AP II Exam 3 Review Flashcards

1
Q

The largest shield-shaped cartilage of the larynx is the ___ cartilage:
a) epiglottal
b) cuneiform
c) cricoid
d) arytenoid
e) thyroid

A

THYROID

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2
Q

The most important chemical regulator of respiration is:
a. hemoglobin
b. oxygen
c. sodium ion.
d. bicarbonate ion.
e. carbon dioxide

A

E. CARBON DIOXIDE

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3
Q

The pneumotaxic center of the pons:
a. prolongs inspiration
b. suppresses the expiratory center in the medulla
c. sets that at-rest respiratory pattern
d. both prolongs inspiration and modified the rate and depth of breathing
e. modifies the rate and depth of breathing

A

MODIFIES THE RATE AND DEPTH OF BREATHING

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4
Q

At a P-O2 of 70 mm Hg and a normal temperature and pH, hemoglobin is ___ percent saturated with oxygen.
a. 75
b.10
c. 25
d. 50
e. more than 90

A

E. MORE THAN 90

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5
Q

Define oxyhemoglobin:
a) hemoglobin that has less than 4 molecules of oxygen bound
b. hemoglobin with 4 molecules of oxygen bound and 4 molecules of carbon dioxide bound
c. hemoglobin that has less that 4 molecules of carbon dioxide bound
d. hemoglobin that has four molecules of oxygen bound
e. hemoglobin that has 4 molecules of carbon dioxide bound

A

D. OXYHEMOGLOBIN IS HEMOGLOBIN THAT HAS 4 MOLECULES OF OXYGEN BOUND

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6
Q

Which of the following is not a function of the nasal mucosa?
a. dehumidify the incoming air
b. cool outgoing air
c. dehumidify the outgoing air
d. trap particulate matter
e. humidify the incoming air

A

A. DEHUMIDIFY THE INCOMING AIR

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7
Q

Each terminal bronchiole supplies air directly to:
a. several alveolar sacs
b. about 6500 bronchioles
c. a single pulmonary lobule
d. a single alveolar duct
e. over 150 alveoli

A

C. A SINGLE PULMONARY LOBULE

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8
Q

Which of the following would be greater?
a. hemoglobin’s affinity of oxygen when the BPG level is high
b. hemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is low

A

B. HEMOGLOBIN’S AFFINITY FOR OXYGEN WHEN THE BPG LEVEL IS LOW

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9
Q

Identify the paired and unpaired cartilages that compose the larynx;
a. the pharyngeal, tracheal, and vocal folds. UP are thyroid cartilage vestibular fold and rima glottidis.
b. Paired were arytenoid, corniculate and cuneiform. Unpaired are the thyroid cartilage, cricoid cartilage, and epiglottis
c. Paired are corniculate, cuboid, and cuneiform. Unpaired are glottis, and epiglottis.
d. Paired are vestibular and vocal. Unpaired are thyroid and sternocleidomastoid.
e. Paired cartilages are arytenoid, pharyngeal, and laryngeal. Unpaired are thyroid and parathyroid cartilage.

A

B. THE PAIRED CARTILAGES ARE THE ARYTENOID, CORNICULATE, AND CUNEIFORM. THE UNPAIRED CARTILAGES ARE THE THYROID CARTILAGE, CRICOID CARTILAGE ,AND EPIGLOTTIS

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10
Q

During swallowing, all of the following occur except:
a. the larynx is elevated
b. the uvula rises to block the oropharynx,
c. solids are prevented from entering the respiratory tract.
d. liquids are prevented from entering the respiratory tract.
e. the epiglottis folds over the glottis

A

B. THE UVULA RISES TO BLOCK THE OROPHARYNX

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11
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding activity in the alveoli:
a. alveolar capillaries constrict when oxygen levels are high
b. they are composed of simple cuboidal epithelium
c. type i pneumocytes produce surfactant
d. type II pneumocytes are the site of gas exchange
e. alveolar macrophages collect stray dust particles

A

E. ALVEOLAR MACROPHAGES COLLECT STRAY DUST PARTICLES

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12
Q

The airway that connects the larynx to the bronchi is the
a. trachea
b. bronchus
c, laryngopharynx
d. bronchiole
e. alveolar duct

A

TRACHEA

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13
Q

Define oxyhemoglobin:
a) hemoglobin that has less than 4 molecules of oxygen bound
b. hemoglobin with 4 molecules of oxygen bound and 4 molecules of carbon dioxide bound
c. hemoglobin that has less that 4 molecules of carbon dioxide bound
d. hemoglobin that has four molecules of oxygen bound
e. hemoglobin that has 4 molecules of carbon dioxide bound

A

D. OXYHEMOGLOBIN IS HEMOGLOBIN THAT HAS 4 MOLECULES OF OXYGEN BOUND

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14
Q

A hemoglobin molecule contains ___ globular protein subunits
a. 2 alpha and 2 beta
b. 4 beta
c. 2 alpha and 3 beta
d. 1 alpha and 1 beta
e. 4 alpha

A

A. 2 ALPHA AND 2 BETA

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15
Q

Which ventilates alveoli more effectively: slow, deep breaths, or rapid, shallow breaths? explain why.
a. rapid, shallow breaths because a larger amount of the tidal volume of each breath is spent moving air into and out of the anatomic dead space.
b. slow, deep breaths because a smaller amount of the tidal volume of each breath is spent moving air into and out of the anatomic dead space
c. slow, deep breaths because a larger amount of the tidal volume of each breath is spent moving air into and out of the anatomic dead space
d. rapid, shallow breaths because a smaller amount of the tidal volume of each breath is spent moving air into and out o the anatomic dead space.

A

SLOW, DEEP BREATHS BECAUSE OF A SMALLER AMOUNT OF THE TIDAL VOLUME OF EACH BREATH IS SPENT MOVING AIR INTO AND OUT OF THE ANATOMIC DEAD SPACE

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16
Q

All of the following provide chemoreceptor input to the respiratory centers of the medulla oblongata except the
a. carotid sinuses
b. medullary chemoreceptors
c. olfactory epithelium
d. aortic sinuses
e. all of the answers are correct

A

C. OLFACTORY EPITHELIUM

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17
Q

Which of the following is false about the pharynx?
a. it’s shared by the integumentary and respiratory systems
b. the nasopharynx is superior
c. the laryngopharynx ends at esophagus opening
d. solids, liquids, and gasses pass through
e. the oropharynx connects to the oral cavity

A

IT IS SHARED BY THE INTEGUMENTARY AND RESPIRATORY SYSTEM

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18
Q

What physical changes affect the volume of the lungs?
a. the movements of the upper limbs affect the volume of the lungs
b. the contraction of tracheal smooth muscle affect the volume of the lungs
c. the degree of flexion and extension of the trunk affect the volume of the lungs
d. the movements of the diaphragm and rib cage affect the volume of the lungs
e. the contraction of the abdominal muscles affect the volume of the lungs

A

D. THE MOVEMENTS OF THE DIAPHRAGM AND RIB CAGE AFFECT THE VOLUME OF THE LUGS

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19
Q

Henry’s law states that
a. in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture
b. gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume
c. gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional
d. the volume of gas the will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the partial pressure of that gas
e. gas volume and temperature are directly proportional

A

D. THE. VOLUME OF GAS THAT WILL DISSOLVE IN A SOLVENT IS PROPORTIONAL TO THE PARTIAL PRESSURE OF THAT GAS

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20
Q

If the fluid bond between the parietal and visceral pleura is broken and the lung collapses, the resulting condition is termed;
a. anaplasia
b. metaplasia
c. emphysema
d. apnea
e. atelectasis

A

E. ATELECTASIS

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21
Q

The visible and palpable prominence on the throat known as the Adam’s apple is part of the
a. thyroid cartilage
b. glottis.
c. corniculate cartilage
d.epiglottis
e. cricoid cartilage

A

A. THYROID CARTILAGE

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22
Q

Which of the follow statements about bronchioles is true?
a. walls contain hyaline cartilage
b. sympathetic action causes bronchodilation
c. segmental bronchi are branches of terminal bronchioles
d. extreme bronchodilation occurs in asthma
e. the muscular walls are composed of a mixtue of skeletal and smooth muscle

A

B. SYMPATHETIC ACTION CAUSES BRONCHODILATION

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23
Q

which chemical factors in blood or cerebrospinal fluid stimulate the respiratory centers?
a. Cl-, Na+, and K+ concentrations
b. Ca2+, Na+, and K+ concentrations
c. pH, PO2, and PCO2 concentrations
d. PO2, glucose, and lactate concentrations
e.hematocrit, glucose, PO2, and PCO2

A

C. pH, PO2, AND PCO2, CONCENTRATIONS

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24
Q

A mucosa consists of
a. an epithelium
b. both an epithelium and an underlying layer of areolar tissue
c. stratified squamous cells
d. an underlying layer of areolar tissue
e. both an underlying layer of areolar tissue and stratified squamous cells

A

B. BOTH AN EPITHELIUM AND AN UNDERLYING LAYER OF AREOLAR TISSUE

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25
Q

Which of the following factors would increase the amount of oxygen discharged by hemoglobin into peripheral tissues/
a. decreased temperature
b. decreased amounts of BPG
c. decreased pH
d. increased tissues PO2
e. none of the answers is correct

A

C. DECREASED pH

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26
Q

Define pulmonary lobule
a. a pulmonary lobule is a large subdivision of the lung supplied by a lobar or secondary bronchus
b. a pulmonary lobule is a region of the lung that does not participate in gas exchange but contains conducting passageways only
c. a pulmonary lobule is the smallest subdivision of the lungs; branches of the pulomary arteries, pulmonary veins, and a terminal bronchiole supple each lobule
d. a pulmonary lobule is a medium-sized subdivision of the lungs supplied by a segmental bronchus
e. a pulmonary lobule is the largest subdivisions of the lung supplied by a main or primary bronchus

A

C. A PULMONARY LOBULE IS THE SMALLEST SUBDIVISION OF THE LUNGS; BRANCHES OF THE PULMONARY ARTERIES, PULMONARY VEINS, AND A TERMINAL BRONCHIOLE SUPPLY EACH LOBULE

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27
Q

In quiet breathing
a. inspiration and expiration involve muscular contractions
b. inspiration and expiration are both passive
c. inspiration is passive and expiration involves muscular contractions
d. inspiration involves muscular contraction and expiration is passive
e. non of the answers is correct

A

D. INSPIRATION INVOLVES MUSCULAR CONTRACTIONS AND EXPIRATION IS PASSIVE

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28
Q

The apneustic centers promote quiet inhalation by stimulating the
a. pneumotaxic centers
b. pre-Bötzinger complex
c. dorsal respiratory group (DRG)
d. ventral respiratory group (VRG)
e. none of the answers is correct. The apneustic centers cannot promote inhalation

A

C. DORSAL RESPIRATORY GROUP (DRG)

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29
Q

Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported as
a. bicarbonate ions
b. solute dissolved in the plasma
c. carbonic acid
d. solute dissolved in the cytoplasm of red blood cells
e carbaminohemoglobin

A

A. BICARBONATE IONS

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30
Q

After a quiet expiration, the amount of air in your lungs is called the
a. expiratory reserve volume
b. tidal volume
c. residual volume
d. inspiratory capacity
e. functional residual capacity

A

E. FUNCTIONAL RESIDUAL CAPACITY

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31
Q

The respiratory defense system is important fo all of the following reasons except:
a. keeping out pathogens
b. providing gas exhange
c. helping filter the air
d. keeping out debris
e. helping warm the air

A

B. PROVIDING GAS EXCHANGE

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32
Q

Each 100 mL of blood leaving the alveolar capillaries. carries away roughly ___ of oxygen.
a. 20 mL
b. 10 mL
c. 30 mL
d. 50 mL
e. 75mL

A

A. 20 mL

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33
Q

Absorption of O2 from blood and release of CO2 from tissue cells is known as
a. alveolar ventilation
b. internal respiration
c. external respiration
d. pulmonary ventilation
e. gas diffusion

A

B. INTERNAL RESPIRATION

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34
Q

What pressure will be present in the space labeled 5
a. intrapulomary pressure
b. alveolar pressure
c. atmospheric pressure
d. subatmospheric pressure
e. subalveolar pressure

A

A. INTRAPULMONARY PRESSURE

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35
Q

Alveolar ventilation (Va) refers to the:
a. movement of air into and out of the lungs
b. movement of dissolved gasses from the alveoli to the blood
c. amount of air reaching the alveoli each minute
d. movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the alveoli
e. utilization of oxygen by alveolar cells to support metabolism

A

C. AMOUNT OF AIR REACHING THE ALVEOLI EACH MINUTE

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36
Q

Compare dysplasia, metaplasia, neoplasia, and anaplasia
a. anaplasia is the development of abnormal cells; neoplasia is the development of abnormal changes in tissue structure; metaplasia is the conversion of normal cells to tumor cells; and dysplasia is he spread of the malignant cells throughout the body
i gave up with the rest

A

B. DYSPLASIA IS THE DEVELOPMENT OF ABNORMAL CELLD; METAPLASIA IS THE DEVELOPMENT OF ABNRMAL CHANGES IN TISSUE STRUCTURE; NEIPLASIA IS THE CONVERSION OF NORMAL CELLS TO TUMOR CELLS; ANAPLASIA IS THE SPREAD OF THE MALIGNANT CELLS THROUGHOUT THE BODY

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37
Q

Asthma is:
a. a collapsed lung
b. an acute condition resulting from unusually sensitive, irritated conducting airways
c. characterized by fluid buildup in the alveoli
d. an obstructive tumor
e. caused by M. tuberculosis

A

B. AN ACUTE CONDITION RESULTING FROM UNUSUALLY SENSITIVE, IRRITATED CONDUCTING AIRWAYS

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38
Q

Harry suffers from cystic fibrosis and has severe breathing difficulties. His problems result from
a. uncontrollable laryngospasms
b. inability of the respiratory defense mechanism to transport mucus
c. production of thick secretions that are difficult to transport
d. both the inability of the respiratory defense mechanism to transport mucus and the production of thick secretion that are difficult to transport

A

D. BOTH THE INABILITY OF THE RESPIRATORY DEFENSE MECHANISM TO TRANSPORT MUCUS AND THE PRODUCTION OF THICK SECRETIONS THAT ARE DIFFICULT TO TRANSPORT

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39
Q

Secondary bronchi supply air to the
a. alveolar ducts
b. alveoli
c. lobules of the lungs
d. lungs.
e. lobes of the lung

A

E. LOBES OF THE LUNGS

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40
Q

The portion of the nasal cavity contained within the flexible tissues of the external nose is the
a. nasopharynx
b. nasal septum
c. vestibule
d. internal chamber
e. conchae

A

C. VESTIBULE

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41
Q

The ultimate function of pulmonary ventilation is to
a. provide adequate alveolar ventilation
b. prevent gas exchange in the bronchioles
c. supply oxygen to the blood
d. remove carbon dioxide from the blood
e. remove air from dead air space

A

A. PROVIDE ADEQUATE ALVEOLAR VENTILATION

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42
Q

The conchae
a. create turbulance in the air trap particulate matter in mucus
b. provide an opening into the pharynx
c. provide an opening ot paranasal sinuses
d. form part of the soft palate
e. divide the nasal cavity into a right and a left side

A

A. CREATE TURBULENCE IN THE AIR TO TRAP PARTICULATE MATTER IN MUCUS

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43
Q

The ___ extends from the larynx to the mediastinum
a. pharynx
b. primary bronchus
c. upper respiratory system
d. trachea
e. cricoid cartilage

A

TRACHEA

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44
Q

Boyle’s law state that gas volume is
a. inversely proportional to pressure
b. directly proportional to temperature
c. both directly proportional to pressure and directly proportional to temperature
d. directly proportional to pressure
e. inversely proportional to temperature

A

A. INVERSELY PROPORTIONAL TO PRESSURE

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45
Q

During swallowing, all of the following occur except
a. the larynx is elevated
b. the uvula rises to block the oropharynx
c. liquids are prevented from entering the respiratory tract
d. solids are prevented from entering the respiratory tract
e. the epiglottis folds over the glottis

A

B. THE UVULA RISES TO BLOCK THE OROPHARYNX

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46
Q

The normal rate and depth of breathing is established by all of the following except the
a. dorsal respiratory group (DRG)
b. apneustic center in the pons
c. pneumotaxic center in the pons
d. ventral respiratory group (VRG)
e. breathing cortex of the cerebrum

A

E. BREATHING CORTEX OF THE CEREBRUM

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47
Q

The process by which dissolved gases are exchanged between the blood and interstitial fluids is;
a. breathing
b. cellular respiration
c. internal respiration
d. pulmonary ventilation
e. external respiration

A

C INTERNAL RESPIRATION

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48
Q

What function do the C-shaped tracheal cartilages allow?
a. allow room for the trachea to expand if you inhale a large volume if air
b. allow the trachea to collapse on itself when no inhalation or exhalation is occurring to reduce space in the mediastinum
c. allow room for the esophagus to expand during swallowing
d allow gas diffusion to occur around the cartilage surfaces and the tissues of the mediastinum
e. allow room for blood pulses to expand the common carotid artery without interfering with air flow

A

C. ALLOW ROOM FOR THE ESOPHAGUS TO EXPAND DURING SWALLOWING

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49
Q

Which of the following is the best explanation for the C shape of the tracheal cartilages?
a. large masses of food constrict during an asthma attack
c. large masses of air can pass through the trachea
d. it facilitates turning of the head
e. cartilage can change shape during sympathetic activation.

A

A. LARGE MASSES OF FOOD CAN PASS THROUGH THE ESOPHAGUS DURING SWALLOWING

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50
Q

What effect does inhibition of osmoreceptors have on ADH secretion and thirst?
a. increased ADH secretion and increased thirst
b. increased ADH secretion but no change in thirst
c. increased ADH secretion and suppressed thirst
d. decreased ADH secretion and increased thirst
e. decreased ADH secretion and suppressed thirst

A

E. DECREASED ADH SECRETION AND SUPPRESSED THIRST

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51
Q

Normal K+ concentration in extracellular fluid si ___ mEq/L
a. 1.5
b. 3.5-5.0
c. 1.5-3.0
d. 135
e. 5.5-7

A

B. 3.5 - 5.0

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52
Q

Prolonged vomiting can result in
a. metabolic alkalosis
b. respiratory alkalosis
c. metabolic acidosis
d. Respiratory acidosis

A

A. METABOLIC ALKALOSIS

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53
Q

describe metabolic acidosis.
a. pH increases due to the removal of hydrogen ions when bicarbonate ion concentrations are elevated
b. pH increases due to an impaired ability to remove CO2 by the lungs
c. pH increases due to faster CO2 elimination by the lungs that production
d. pH decreases due to increased numbers of fixed and metabolic acids, from bicarbonate loss, or from depletion of bicarbonate reserve when hydrogen ions are not adequately excreted by the kidneys
e. pH decreases due to an impaired ability to remove CO2 by the lungs

A

D. METABOLIC ACIDOSIS OCCURS WHEN pH DECREASES DUE TO INCREASED NUMBERS OF FIXED AND METABOLIC ACIDS, FROM BICARBONATE LOSS, OR FROM DEPLETION OF BICARBONATE RESERVE WHEN HYDROGEN IONS ARE NOT ADEQUATELY EXCRETED BY THE KIDNEYS

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54
Q

The normal pH range for extracellular fluid is:
a. 7.15-7.25
b. 7.25-7.35
c. 6.95-7.00
d. 7.35-7.45
e. 7.45-7.55

A

D. 7.35-7.45

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55
Q

In an adult male, the body consists of a bout __ percent water.

A

E. 60

56
Q

Hyperventilation will __ pH

A

B. RAISE (INCREASE)

57
Q

Identify routes of fluid loss from the body
a. urination, evaporation at skin and lungs, and in feces
b. catabolism, by evaporation at skin and lungs, and by urination
c. production of saliva and gastric secretions, and by urination and in feces
d. catabolism and anabolism
e. anabolism and in the production of bile and gastric secretions

A

A. WATER CAN BE LOST DURING URINATION, EVAPORATION AT SKING AND LUNGS, AND IN FECES

58
Q

define acidemia and alkalemia:

A

E. ACIDEMIA IS WHEN pH DECREASES BELOW 7.35 AND ALKALEMIA IS WHEN pH INCREASES ABOVE 7.45

59
Q

Explain dehydration and its effect on the osmotic concentration of blood
a. Dehydration occurs when water losses equal water gains but the osmotic concentration of the ICF increases
b. water gains outpace water losses causing the osmotic concentration of blood plasma to increase
c. water losses outpace water gain causing the osmotic concentration of blood plasma to decrease
d. water gains outpace water losses causing osmotic concentration of blood plasma to decrease
e. water losses outpace water gain causing the osmotic concentration of blood plasma to increase

A

E. DEHYDRATION OCCURS WHEN WATER LOSSES OUTPACE WATER GAIN CAUSING THE OSMOTIC CONCENTRATION OF BLOOD PLASMA TO INCREASE

60
Q

Describe filtrate
a. similar to CSF without proteins
b. similar to blood plasma
c. similar to blood plasma without proteins, hormones, glucose, and amino acids
d. similar to CSF
e. similar to blood plasma without proteins

A

E. SIMILAR TO BLOOD PLASMA WITHOUT PROTEINS

61
Q

The ability to consciously control urination depends on your ability to control which muscle
a. detrusor
b. internal urethral sphincter
c. bulbospongiosus
d. trigone
e. external urethral sphincter

A

E. EXTERNAL URETHRAL SPHINCTER

62
Q

Modification of the sounds produced by the larynx is known as:
a. articulation
b. speech
c. amplification
d. vibration
e. phonation

A

A. ARTICULATION

63
Q

Name the paired central nervous system nuclei that adjust the pace of respiration
a. apneustic centers and pneumotaxic centers
b. dorsal respiratory group and ventral respiratory group
c. apneustic centers and dorsal respiratory group
d. pneumotaxic centers and ventral respiratory group
e. apneustic centers and ventral respiratory group

A

A. APNEUSTIC CENTERS AND PNEUMOTAXIC CENTERS

64
Q

The common passageway shared by the respiratory and digestive systems is the
a. glottis
b. vestibule
c. larynx
d. pharynx
e. trachea

A

D. PHARYNX

65
Q

Breathing through the nose rather than the mouth is advantageous for all of the following reasons except:
a. decreased breath volumes on inhalation
b. water loss is reduced on exhalation
c. air is humidified on inhalation
d. air is warmed on inhalation
e. heat loss is reduced on exhalation

A

A. DECREASED BREATH VOLUME ON INHALATION

66
Q

Define bronchopulmonary segment:
a. region of the lung supplied by a segmental bronchus
b. region supplied by a main or primary bronchus
c. region supplied by respiratory bronchioles
d. region supplied by a lobar or secondary bronchus
e. region supplied by a terminal bronchioles

A

A BRONCHOPULMONARY SEGMENT IS A REGION OF THE LUNG SUPPLIED BY A SEGMENTAL BRONCHUS

67
Q

the opening or closing of the glottis involves rotational movement of the:
a. rima glottidis
b. vocal folds
c. cricoid cartilages
d. vestibular folds
e. arytenoid cartilages

A

E. ARYTENOID CARTILAGES

68
Q

The respiratory mucosa of the conducting airways consists of
a. ciliated squamous epithelium
b. simple squamous epithelium
c. pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
d. surfactant cells
e. moist cuboidal epithelium

A

C. PSEUDOSTRATIFIED CILIATED COLUMNAR EPITHELIUM

69
Q

Identify the body’s three major buffer systems
a. renal buffer system, respiratory buffer system, and the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system
b. hemoglobin buffer system, amino acid buffer system, and the plasma protein buffer system
c. renal buffer system, respiratory buffer system, and the phosphate buffer system
d. hemoglobin buffer system, amino acid buffer system, and the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system
e. phosphate buffer system, protein buffer system, and the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system

A

E. PHOSPHATE VUFFER SYSTEM, PROTEIN VUFFER SYSTEM, AND THE CARBONIC ACID-BICARBONATE BUFFER SYSTEM

70
Q

Identify the electrolytes absorbed by active transport
a. K, Cl, Fe, iodide
b. H, HCO3, Sulfate, K
c. Zn, Copper, Cl, Ca
d. Na, Ca, Mg, Fe, PO34-, sulfate
e, chloride, iodide, nitrate

A

SODIUM, CALCIUM, MAGNESIUM, IRON, PHOSPHATE, AND SULFATE

71
Q

How would a decrease in the pH of body fluids affect the respiratory rate
a. respiratory rate would not change
b. respiratory rate would increase
c. respiratory rate would decrease

A

B. RESPIRATORY RATE WOULD INCREASE

72
Q

Hypoventilation leads to
a. respiratory alkalosis
b. respiratory acidosis
c. metabolic alkalosis
d. metabolic acidosis

A

B. ACIDOSIS

73
Q

A person who consumes large amounts of sodium bicarbonate to settle an upset stomach risks
a. metabolic acidosis
b. respiratory acidosis
c. metabolic alkalosis
d. respiratory alkalosis

A

B. METABOLIC ALKALOSIS

74
Q

Which of the following descriptions best fits the acid-base disorder respiratory alkalosis?
a. tissue hypoxia, for example in ischemic conditions
b. hyperventilation, for example in fever or mental illness
c. prolonged vomiting
d. reduced alveolar ventilation, for example due to COPD

A

C. METABOLIC ALKALOSIS

75
Q

Secretion of K into the urine is
a. associated with the secretion of sodium from the distal tubules and collecting ducts
b. increased when the exchange pump binds H+
c. decreased by aldosterone
d. increased by aldosterone
e. none of the above

A

B. CONSEQUENCE OF HYPERVENTILATION. FOR EXAMPLE IN FEVER OR MENTAL ILLNESS

76
Q

Which substance plays a central role in determining the rate of sodium reabsorption?
a. ADH
b. extracellular fluid
c. aldosterone
d. epinephrine
e. natriuretic peptides

A

C. ALDOSTERONE

77
Q

Which structure is the collecting duct?
a. 6
b. 4
c. 3
d. 1
e. 5

A

A. 6

78
Q

During the micturition reflex
a. sympathetic motor neurons that control the detrusor muscle become active
b. the internal sphincter is consciously relaxed
c.the external sphincter is unconsciously relaxed’d. d.stimulation of stretch receptors in the bladder wall sends impulses to the lumbar spinal cord
e. none

A

E. NONE OF THE ANSWERS IS CORRECT

79
Q

Describe autoregulation at the kidneys
a. maintaining GFR despite changes in local BP and blood flow by activating the SNS

A

C. AUTOREGULATION IS THE PROCESS OF MAINTAINING GFR DESPITE CHANGES IN LOCAL BLOOD PRESSURE AND BLOOD FLOW BY CHANGING LOCAL RESPONSES IN THE KIDNEY

80
Q

What are the two reflexes that control urination
a. urine deglutition reflex and the urine micturition reflex
b. the urine trigone reflex and the urine detrusor reflex
c. the pontine storage center and the pontine micturition center
d. the urine deglutition reflex and the urine defecation reflex
e. the urine storage reflex and the urine voiding reflex

A

E. THE URINE STORAGE REFLEX AND THE URINE VOIDING REFLEX

81
Q

As the filtrate passes through the renal tubules, approximately what percentage is reabsorbed and returned to the circulation?
a. 74
b. 63
c. 38
d. 99
e. 1

A

D. 99

82
Q

The inability to urinate is termed
a. urinary retention
b. urgency
c. incontinence
d dysuria
e. oliguria

A

A. URINARY RETENTION

83
Q

Regarding kidney function, in ____, solutes are transported from the peritubular fluid across the tubular epithelium and into the tubular fluid
a. secretion
b. reabsorption
c. filtration
d. both reabsorption and secretion
e. filtration, reabsorption, and secretion

A

A. SECRETION

84
Q

Each of the following is a normal constituent of urine except
a. creatine
b. proteins
c. hydrogen ions
e. uric acid

A

B. PROTEINS

85
Q

Antidiuretic hormone
a. increased the permeability of the collecting ducts to water by decreasing the number of aquaporins
b.causes the kidneys to produce a larger volume of very dilute urine
c. is secreted in response to low potassium ion in the blood
d. increases the permeability of the collecting ducts to water by increasing the number of aquaporins
e. release is insensitive to the osmolarity of interstitial fluid

A

D. INCREASES THE PERMEABILITY OF THE COLLECTING DUCTS TO WATER BY INCREASING THE NUMBERS OF AQUAPORINS

86
Q

A glomerulus is:
a. horshoe-shaped segment of the nephron
b. attached to the collecting duct
c. the expanded end of a nephron
d. a knot of capillaries within the renal corpuscle
e. the middle segment of the renal tubule

A

D. A KNOT OF CAPILLARIES WITHIN THE RENAL CORPUSCLE

87
Q

What structures enter and exit the kidney at the hilum?
a. the renal vein and urethra enter; the renal artery and ureter exit at the hilum
b. the renal artery and renal nerves enter; the renal vein and ureter exit at the hilum
c. the renal artery and renal nerves enter; the renal vein and urethra exit at the hilum
d. the renal artery and vein enter; the renal nerves exit at the hilum
e. the renal artery and ureter enter; the renal vein and the urethra exit at the hilum

A

B. THE RENAL ARTERY AND RENAL NERVES ENTER; THE RENAL VEIN AND URETER EXIT AT THE HILUM

88
Q

Compare obligatory water reabsorption with facultative water reabsorption

A

D. OBLIGATORY WATER REABSORPTION CANNOT BE PREVENTED, WHEREAS FACULTATIVE WATER REABSORPTION CAN BE PRECISELY CONTROLLED

89
Q

The area of the urinary bladder bounded by the openings of the two ureters and the urethra is called the
a. detrusor muscle
b. rugae
d. lamina propria
d. trigone
e. vasa recta

A

D. TRIGONE

90
Q

What effect does ADH have on the apical plasma membranes lining the DCT and collecting ducts?
a. ADH increases the sodium transporters in the apical plasma membranes lining the DCT and collecting ducts
b. increases both sodium transporters and aquaporins in the paical plasma membranes
c. decreases the sodium tranporters in the apical plasma membranes
d. increases the aquaporins in the apical plasma membranes
e. decreases the aquaporins in the apical plasma membranes

A

D. ADH INCREASES THE AQUAPORINS IN THE APICAL PLASMA MEMBRANES LINING THE DCT AND COLLECTING DUCTS

91
Q

The thick ascending limb of the nephron loop actively pumps what substances into the peritubular fluid?
a. water
b. sodium and hydrogen ions
c. sodium and chloride ions
d. potassium ions
e. sodium and potassium ions

A

C. SODIUM AND CHLORIDE IONS

92
Q

Put the following urinary structures in order as urine is produces and eliminated from the body
1. liver
2. urinary bladder
3. kidney
4. ureter
5. urethra

A

D. 3, 4, 2, 5

93
Q

Urine passes, in the order given, through which of the following structures?

A

C. COLLECTING DUCT, RENAL PELVIS, URETER, BLADDER, URETHRA

94
Q

Define countercurrent multiplication as it occurs in the kidneys
a. the exchange of substances in the adjacent limbs of the nephron loop containing fluid moving in the same directions
b. the exchange of substances in the adjacent limbs of the nephron loop containing fluid moving in opposite directions
c. the bulk reabsorption of substances in the proximal convoluted tubule and the bulk movement of water due to osmosis
d. the cycling of urea from the collecting duct to the nephron loop and back
e. the secretion of ions in response to hormones in the distal convoluted tubule

A

B. THE EXCHANGE OF SUBSTANCES IN THE ADJACENT LIMBS OF THE NEPHRON LOOP CONTAINING FLUID MOVING IN OPPOSITE DIRECTIONS

95
Q

What is the term for painful or difficult urination?
a. renal calculi
b. dysuria
c. anuria
d. oliguria
e. pyelonephritis

A

B. DYSURIA

96
Q

Identify the structure labeled 9:
a. major calyx,
b. renal column
c. minor calyx
d. renal pelvis
e. ureter

A

D. RENAL PELVIS

97
Q

Triangular or conical structures located in the renal medulla are called:
a. renal column
b. calyces
c. renal pelvises
d. nephrons
e. renal pyramids

A

E. RENAL PYRAMIDS

98
Q

In French, it’s “faire de pipi,” in Spanish, it’s “hacer pipi”, in English, it’s “I have to pee” What’s the medical term for this universal urge to pass urine?
a. degustation
b. mastication
c. micturition
d. defecation
e. filtration

A

C. MICTURITION

99
Q

Name the major excretory organs of the urinary system
a.urinary bladder
b. kidneys
c. urethra
d. ureters
e. adrenal gland

A

B. KIDNEYS

100
Q

Compare the minor and major calyces

A

D. THE MINOR CALYCES COLLECT URINE FROM A SINGLE LOB AND THE MAJOR CALUCES COLLECT URINE FROM 4-5 MINOR CALYCES

101
Q

What has to happen to the external urethral sphincter to allow urination?
a. it must be unconsciously stimulated to relax
b. it must be unconsciously stimulated to contract
c. it must be consciously stimulated to relax
d. it must be consciously stimulated to contract

A

C. IT MUST BE CONSCIOUSLY STIMULATED TO RELAX

102
Q

Nephrons located close to the medulla with long nephron loops are called
a. columnar nephrons
b. perimedullary nephrons
c. juxtamedullary nephrons
d. calyces
e. cortical nephrons

A

C. JUXTAMEDULLARY NEPHRONS

103
Q

Chloride ion is reabsorbed in the thick ascending limb by
a. cotransport with Na ions
b. active transport
c. simple diffusion
d. countertransport for bicarbonate ion
e. facilitated diffusion

A

A. COTRANSPORT WITH Na IONS

104
Q

Where does most nutrient reabsorption occur?
a. 2,
b. 1
c. 4
d. 6
e. 5

A

B. 1

105
Q

When does urine production end?
a.when the fluid enters the papillary ducts
b when the fluid enters the minor calyx
c. when the fluid enters the distal convoluted tubule
d. when the fluid enters the collecting ducts
e. when the fluid enters the renal pelvis

A

E. WHEN FLUID ENTERS THE RENAL PELVIS

106
Q

The filtration membrane in the renal corpuscle consists of what three layers?
a. dense layer of glomerulus, foot processes, and fenestrations in the capsule
b. fenestrations, matrix, and foot processes
c. endothelium of glomerulus
d. podocyte filtration slits, matrix cells in the glomerulus, and endothelium of glomerulus
e. filtration slits, foot processes, and slit pores

A

C. ENDOTHELIUM OF GLOMERULUS, DENSE LAYER OF GLOMERULUS, AND PODOCYTE FILTRATION SLITS

107
Q

Peristaltic contractions, beginning at the renal pelvis, sweep along the ureter, forcing urine toward the urinary bladder. in a normal, healthy person, how often do these contractions occur?
a. every 2 minutes
b. once every minutes
c. every 30 sec or so
d. 12-15 times a minute
e. it isn’t known

A

C. EVERY 30 SECONDS OR SO

108
Q

What does tHe juxtaglomerular complex do in response to decreased filtration pressure?
a. decreases ADH production/release
b.decreases renin production/release
c. increases renin production and release
d. increases aldosterone production and release
e. increases ADH production and release

A

C. INCREASES RENIN PRODUCTION AND RELEASE

109
Q

What percentage of nutrients is reabsorbed in the PCT?
a. 75
b. 90
c. 99
d. 25
e. 50

A

C. 99

110
Q

The filtrate first passes from the glomerular capsule to the
a. proximal convoluted tubule
b. minor calyx
c. collecting duct
d. nephron loop
e. distal convoluted tubule

A

PROXIMAL CONVOLUTED TUBULE

111
Q

The efferent arteriole of an nephron divides to form a network of capillaries within the cortex called the ___ capillaries:
a. cortical
b. vasa recta
c. glomerular
d. efferent
e. peritubular

A

PERITUBULAR

112
Q

Identify the three distinct processes of urine formation in the kidney
a. reabsorption, secretion, and excretion
b. secretion, excretion, and elimination
c. filtration, reabsorption, and excretion
d. filtration, reabsorption, and secretion
e. filtration, excretion, and secretion

A

D. FILTRATION, REABSORPTION, AND SECRETION

113
Q

Which of the following is not found in the area labeled 3:

A

E. VASA RECTA

114
Q

In the PCT, IONS and organic substrates are actively removed, thus causing what to occur?
a. osmotic flow of water in the tubular fluid
b. and increase in sodium transporters in the membrane
c. decrease in sodium transporters in the membrane
d. increase in aquaporin channels in the membrane
e. osmotic flow of water out of the tubular fluid

A

E. AN OSMOTIC FLOW OF WATER OUT OF THE TUBULAR FLUID

115
Q

The ureters and urinary bladder are linedby ___ epithelium
a. simple cuboidal
b. pseudostratified columnar
c. stratified squamous
d. simple columnar
e. transitional

A

E. TRANSITIONAL

116
Q

Briefly explain the difference between chronic and acute renal failure

A

C. CHRONIC RNEAL FAILURE IS A GRADUAL LOSS OF RENAL FUNCTION, WHEREAS ACUTE RENAL FAILURE IS A SUDDEN LOSS OF RENAL FUNCTION

117
Q

All of the following are true of the kidneys except that they are:
a. surrounded by a fibrous capsule
b. located partly within the pelvic cavity
c. located in a position that is retroperitoneal
d. held in place by the renal fascia
e. covered by peritoneum

A

B. LOCATED PARTLY WITHIN THE PELVIC CAVITY

118
Q

Eighty-five percent of nephrons in the human kidney are located in the ___ and have short nephron loops
a. renal pelvis
b. renal columns
c. fibrous capsule
d. cortex
e. medulla

A

D. CORTEX

119
Q

Substances larger than ___ do not pass through the filtration membrane
a. glucose
b. amino acids
c. albumin
d. sodium ions
e. urea

A

C. ALBUMIN

120
Q

Define dialysis
a cause by the backup of urine into the kidneys due to a blockage in the ureter
b. the process of using and artificial semipermeable membrane to remove wastes and retain plasma proteins in the blood of a person whose kidneys are not function properly
c. the. process of reducing bloop pressure by taking diuretics to increase urine volume
d. the breakdown of renal epithelial cells due to toxins
e. the process of transplanting a kidney into a person whose kidney are not functioning properly

A

B. THE PROCESS OF USING AN ARTIFICIAL SEMIPERMEABLE MEMBRANE TO REMOVE WASTES AND RETAIN PLASMA PROTEINS N THE BLOOD OF A PERSON WHOSE KIDNEYS ARE NOT FUNCTIONING PROPERLY

121
Q

Urine is carried to the urinary bladder by:
a. ureters
b. calyces
c. lymphatics
d. blood vessels
e. urethra

A

A. THE URETERS

122
Q

The ___ delivers urine to a minor calyx
a. DCT
b. ureter
c. nephron loop
d. renal corpuscle
e. papillary duct

A

PAPILLARY DUCT

123
Q

When ADH levels in the DCT decrease, what happens to the urine osmotic concentration?
a. con, decreases and volume increases
b. con decreases and urine vol decreases
c. con increases and volume increases
d. on stays the same and vol increases
e. con increases and volume decreases

A

A. URINE OSMOTIC CONCENTRATION DECREASES AND URINE VOLUME INCREASES

124
Q

Identify the structures of the renal corpuscle
a. glomerular capsule and glomerulus
b. PCT and DCT
c. glomerular capsule and PCT
d. glomerular capsule and nephron loop
e. collecting duct and papillary duct

A

A. GLOMERULAR CAPSULE AND GLOMERULUS

125
Q

The detrusor muscle
a. compresses the urinary bladder and expels urine through the urethra
b. moves along the ureters by peristalsis
c. surrounds the renal pelvis
d. functions as the internal urinary sphincter
e. functions as the external urinary sphincter

A

A. COMPRESSES THE URINARY BLADDERS AND EXPELS URINE THROUGH URETHRA

126
Q

The primary function of the PCT is
a. adjusting urine vol
b. secretion of drugs
c. secretion of acids and ammonia
d. reabsorbing nutrients
e. filtration

A

D. REABSORBING NUTRIENTS

127
Q

A healthy adult typically produces ___ of urine per day
a. 2500
b. 1200
c. 250 mL
d. 500 mL
e. 25 mL

A

B. 1200 mL

128
Q

The functional unit of the kidney is the
a. kidney lobe
b. renal sinus
c. collecting duct
d. calyx
e. nephron

A

E. NEPHRON

129
Q

Explain why BP is higher in glomerular capillaries that in other systemic capillaries
a. efferent arteriole drains into the peritubular capillaries
b. less proteins enter the afferent arterioles
c. the DCT constricts the afferent arteriole
d. kidneys are in close proximity to the renal arteries
e. efferent arteriole has a smaller diameter than the afferent arteriole

A

E. BP IS HIGHER IN GLOMERULAR CAPILLARIES BECAUSE THE EFFERENT ARTERIOLE HAS A SMALLER DIAMETER THAN THE AFFERENT ARTERIOLE

130
Q

An x-ray image of the urinary system is called a
a. nephrogram
b.pelvigram
c. renogram
d. urogram
e. pyelogram

A

E. PYELOGRAM

131
Q

The cavity of the kidney that receives urine from the calyces is called the
a. renal medulla
b. renal sinus
c. renal pelvis
d. renal cortex
e. renal papilla

A

C. RENAL PELVIS

132
Q

Put the following urinary structures in order to represent the flow of newly produced urine:
1. minor calyx,
2. renal sinus
3. renal pelvis
4. renal cortex
5. renal papilla

A

B. 5,1, 4, 2, 3

133
Q

Which of the following description best matches the term calyx?
a. superficial portion of the kidney
b. tip of the medullary pyramind
c. final urine enters here
d. initial filtrate enters here
e. releases renin

A

C. FINAL URINE ENTERS HERE

134
Q

From deep to superficial, put the following layers of the kidney in order
1. renal capsule
2. perinephric fat
3. cortex
4. renal fascia

A

B. 3, 1, 2, 4

135
Q

Identify the segment of the nephron that makes the final adjustments to the composition of tubular fluid
a. glomerular capsule
b. nephron loop
c. PCT
d. collecting duct
e. DCT

A

E. DISTAL CONVOLUTED TUBULE

136
Q

The most abundant waste solute in urine is
a. uric acid
b. potassium
c. urea
d. protein
e. creatine

A

C. UREA

137
Q

Typical renal blood flow is about ___ percent of cardiac output under resting conditions:
a. 25
b. 10
c. 40
d. 50
e. 5

A

A. 25