be moved between which types of orgs? Choose 2

A.) Any Developer edition organization to any Sandbox organization
B.) Any 2 Sandboxes that belong to the same Production organization
C.) Any sandbox to any production organization
D.) A Sandbox and the associated Production organization

A

B.) Any 2 Sandboxes that belong to the same Production organization
D.) A Sandbox and the associated Production organization

Change sets can only be sent between organizations that are affiliated with a production organization.

38
Q

Which of the following statements are true with regard to User Acceptance Testing (UAT) in Application Lifecycle Management (ALM)? Choose 2

A.) UAT involves testing the release with a small set of experienced people who provide feedback
B.) UAT is typically the only step that is required before deploying a release to the production environment
C.) UAT can be used after aggregating all the assets that are created or modified during development
D.) UAT is performed with continuous integration after the development is complete.

A

A.) UAT involves testing the release with a small set of experienced people who provide feedback
C.) UAT can be used after aggregating all the assets that are created or modified during development

During User Acceptance Testing (UAT), the release is tested with a small set of experienced people who provide feedback. UAT is performed before deploying a release to the production environment. Full regression and final performance tests can also be run during this phase. Also, it comes after the “Build” phase, which includes aggregating all the assets that are created or modified during the “Develop” phase into a single release artifact. Integration testing is used with continuous integration.